To preserve evidence, a medical examiner, deputy medical examiner or district attorney may enclose or lock any room, dwelling, building or other enclosure for a period of not more than ____.
d. 48 hours
(ORS 146.107 Authority to Enter and Secure Certain Premises)
B. 5 days
A medical examiner, deputy medical examiner or district attorney may enter any room, dwelling, building or other places in which they have _____ to believe that a body or evidence of the circumstances of death requiring investigation may be found.
(ORS 146.107 Authority to Enter and Secure Certain Premises)
B. Reasonable Cause
Community caretaking functions include the right to enter or remain upon the premises of another if it reasonably appears to be necessary to.
(ORS 133.033 Peace Officer Community Caretaking Functions)
D. Everything listed
A warrant of arrest shall include which of the following:
(ORS 133.140 Content and Form of Warrant)
B. Everything listed
A search warrant issued by a judge of _____ may be executed anywhere in the state.
(ORS 133.545 Issuance of Search Warrant)
D. Court of Appeals
Of the following who may not apply for a search warrant?
d. None of the above
(ORS 133.545 Issuance of Search Warrant)
C. Medical Examiner
A search warrant may be executed by?
(ORS 133.575 Execution of Warrant)
B. Police Officer
Before undertaking any search or seizure pursuant to the warrant, the executing officer _____ the warrant.
d. Leave a copy without reading
(ORS 133.575 Execution of Warrant)
A. Shall read and give a copy of
The medical examiner shall investigate and certify the cause and manner of all deaths except:
(ORS 146.090 Deaths Requiring Investigation)
C. While under the care of a physician
An attempt to commit murder is ____.
(ORS 161.405 Attempt Described)
C. Class A Felony
An attempt to commit an unclassified felony is _____.
(ORS 161.405 Attempt Described)
C. Class A Misdemeanor
For the crime of unlawful sexual penetration in the second degree (ORS 163.408) it is a defense if the actor is ____ older than the victim and any object was used to commit the offense.
(ORS 163.345 Age as a Defense in Certain Cases)
C. None listed
In any prosecution under ORS 163.445 Sexual Misconduct in which the victim’s lack of consent was due solely to being less than a specified age, it is a defense if the actor was less than three years older than the victim and the victim was at least ___ years of age at the time of the offense.
(ORS 163.345 Age as a Defense in Certain Cases)
A. 15
A subject commits the crime of ___ when using a dangerous weapon to take an item from a store.
(ORS Crimes)
C. Robbery 1
Which of the following is not a seizure under Article 1 Section 9?
(Search and Seizure)
D. The officer stops a vehicle and makes a criminal inquiry of the passenger after telling them they are free to leave.
Which of the following does not constitute a search under Article I, Section 9?
(Search and Seizure)
C. An officer finds and searches an abandoned backpack.
Under Oregon Law it is necessary to advise a suspect that he or she has a right to refuse consent.
(Search and Seizure)
A. False
You do not need to advise someone of their right to refuse consent.
Any member who is arrested or charged with a crime must notify their supervisor or an on-duty supervisor within ____.
(330.00 Criminal Investigations of Bureau Employees)
B. 24 hours
Any member who receives a complaint of any criminal conduct by another member shall immediately notify _____.
(330.00 Criminal Investigations of Bureau Employees)
A. Any of the listed
If an investigation into a criminal complaint of a Bureau member is found without merit, the investigator shall submit a confidential memo, through channels, to _____.
(330.00 Criminal Investigations of Bureau Employees)
C. AC of Investigations
An investigator will obtain a confidential Police Bureau case number from _____ for an investigation into a criminal complaint of a Bureau member.
(330.00 Criminal Investigations of Bureau Employees)
A. Records Division Supervisor
The same investigator may work on both the criminal and administrative case only when involving the same Bureau member.
(330.00 Criminal Investigations of Bureau Employees)
C. False
Needs to be a clear separation of duties.
All felony assault custody cases require notification of the Detectives Supervisor.
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
B. False
Only Assault 1 and 2 custody cases
All statements are true regarding the member in charge at the scene of a crime and taken directly from 640.10, member responsibilities, except:
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
D. Only the primary officer will notify detectives directly.
Which of the following sex crimes requires notification of the Child Abuse Team?
