Chapter 5

3123.  Which is the correct traffic pattern depature procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A - Depart in any direction consistent with safety after crossing the airport boundary

B - Make all turns to the left

C - Comply iwth any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

3123-1.  The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

A - 45 degrees to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.

B - to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

C - to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.

3807. (Refer to Figure 50) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

A - Left-hand fron Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.

B - Left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.

C - Right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.

3808.  (Refer to Figure 50) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

A - south of the airport

B - north of the airport

C - southeast of the airport

3809. (Refer to Figure 50) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Rundway 260 will be with a 

A - right-quartering headwind

B - left-quartering headwind

C - right-quartering headwind

3810. (Refer to Figure 50) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

A - Right-hand traffic on Runway 9.

B - Right-hand traffic on Runway 18

C - Left-hand traffic on Runway 36

3719.  VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished.

A - at high airspeed

B - with a steeper descent

C - the same as during daytime

3122.  Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching an airport for landing?

A - Remain below the airplane traffic pattern altitude

B - Avoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic

C - Fly right-hand traffic

2060.  When approaching to land at an airport in Class G airspace that does not have light signals or other visuals markings, an airplane pilot must make

A - a straight-in approach

B - all turns to the right

C - all turns to the left

3778.  The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A - 009 and 027 true

B - 090 and 270 true

C - 090 and 270 magnetic

3778.1 the numbers 8 and 26 onthe approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A - 008 and 0260 true

B - 080 and 260 true

C - 080 and 260 magnetic

3778.2 When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

A - Indicates direction to take-off runway

B - Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

C - Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an instersection

3778-3.  (Refer to Figure 64)  Which symbol indicates a taxiway/taxiway intersection hold position marking?

A - B

B - D

C - E

3778-4 (See Figure 64)  WHich marking indicates a vehicle lane?

A - A

B - C

C - E

3778-5 The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates 

A - runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.

B - a hold line from a taxiway to  a runway

C - the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

3957.  (Refer to the Runway Incrusion Figure)  You have requested taxi instructions fro takeof using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you requires to stop in order to be in compliace with the controllers instructions?

A - 5

B -  6

C - 9

3773 ( Refer to Figure 48) that portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

A - Landing

B - Taxiing and takeoff

C - taxiing and landing

3774. (Refer to Figure 48) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

A - Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft

B - Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at postion B.

C - The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 30 begind at postion E.  

3776. (Refer to Figure 48) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a 


A - stabilized area

B - multiple heliport

C - closed runway

3805. (Refer to Figure 49) Selcet the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing. 

A - Left-hand traffic and Runway 18

B - Right-hand traffic and Runway 18

C - Left-hand traffic and runway 22

3806 (Refer to Figure 49) if the wing is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

A - Runway and expect a crosswind from the right

B - Runway 22 directly into the wind

C - Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right

3806-1 (Refer to figure 65) Sign F confirms your position on

A - runway 22

B - routing to runway 22

c - taxiway 22

3806-2 (refer to figure 65) Sign E is a visual clue that

A - confirms the aircrafts location to be on taxiway B

B - warns the pilot of approaching taxiway B

C - holding area B is ahead

3806-3 (refer to figure 65) A left turn at the intersection depicting sign A would place the aircraft

A - ready for a Runway 4 instersection takeoff

B - on the taxiway leading to Runway 4

C - ready for Runway 22 intersection takeoff

3769. An airports rotation beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

A - there are obstructions on the airport

B - the weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

C - the ATC tower is not in operation

3718.  Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

A - white directional lights

B - blue omnidirectional lights

C - alternate red and green lights

3768 To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times and the click it

A - one time within four seconds

B - three times withi three seconds

C - five times withing five seconds

3770 A lighted heliport may be identified by a 

A - green, yellow and white rotationg beacon

B - flashing yellow light

C - blue light square landing area

3771. A military air station can be identified by a rotation beacon that emits

A - white and green alternating flashes

B - two quick, white flashes between green flashes

C - green, yellow and white flashes

3772. Hoe can military airport be identified at night?

A - alternate white and green light flashes

B - Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

C - White flashing lights with steady green at the same location

3762-1. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidpath of the VASI?

A - runway identification and course guidance

B - safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

C - Lateral course guidance to the runway

3764.  A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a 


A - pulsating white light

B - steady white light 

C - pulsating red light

3120.  While operating in a Class D airspace., each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A - maintain a 3 degree glide until approx. 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI

B - maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

C - stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing

3121. When approaching to land on a runway served by a VSAI the pilot shall

A - maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold

B - maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

C - remain on the glide slop and land between the two-light bar

3760.  A slight high glide slope indication from precision approach path indicator is

A - Four white lights

B - three white lights and one red light

C - Two white lights and two red rights

3765. (Refer to figure 47) illustration A indicates that the aircraft is 


A - below the glide slope

B - on the glide slope

C - above the glide slope

3766. (Refer to Figure 47) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is 


A - off course to the left

B - above the glide slope

C - below the glide slope

3767.  (Refer to Figure 47) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VSAI, the lifhts appear as shown by illustration D. this means that the aircraft is

A - above the glide slope

B - below the glide slope

C - on the glide slope

3302.  When taxiing with strong quartering tailwings, which aileron positions should be used?

A - Aileron down on the downwind side

B - Aileron neutral

C - Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

3303.  Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in a strong quartering headwinds?

A - Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

B - Aileron down on the sife from which the wind is blowing

C - Aileron Neutral

3304. which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?

A - quartering tailwind

B - direct crosswind

C - quartering headwind

3305. (Refer to figure 9, area A) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped  airplane into a left quatering headwind

A - left aileron up, elevator neutral

B - left aileron down, elevator neutral

C - left aileron up, elevator down

3306. (Refer to figure 9, area B) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplene into the right quartering headwind?

A - Right aileron up, elevator up

B - Right aileron down, elevator neutral

C - Right aileron up, elevator down

3307. (Refer to figure 9, area C) how should the fligth controls be held while taxing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

A - Left aileron up, elevator neutral

B - left aileron down, elevator neutral

C - Left aileron down, elevator down

3308. (Refer to figure 9, area C) how should the fligth controls be held while taxing a tri-cycle gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

A - Left aileron up, elevator neutral

B - left aileron down, elevator down

C - Left aileron up, elevator down

3308-1 To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the 

A - direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway

B - longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion

C - downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift

3619. (refer to figure 71, area 4 and legend 1) For information about the parachute jumping operations at Linconl Regional/Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to 

A - notes on the border of the chart

B - the Chart Supplements U.S.

C - the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publications.

3619-1.  Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A - NOTAMs

B - Chart Supplements U.S.

C - Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data

381.  (Refer to Figure 52) Where is Loup City Minicipal located with relation to the city?

A - Northeast approximately 3 miles

B - Northwest approximately 1 mile

C - East approximately 7 miles

3842 (Refer to Figure 52) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

A - to the right on the Runway 18 and Runway 36

B - to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35; to the left on Runway 36.

C - to the righto on Runways 14-32

3513 (refer to Figure 63) what is the length of the displace threshold for runway 22 at Toledo (TDZ)

A - 25 Feet

B - 100 feet

C - 380 feet

3838-1 (refer to figures 76 and 77) inbound to Pierre Regional (PIR) from the south-west with wind 240 to 12 knots, expect to make

A - left traffic for runway 25

B - right traffic fro runway 25

C - left traffic for runway 07

3841-4. (refer to figure 78,79, and legend 3) where is relation to the airfield is the airport beacon located for Sioux City (SUX) airport?

A - West of runway 17-35

B - East of runway 17-35

C - Approach end of runway 31

3838. (refer to figure 52) When approcahing LNK from the west at noon for purpose of landing, initial communications should be with.

A - Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0MHz

B - Minneapoloz Center on 128.75MHz

C - Lincoln Tower on 118.6 MHz

3839.  (refer to Figure 52) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal

A - Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard seperation

B - Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflist resolution so that radar tragerts fo no touch, or 1,000 feet vertical seperation.

C - Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

3840. (Refer to Figure 52) What is the recommended communication procedure for landing at LNK during the hours when the tower is not in operation?

A - Monitor airport traffic and annouce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz

B - Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories

C - Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then annouce your position on 122.95 MHz

3163. When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and inclusing 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

A - the entire flight time at those altitude

B - that flight time in excess for 10 minutres at those altitudes

C - that flight time in excess of 30 mins at those altitudes.

3164.  Unless eash occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

A - 12,500 feet MSL

B - 14,000 feet MSL

C - 15,000 feet MSL

3832. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in 

A - tightness across the forehead

B - loss of muscular power

C - an increased sense of well-being

3844.  Whihch statement best defines hypozia?

A - A state of oxygen defiency in the body

B - An abnormal increase in the colume of air breathed.

C - A condition of gas bubble formation around the joint or muscles

3845. When a stressfull situation is encountered in flight an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed  in and out can cause a condition known as

A - hyperventelation

B - aerosinusitis

B - aerotitis

3846.  Which would most likely result in hyperventelation?

A - Emotional tension, anxiety or fear

B - The excessive consumption of alcohol

C - An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen

3847.  A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilations should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by

A - Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bad, or talking aloud.

B - Breating spontaneously and deeplu or gaining mental control of the situation

C - increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lunh ventilation

3848. Susceptibility to cabon monioxide poisoning increases as

A - altitude increases

B - altitude decreases

C - air pressure increases

3850. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by

A - shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel

B - having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs

C - leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.

