Chapter 4

3005. The Definition of nighttime is

A - Sunset to sunrise

B - 1 hour after Sunset to 1 hour before Sunrise

C - The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

3064. In regard to privilages and limitations, a private pilot may

A - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operationg expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures , or rental fees.

B - act as  Pilot In Commnad of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment

C - not be paid in any mannerfor operation expenses of a flight

3065. According to regulattions pertaining to privilages and limitations, a private pilot may

A - be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.

B - not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

C - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expeses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

3066. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

A - If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.

B. If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

C - There is no exception

3067. (Refer to Figure 74) What minimum pilot certificate is requred doe a flight departing out of Hayward Executive (ares 6)?

A - Student Pilot Certifite

B - Private Pilot Certificate

C - Sport Pilot Certificate

3044. According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may

A - be paid for the operating expenses of a flight. 

B - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.

C - not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

3045.  In regard to privilages and limitations, a recretaional pilot may

A - fly for compensation or hire within 50 NM from the depature airport with a logbook endorsement.

B - not be paid in any manner fo the operating expenses of a flight from a passenger. 

C - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.

3046.  When may a recretional pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 NM from the departure airport?

A - After receiving ground and flight instructions on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement. 

B - 12 calendar months after receiving his or her recreational pilot certificate and a logbook endorsement.

C - After attaining 100 hours fo PIC time and a logbook endorsement.

3047.  A recreational pilot may act as PIC of an aircraft that is certicated for maximum of how many occupants?

A - Two

B - Three

D - Four

3048. A recreatioal pilot may act as PIC of an aircarft wiht a maximum engine horsepower of 

A - 160

B - 180

C - 200

3049. What exception, if any, permits a recretional pilot to as PIS of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?

A - If the passenger pays no more than the operating expenses.

B - If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

C - There is no exception.

3050. May a recreational pilot as a PIC of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?

A - Yes, if the fligth is only incidental to that business.

B - Yes, providing the aircraft does not carry a person or property for compensation or hire.

C - No, it is not allowed.

3051. With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?

A - One hour before sunrise

B - at sunrise

C - at the beginning of morning civil twilight

3052. If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight?

A - 2021

B - 2043

C - 2121

2130. If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a sport pilot terminate the flight?

A - 2021

B - 2043

C - 2121

3052-1. When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft at night?

A - When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 1 statue mile.

B - When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 3 statue mile.

C - When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 5 statue mile.

3053. When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C Airspace

A - Anytime the control tower is in operation.

B - When the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the surface visibility is at least 2 miles.

C - After receiving training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor

3054.  Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Call D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?

A - Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 2,500 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.

B - Any time when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet, and the visibility is more than 1 mile.

C - Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the visibility is at least 3 miles.

3055.  When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL?

A - When 2,000 feet AGL or below.

B - When 2,500 feet AGL or below.

C - Whne outside of controlled airspace.

3056. During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

A - 1 mile

B - 3 miles

C - 5 miles

3057. During daytime, what is the mininum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

A - 1 mile

B - 3 miles

C - 5 miles

3058. Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?

A - The buyer pays all the operating expenses

B - The flight is not outside the US

C - None

3059. When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as PIC in an aircraft towing a banner?

A - If the pilot has logged 100 hours of flight time in powered aircraft.

B - If the polot has an endorsement in his/her pilot logbook from an authorized flight instructor.

C - It is not allowed.

3043.  How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowd to carry on board?

A - One

B - Two

C - Three

2123.  How many passengers is a sport pilot allowed to carry on board?

A - One

B - Two

C - Three

3060.  When must a recreational pilot have a PIC flight check?

A - Every 400 hours

B - Every 180 days

C - If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as PIC in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days.

3061.  A recretaional pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least

A - 3 miles

B - 4 miles

C - 5 miles

3134.  What minimum visibility and clerance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A - 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

B - 3 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

C - 3 mile visibility, 500 feet below the clouds.

3135.  Outside controlled aispace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hour is

A - 1 mile

B - 3 miles

C - 5 miles

2061.  Outside controlled airspace, the minimum fligt visibility requirement for a sports pilot flying above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

A - 1 statue mile

B - 3 statue miles

C - 5 statue miles

2061-1. The minimim flight visibility requirement for a sport pilot is

A - 1 statue mile

B - 3 statue miles

C - 5 statue miles

3001. With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

A - Gryoplace, helicopter, airship, free balloon.