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
B. Sex offenses involving children under the age of 12, excluding expose cases.
The member in charge of a crime scene has all the following responsibilities, except:
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
D. Directly notifying the appropriate Detective Division Supervisor
In the case of a hate crime, which Detective Division detail should be notified?
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
C. Homicide Detail
A sex crimes unit supervisor should be contacted for all reported sex crimes with suspect information.
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
A. False
Only Rape and Sodomy
All members entering a major crime scene will submit a report documenting the reason for being in the crime scene.
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
A. True
Which of the following does not require notification to the detective division?
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
C. Criminal Mistreatment
The Child Abuse Team (CAT) will be contacted for all sexual assault investigations involving victims under ___ years old and all victims under ___ years old involving family perpetrators.
(640.20 Sexual Assault Investigations)
C. 14, 18
A detectives supervisor or detective from the appropriate detail will be notified in the following cases except:
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
D. Felony DV cases with a custody
Robbery reports should be faxed to Robbery Detectives prior to going off duty.
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
B. True
Upon written approval of the precinct commander, members may use their personal cameras (35mm or digital), if a Criminalist is unavailable.
(640.10 Crime Scene Procedures)
A. False
35mm only
Under ORS 133.033, any sworn member may make an emergency entry of a premise, without the consent of the person in possession or entitled to possession thereof under certain circumstances. Which of the following is not one of those circumstances?
(631.60 Premises Entry)
C. To arrest a person with an active arrest warrant who is known to be inside
Prior to making an emergency entry to a premise, absent exigent circumstances, members will...
(631.60 Premises Entry)
C. Notify a supervisor of the circumstances justifying the need for an emergency entry.
Sworn members may use force to break into a premise to execute a search warrant if, after notice of his/her authority and purpose, he/she are refused admittance.
(631.60 Premises Entry)
B. True
Sworn members may use force to break into a premise to execute an arrest warrant only when all of the following conditions exist, except:
(631.60 Premises Entry)
B. The member has reasonable suspicion to believe the person sought by the warrant is currently within the premise and;
As soon as practicable after a juvenile is taken into custody a member shall notify the juvenile's parent, guardian or another person responsible for the juvenile. Which of the following methods of notification is not an acceptable method?
(850.30 Custody of Juveniles)
C. By third-party
Any arrested juvenile must be medically screened by an approved medical facility before admission at the Juvenile Detention Hall if they show visible signs of:
(850.30 Custody of Juveniles)
D. Everything listed
Members may fire warning shots.
(1010.00 Use of Force)
A. False
Members are prohibited from firing warning shots.
Members are authorized to discharge their firearm in which of the following situations...
(1010.00 Use of Force)
C. Everything listed
At a deadly force incident, the Homicide Sergeant shall make the following required notifications except:
(1010.10 Post Deadly Force Procedures)
C. Public Information Officer
Members may use deadly force to protect themselves or others from what they reasonably believe to be an immediate threat of death or serious physical injury.
(1010.00 Use of Force)
B. True
At a post deadly force incident, which of the following is not the Homicide detective responsibilities?
(1010.10 Post Deadly Force Procedures)
C. Notify the appropriate Assistant Chief
Which is not an exception for a member to discharge a firearm from a moving vehicle?
(1010.00 Use of Force)
C. When there is probable cause for a crime
Deadly force may be used to prevent a suicide or serious self-inflicted injury.
(1010.00 Use of Force)
C. False
Members may use deadly force to protect themselves or others from what they reasonably believe to be an immediate threat of death or serious physical injury; or,
If necessary to prevent escape, a member may use deadly force where the member has probable cause to believe that the subject has committed a felony crime involving the infliction or threatened infliction of serious physical harm, and the member reasonably believes the subject poses an immediate threat of death or serious physical injury to the member or others.
Detectives will respond and assume investigative responsibility for all negligent or unintentional discharges of firearms by bureau members:
(1010.00 Use of Force)
A. False
Except at Bureau authorized training events, where no death occurs.
The definition of Deadly Physical Force is a physical force that under the circumstances in which it is used is readily capable of causing death or serious physical injury.