3851. A lack of orientation with regard to the position altitude or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

A - spatial disorientation

B - hyperventilation

C - hypoxia

3852.  Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

A - they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear

B - visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)

C - eye are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments

3853.  If a pilot experience spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best wat to overcome the effect is to 

A - rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.

B - concentrate on yaw, pitch and roll sensations

C - consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breating rate.

3931.  What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircrafts limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

A - Scud running

B - Mind set

C - Peer pressure

3932.  WHta antidotal pharse can help reverse the hazardous altitude of "antiauthority"?

A - Rulles do not apply in this situations

B - I know what I am doing

C - Follow the rules

3933.  WHta antidotal pharse can help reverse the hazardous altitude of "implusivity"?

A - it could happen to me

B - do it quickly to get it over with

C - not so fast, think first

3931-1. Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot  to some degree at some time. what are some of these hazardous attitudes?

A - Poor risk management and lack of stress management

B - Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability

C - Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of decision making process.

3931-2 In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step to neutralising a hazardous attitude?

A - Making a rational judgement

B - Recognizing hazardous thoughts 

C - Recognizing the invulnearbility of the situation.

3931-3 Risk mangement, as part of aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which feastures to reduc the ricks associated wich each flight

A - Application of stress management and risk element procedures

B - Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment

C - The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take

3934. What antidotal phrase can help revers the hazardous attitude in "invulnerability"?

A - It will not happen to me

B - It can not be that bad

C - It could happen to me

3935. What antidotal phrase can help revers the hazardous attitude in "Macho"?

A - I can do it

B - Taking chances is foolish

C - Nothin will happen

3936. What antidotal phrase can help revers the hazardous attitude in "resignation"?

A - What is the use

B - Someone else is responsible

C - I am not helpless

3937.  Who is reposnsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he  or she holds  a current medical centificate?

A - The FAA

B - The ME

C - The Pilot

3938.  What is the common factor of which affects most preventable accidents?

A - Structural failure

B - Mechanical mulfunction

C - Human error

3939.  What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under VFR?

A - Continual flight into instrument conditions.

B - Getting behind the aircraft

C - Duck-under syndrome

3940. What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?

A - Checklist

B - Situation awareness

C - Flying outside the envelope

3940-1.  A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet.  The temperature is warmer than expected and after conputing the density altitude is is determined the takeoff distance ive a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet the airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight.  What would be the best choice?

A - Takeoff off into the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed

B - Try a takeoff without the passenges to make sure the climb is adequte

C - Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.

3710-1 Most midair collision accidents occur during 

A - Hazy days

B - Clear days

C - Cloudy nights

3710.  Prios to starting each maneuverm pilots should.  

A - Check altitude, airspess, and heading insitications

B - visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

C - annouce thier intentions on the nearest CTAF

3833.  What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain during flight?


A - Haze causes the eyes to focus at inifinity

B - The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily

C - All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

3834.  The most effectice methid of scannong for other AC for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

A - regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12- o clock positions.

B - a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degress sector

C - peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing

3835.  Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

A - Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

B - Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area

C - Continous sweeping of the windshiels from right to left

3836.  How can you determine if another aircradt is on a collision couse with your AC?

A - the other AC will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate

B - the nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space

C - there will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

3849.  What preratation should a pilot make to adapt eyes for night flying?

A - Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight

B - Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

C - Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

3712.  What is the most eddective way to use the eyes during night flight?

A - Look only at far away, dim lights

B - Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing

C - Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

3713.  The best mothod to use when looking for another traffice at night is to

A - look to the side of the object and scan slowly

B - scan the visual field very rapidly

C - look to the side of the object and scan rapidly

3714.  The most effective methis of scannong for other AC for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

A - regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12- o clock positions.

B - a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degress sector

C - peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing

3162.  Except in Alaska, during time period should lighted position lights be displayes on an aircraft?

A - End of evening civik twilight to the beginnning of morning civil twilight

B - 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

C - Sunset to sunrise

3916.  PIlot are encouraged to turn on thier landing light when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within

A - Class B airspace

B - 10 miles of any aiport

C - wihtin 15 miles of a towered airport

3916-1 The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating

A - in a Class B airspace

B - in conditions of reduced visbility

C - within 15 miles of a towered airport

3715.  During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude,  WHat is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A - The other AC is crossing to the left

B - The other AC is crossing to the right

C - The other AC is approaching head-on

3716.  During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing white light ahead and at the same altitude,  WHat is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A - The other AC is approaching head-on

B - The other AC is crossing to the left

C - The other AC is crossing to the right

3716.  During a night flight, you observe a steady red and green lights  ahead and at the same altitude,  What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A - The other AC is crossing to the left

B - The other AC is flying away from you

C - The other AC is approaching head-on

2020.  Pilots must operate the anti-sollision light

A - at night or in inclement weather

B - at night when visibility is less than 3 miles and flight in Class B airspace

C - day and night, except when the PIC determines that they constitute a hazard to safety.