B - Airplane, rotocraft, glider, lighter-than-air

C - Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

3002.  With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?

A -Airplane, rotocraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

B - Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

C - Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air ballon, gas ballon.

3024 - The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

A - Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the administrator

B - Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

C - Aircraft involved is ferrt flight, training flights or test flights.

3039.  A third-class medical certificates was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year.  To exercise the privilages of a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnught on

A - August 10, 2 years later.

B - August 31, 5 years later.

C - August 31, 2 years later.

3020.  A 3rd class medical certificate is issued to a 36 years old pilot on August 10, this year.  To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid  until midnight on

A - August 10, 3 years later.

B - August 31, 5 years later

C - August 31, 3 years later.

3021.  A 3rd class medical certificate is issued to a 51-years old pilot on May 3, this year.  To exercise the privilages of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificat will be valid until midnight on

A - May 3, 1 year later

B - May 31, 1 year later

C - May 31, 2 years later

3022.  For pricate pilot operations, a second-class medical certificate issued to a 42-years old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on.

A - July 15, 2 years later

B - July 31, 1 year later

C - July 31, 2 years later

3023.  For private pilot operations, a fisrt-class medical certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

A - October 21, 2 years later

B - October 31, next year

C - October 31, 5 years later

3023-1.  To operated under BasicMed the PIC must have completed a physical examination by a state-licnesed physician within the precending

A - 48 months

B - 24 months

C - 12 months

3023-2.  For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the PIC is allowed to fly with no more than

A - 6 passengers

B - 5 passengers

C - 5 occupants

3023-3.  To maintain BasicMed privilages you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every

A - 48 months

B - 24 Months

C - 12 months

3062.  Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a glider rating, the pilot must have in his or her possesion what type of medical?

A - A statement from a designated medical examiner.

B - A 3rd-class medical certificate

C - A medical certificate is not required.

3063.  Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a ballon rating, the pilot must have in his or her posession what class of medical?

A - A third-class medical certificate

B - A medical certificate is not required

C - A statement from a designated medical examiner.

3016.  WHat document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as PIC of an aircraft?

A - Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review.

B - A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of a annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.

C - An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate id required.

3017.  When must current pilot certificate be in a pilots personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

A - When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery

B - Only when passengers are carried

C - Anything when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

3018.  A recreational or private pilot acting as a pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot crewmember, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

A - Logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

B - medical certificate if requred and an appropriate pilot certificate.

C - endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

3019.  Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the administrator, the NTSB, or any

A - Authorized representative of the Department of Transportation

B - Person in a position of authority

C - federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

2129.  Each person who holds a pilot certifcate, a US drivers license, or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the administrator, the NTSB, or any

A - Authorized representative of the department if transportation

B - Authorized representative of the department of state

C . federal, state, or local low enforcement officer.

3038  A recreational pilot actiong as PIC must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft

A - a current logbook endorement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

B - a current logbook endorsement that permits flights within 50 NM from the departure airport.

C - the pilot logbook to show recent experience requirement to serve as pilot in command have been met

3028. To act as the PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot preficiency chech within the precefing

A - 6 calendar months.

B - 12 calendar months.

C - 24 calendar months.

3029. if recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is

A - 1829

B - 1859

C - 1929

3030. To act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have a made at least thress takeoffs and the three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

A - 90 days

B - 12 calendar months

C - 24 calendar months

3030-1. Your cousin want you to take him flying.  In order to do tis, you must have made at least 3 takeoffs and 2 landings in your aircraft with the preceding

A - 90 days

B - 60 days

C - 30 days

3031.  To act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must hace made three takeoffs and 3 landings with the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

A - make and model

B - category and class, but not type

C - category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

30304. To meet the recency of experience requirements to act a PIC carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have a made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop within tehe precesing 90 days in

A - the same category and class of aircraft to be used

B  - the same type of aircraft to be used

C - any aircraft

3040.  If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

A - August 8, 2 years later

B - August 31, next year

C - August 31, 2 years later

3041.  Each recreational or private pilot is required to have 

A - a biennial flight review

B - an annoul flight review

C - a semiannual flight review

3032. The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

A - may be touch and go or full stop

B - must be touch and go

C - must be to a full stop

3033. The 3 takeoffs and 3 landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

A - sunser to sunrise

B - 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

C - the end of evening civil teilight to the beginnning of morning civil twilight

3025.  What is the defination of a high-performance airplane?

A - An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

B - An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retracable landing gear, flaps, and fixed-pitch propeller.