(1010.00 Use of Force)
A. True
If an officer responds to a disturbance at a residence, they determine the disturbance is between a father and his 17 year old daughter, he is determined to be her guardian, it is determined that she received a physical injury as a result of his punches to her face, she continues to experience pan from being hit in the face 1 hour after the incident, and it is determined the hitting was not disciplinary in nature, what is the proper charge according to DIR 640.30?
(640.30 Childs Abuse Investigations)
E. Criminal Mistreatment I
A child may be taken into protective custody when they are left without supervision under the age of ___.
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
D. 10
Responding to a report of abuse of a child, the Child Abuse Team (CAT) will be contacted to respond if the child received a serious physical injury where the child is hospitalized, or in the case of "recent" sexual assault. For the purpose of this policy, what is the definition of "recent"?
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
A. Within 84 hours
If investigating an allegation of sexual abuse of a 16-year-old girl by a stranger, the following will be notified:
(640.20 Sexual Assault Investigations)
D. Sex Crimes Unit
During an investigation of a rape, if the victim does not require emergency medical treatment, and they are under the age of 15, which hospital will the be examined at?
(640.20 Sexual Assault Investigations)
A. Emanuel Hospital
When responding to an overdose, who is responsible for determining if suspicious circumstances exist and, if they do, they request notification of the Homicide Sergeant and/or the DVD Sergeant?
(631.10 Dead Body Procedure)
B. Medical Examiner
Which of the following is the definition of "Physical Injury" according to ORS 161.015(7):
(1010.00 Use of Force)
A. The impairment of physical condition or substantial pain
If an officer is investigating an incident in which a person is dying as a result of a crime, and attempting to make a dying declaration, which of the following are not recommended:
(640.60 Dying Declaration)
A. The declaration should be done only in the presence of law enforcement or medical personnel due to HIPPA privacy.
Polygraph exams may not be used for any of the following except:
(640.75 Polygraph Examinations)
B. In support of a warrant
"Force" is defined as:
(1010.00 Use of Force)
B. Physical coercion used to effect, influence or persuade and individual to comply with an officer, to include the intentional pointing of a firearm at an individual.
Suppression of evidence is warranted by a defendant if the police invaded someone else's rights.
(Search and Seizure)
A. False
suppression is warranted “only if police invaded the personal rights of the person who seeks suppression; the violation of someone else’s rights is not enough”
Which of the following court cases did the court clarify that "the privacy protected by Article I, Section 9, is not the privacy that one reasonably expects but the privacy to which one has a right"?
(Search and Seizure)
C. State v. Campbell
"Under the consent exception to the search warrant requirement, the state must prove by ____ that someone having the authority to do so voluntarily gave the police consent to search the defendant's person or property."
(Search and Seizure)
A. a preponderance of the evidence
SCU will be contacted when a suspect is in custody for all of the following crimes except?
(Search and Seizure)
C. Criminal Mistreatment 1
CAT will be contacted for this crime.
If a cotenant of a residence is present and objects to the entry, the other cotenant cannot override that objection and any entry cannot be justified as reasonable.
(Search and Seizure / Third Party Consent)
B. True
Nevertheless, an officer, having received consent, is required to first contact other cotenants who might object but otherwise are absent, asleep, or unavailable.
(Search and Seizure / Third Party Consent)
A. False
is not required
Article I, section 9, is more restrictive than the Fourth Amendment. It requires that the person who provides the consent to have actual rather than apparent authority.
(Search and Seizure)
B. True
The use of force After Action report shall be completed through the RU within ___ of the event.
(1010.00 Use of Force)
C. 21 days
For Category II - IV force incidents, supervisors shall complete an After Action report within ___ of the use of force.
(1010.00 Use of Force)
D. 72 hours
Which of the following is not a Category IV use of force?
(1010.00 Use of Force)
D. PIT maneuver as a vehicle intervention strategy
Which of the following is not a Category III use of force?
(1010.00 Use of Force)
B. Force resulting in a loss of consciousness
Which of the following is not a Category II use of force?
(1010.00 Use of Force)
D. CEW deployment of two (2) applications
Which of the following is a Category I use of force?
d. Firearm discharges to stop an aggressive animal
(1010.00 Use of Force)
A. Member strikes the head of a subject against a hard object
Members shall avoid the use of more than ____ CEW applications against the same individual, unless exigent circumstances warrant use.
(1010.00 Use of Force)
D. 3
If a death, or a crime leading to a death, occurs on land, but the body is found in a waterway, _____ will be responsible for the investigation.
(631.10 Dead Body Procedures)
B. Portland Police Bureau
An examination for recent sexual assault may have the likelihood of the following medical evidence except?
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
D. 1 week old embryo
TRU may not take reports of child sexual abuse under which of the following conditions:
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
A. The child is currently safe and away from the perpetrator and the incident is being reported within 84 hours of occurrence.
Who has the responsibility to search a dead body at a crime scene?
(631.10 Dead Body Procedures)
B. Medical Examiner
Who contacts the ME after an officer involved shooting?
(1010.00 Use of Force)
B. Homicide Sergeant
16 year old grabs dad's revolver to play Russian Roulette with a group of friends. One friend pulls the trigger and loses an ear but lives. What is the proper charge for the 16-year-old who brought the gun?
A. Assault 2
The subject goes into 7-11, displays a handgun and demands money. The subject then made the clerk get on the ground and then shot them in the back of the head. What is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
D. Aggravated Murder
A person driving down the street brake checks his un-seatbelted front passenger. The passenger flies into the windshield and dies. What is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
C. Manslaughter 2
A group of drunk friends leaves a bar at 2 am and come across a closed Bikini Brew Coffee Hut and light it on fire in protest of woman oppression. Unbeknown to them a transient broke in an fell asleep. He died as a result of the fire. What is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
D. Arson 2
A father is mowing the lawn while his kid is playing on the sidewalk. A teenager texting while driving comes down the street and hits the child, killing them. The father after seeing the death of their child beats up the driver, who ends up dying from the assault. What is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
D. Manslaughter 1
A person driving intoxicated hits a highway worker and causes serious physical injury. The drive has only one (1) previous conviction for criminally negligent homicide while DUI. What is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
A. Assault 1
A father and son are on an ATV meant for one (1) person riding in the woods. Father takes a sharp turn and son flies off and gets impaled, losing a kidney but survives. What is the appropriate charge for the father?
(ORS Crimes)
B. Assault 3
An 18-year-old has consensual sex with his 15-year-old half sister. What if any is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
D. Rape 1
Dad has anal sex with his 13-year-old step daughter and fondles her breast. What are the appropriate charges?
(ORS Crimes)
D. Sodomy 1 and Sex Abuse 1
Which of the following is not a component of Using a Child in Display of Sexually Explicit Conduct (ORS 163.670)?
(ORS Crimes)
A. Entices
Which of the following are components of Compelling Prostitution (ORS 167.017)? Select all that apply.
(ORS Crimes)
D. All of them are components.
A male while docking another male incapacitated, has his penis piercing penetrate the penis of the victim. What is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
D. Unlawful Sexual Penetration 1
Which of the following adult felony arrests will be processed by the arresting member, unless a unique aspect requires a detective?
(870.50 Felony Processing of Adults)
A. All Class C felony arrests
Detectives do not need to be contacted prior to booking any Measure 11 suspect who has requested an attorney and refuses an interview.
(ORS 870.50 Felony Processing of Adults)
A. False
Detectives must be contacted prior to booking any Measure 11 suspect, regardless of the circumstances.
Any magistrate authorized to issue a warrant of arrest may issue a search warrant for all of the following except:
e. None of the listed
(652.00 Search Warrants)
C. A person for whose arrest there is reasonable cause
Requires probable cause
The probable cause for a search warrant is based upon the following except:
(652.00 Search Warrants)
B. an unnamed friend of an informant
A deputy district attorney (DDA), from the appropriate county, will review every search warrant affidavit_____.
(652.00 Search Warrants)
C. all of those listed
All search warrant executions involving a potential threat to members or citizens require a Planned Operations Risk Assessment. Examples of a threat might include all of the following except:
(652.00 Search Warrants)
B. none of the listed
Generally, the execution of a search warrant is restricted to between _____ and _____ hours unless it is otherwise endorsed on the warrant by the issuing magistrate.