C - An airplane with a normal cruises speed in excess of 200 knots.

3026.  Before a person holfing a Private Pilot Certificate may act as PIC of high-performance airplane, that person must have

A - passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector

B - an endorsement in that persons logbook that he or she is competent to act as PIC

C - received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that persons logbook.

3027. In order to act as PIC in a high performance airplane, a pilot must have

A - made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in high-performance airplane.

B - passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane

C - receive and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.

3036.  A certificated private pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraftt towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilots logbook a minimun of

A - 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

B - 100 hours of PIC time in the aircraft category, class , and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

C - 200 hours of PIC time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow  a glider.

3037. To act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made withint the preceding 24 months.

A - at least 3 flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft

B - at least three flights in a powered glider

C - at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

3067-1 (refer to figure 73) these glider hand signal are examples of

A - aerowtow visual signals

B - aerowtow prelaunch signals

C - aerowtow emergency signals

3035. If a certificated pilot changes permanament mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privilages of the pilot certificate for a period of only. 

A - 30 days after the date of the move

B - 60 days after the date of the move

C - 90 days after the date of the move

3070. The final authority as the operation of an aircraft is the 

A - Federal Aviation Administration

B - Pilot In Command

C - Aircraft Manufacturer

3072. If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the PIC may.

A - deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the administrator within 24 hours.

B - deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.

C - not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the administrator.

3073.  When must a pilot who diviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator?

A - withing 7 days

B - within 10 days

C - upon request

3074. Who is reponsible for determining id an aircraft is in condition for safe flightt?

A - A certificated aircraft mechanic

B - The pilot in commmand

C-  The owner or operator

3071. Pre-takeodd breifing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of

A - all passengers

B - the pilot

C - a crewmember

2308.  The person directly reponsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the 

A - safety officer

B - PIC

C - ground crewmember

3080.  Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A - Chech the aircarft logbooks for appropriate entries.

B - Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

C - review wake turbulance avoidance procedures

3081. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vacinity of an airport, shall include

A - the designation of an alternate airport.

B - a study if arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.

C - an alternate cours of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

3082. In additional to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the depature airport, regulations speciffically require the PIC to

A - review traffic control light signal procedures

B - check the accuracy of navigations equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)

C - determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircrafts takeoff and landing distance data.

3132.  What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A - Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.

B - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

C - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

3131. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

A - enought to complete the fligt at normal crusing speed with adverse wind conditions.

B - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

C - enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal crusing speed.

3133. No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter for at least

A - 20 minutes

B - 30 minutes

C - 1 hour

2033. How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

A - Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.

B - Any sequence as determined by the PIC

C - Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer

3080. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A - Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

B - Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

C - Review wake turbulance avoidance procedures.

3081. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

A - the designation of an alternate airport.

B - a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.

C - an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

3082. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the depature airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to 

A - review traffic controll light signal procedures.

B - check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)

C - determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircrafts takeoff and landing distance data.

3132 What is the specific fuel requirement for flight VFR at night in an airplane?

A - Enough to complete the flight at normal curising speed wit adverse wind conditions.

B - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after for 30 minutes to normal crusing speed. 

C - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after for 45 minutes to normal crusing speed.

3131. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

A - Enough to complete the flight at normal curising speed with adverse winde conditions.

B - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after for 30 minutes to normal crusing speed. 

C - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after for 45 minutes to normal crusing speed.

2033.  How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the flight of the day?

A - Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.

B - Any Sequense as determined by the PIC

C - Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

3083.  Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during 

A - Takeoffs and landing

B - all flight conditions

C - flight in turbulent air

3084. Which best describes the flight conditiones under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder hardnesses fastened?

A - Safety belts during takeoff and landing, shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

B - Safety belts during takeoff and landing, shoulder harnesses during takeoff and lang, while en route.

C - Safety belts buring takeoff and landing and while en route. shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

3085.  With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a PIC have concerning the use of safety belts?


A - the PIC must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight

B - the PIC must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

C - The PIC has no obligation in regard to pessengers use of safety belts.

3085-1.  Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of

A - All passengers

B - PIC

C- The right seat pilot

3086.  Wiht certain exceptions, safety belts are requireds to be secured about passengers during

A - taxi, takeoffs, and landings

B - all flight conditions

C - flight in turbulent air

2232. The PIC is responsible for ensuring that each person on board applicable US registered aircraft is breifed and instrcted on how and when to 

A - Fasten and unfasten their seat belt and shoulder harness

B - adjust their seat

C - operate the fire extinguisher

3087.  Safety belts are required to be property secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

A - Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.

B - Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs and landings only

C -  Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight

3077.  A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that  person within the preceding

A - 8 hours

B - 12 hours

C - 24 hours

3078. under what condition, if an may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried abroad an aircraft?

A - in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care

B - Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilots comparment

C - under no condition

3079.  No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

A - .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

B - .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

C - .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

2087.  Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

A - A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.

B - An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol

C - Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversly affected by even small amounts of alcohol

3079-1 How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alchohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A - No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

B - No later than 30 days after the motor vehicle action.

C - Required to be reported upom renewal of medical certificate.

2126. A pilot convicted of oeprating an aircraft under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person's faculties, is grounds for a

A - Denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 12 CFR part 61.

B - written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institure (CAMI) within 60 days after the convistion.

C - written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 day after the conviction.

2127.  A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statue relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs us grounds for

A - a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Divsion (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction

B - notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedial Institure (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.

C - Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.

2128. A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a 

A - written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

B - written report to the FAA Civil Avitional Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.

C - notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

3089. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A - A balloon.

B - An aircraft in distress.

C - An aircraft on final approach to land

3090.  What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

A - The after aircraft shall give way.

B - The aircraft on the left shall give way.

C - Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

3093.  Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A - Glider

B - Airship

C - Aircraft refueling other aircraft

3092.  An airplane and an airship are convergine.  If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A - The airship

B - The airplane

C - Each pilot should alter course to the right

3091.  Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A - Gryplane

B - Airship

C - Aircraft towing other aircraft

3095.  When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

A - that has the other to its right

B - that us the least maneaverable

C - at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

3096.  A seaplane and a motorboard are on crossing courses.  If the motorboar is to the left of the seaplane which has the right-of-way?

A - The motorboat

B - The seaplane

C - Both should alter course to the right

3094.  What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane thae if on a head-on collission course?

A - The airplane pilot should give way to the left

B - The glider pilot should give way to the right

C - Both pilots should give way to the right

3172. An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if its has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

A - 120 days

B - 180 days

C - 365 days

3173.  With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

A - When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumoers.

B - When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more

C - When intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees

3108. When an ATC clearance has been obtained no PIC may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance.  The one exception to this regulation is

A - when the clearance states "at pilot's discretion"

B - an emergency

C - if the clearance contains a restriction

3108-1.  As PIC of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A - When operation a Class A airspace at night.

B - If an ATC Clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions.

C - In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

3109.  When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency whcih caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A - Within 48 hours if requested by ATC

B - Immediately

C - Within 7 days

3110. WHat action, if any, is appropriate if the Pilot deviate from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

A - Take no special action since you are PIC

B - File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

C - File a report to the FAA administrator, as soon as possible.

3837.  An ATC clearance provides

A - Priority over all other traffic

B - adequate seperation from all traffic

C - authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

2003.  An ATC clearance means an authorization by ATC for an aircraft to proceed under specified conditions within

A - controlled airspace

B - uncontrolled airspace

C - published Visual Flight Rules (VFR) routes

2004. While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact within ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

A - 121.5 MHz

B - 122.5 MHz

C - 128.725 MHz

3101.  Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A - An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

B - An altitude if 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

C - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within an horizontal radius of 1,000 feet

3102.  Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over conggested areas?

A - An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

B - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft

C - An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

3103.  Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimim safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A - An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

B - An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

C - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within an horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

3104.  Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

A - 500 feet

B - 700 feet

C - 1,000 feet

3136. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A - 1,000 feet

B - 1,500 feet

C - 2,000 feet

3138.  What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A - 1 mile

B - 3 miles

C - 4 miles

3139. The minimim distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

A - remain clear of clouds

B - 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally

C -500 feet below, 1000 feet below, and 2000feet horizontally

3140. During operations within controlled airspace at altitifes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A - 500 feet

B - 1,000 feet

C - 1,500 feet

3141.  VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of 

A - 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

B - 5 miles, and 1000 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes

C - 5 miles, and 1000 feet below or 10,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

3145. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

A - 1 mile

B - 3 miles

C - 5 miles

3146.  For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds is

A - 1,000 feet

B - 2,000 feet

C - 1 mile