(652.00 Search Warrants)
E. 0700 2200
When applying for a telephonic search warrant you need all of the following except what for the preface phrase of the recording?
(652.00 Search Warrants)
B. Employer, assignment, length of service
This part goes in the affiant identification phrase.
In the event the person accused or suspected of inflicting the injury is in custody, they will be brought before the dying person for the purpose of identification.
(640.60 Dying Declaration)
C. True
Polygraph exams may not be used on the following subjects except:
(640.75 Polygraph Examination)
C. Doesn't speak English
A Polygrapher's responsibilities include all of the following except:
(640.75 Polygraph Examination)
D. The polygrapher will ensure that a thorough investigation of the crime has been done.
The results of a polygraph exam are admissible in court when the exam is administered in all of the following except:
(640.75 Polygraph Examination)
B. Employment purposes
A single fracture of any bone in a child under the age of _____ is considered a suspicious physical injury.
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
B. 3
A child will be taken into protective custody by a member under all of the following conditions except:
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
D. A child under ten years of age is left without supervision
A child _____ years of age or younger will be transported to Emanuel Hospital.
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
A. 14
Members who observe a child who has suffered suspicious physical injury must ensure that a designated medical professional conducts a medical assessment within _____ hours.
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
B. 48
All of the following can know the location of a shelter home where a juvenile is taken except:
(640.30 Child Abuse Investigations)
B. Parent
A SCU/CAT detective will be contacted when a suspect is in custody for only one of the below felonies in the 2nd Degree, which one?
(640.20 Sexual Assault Investigations)
A. Unlawful Sexual Penetration
Sexual assault victims _____ years and older will be examined at OHSU.
(640.20 Sexual Assault Investigations)
D. 15
Jane Doe victims can use their SAFE kit number to report the crime within _____.
(640.20 Sexual Assault Investigations)
B. 6 months
Rape kits, undergarments, and other clothing or evidence may be listed on the same property receipt.
(640.20 Sexual Assault Investigations)
A. False
Rape kits and victim's undergarments on one property receipt and any other clothing or evidence must be listed on a separate receipt.
During a sexual assault investigation a detective's responsibilities include all of the following except:
(640.20 Sexual Assault Investigations)
A. Photograph the victim and the scene.
A gang member located and killed a rival gang member's 12-year-old child. What is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
A. Aggravated Murder
A husband finds out his wife is pregnant with another man's baby and he pushes her down a flight of stairs where she snaps her neck and becomes paralyzed. What is the appropriate charge?
(ORS Crimes)
B. Assault 1
A probing search of the vagina or anus of a detainee may only be conducted under the authority of a search warrant at the following place:
(650.00 Search, Seizure and Inventories)
C. Medical Facility
Searches generally require a search warrant, the following are exceptions to the search warrant requirement except:
(650.00 Search, Seizure and Inventories)
B. Reasonable Suspicion
In general, probable cause to search means a substantial objective basis to believe that more likely than not:
(650.00 Search, Seizure and Inventories)
D. Both A and C
You arrest a suspect on a warrant and book him into jail. His backpack is too large to go into his property and therefore must be placed in the precinct property room. Upon searching the backpack you find two baggies of suspected methamphetamine. Can you charge the suspect with the found evidence?
(650.00 Search, Seizure and Inventories)
D. Yes, it is considered an inadvertent discovery
The following applies to Juveniles 12 years of age and over when placed into a secured holding cell:
(850.30 Temporary Detention and Custody of Juveniles)
D. Both A and B
For Measure 11 Juvenile custodies, who is responsible for coordinating the completion of reports and the fingerprinting and photographing with FED?
(850.30 Temporary Detention and Custody of Juveniles)
B. Detectives
A juvenile who has been permanently remanded to the adult court will be transported to an adult facility upon arrest instead of JDH.
(850.30 Temporary Detention and Custody of Juveniles)
C. False
Even though a juvenile has been on adult probation and remanded by an adult court, juveniles are not to be transported to adult facilities.
Whose responsible for the criminal investigation of all deaths following members use of deadly force?
(1010.10 Deadly Force and In-Custody Death Reporting and Investigation Procedures)
A. District Attorney
PSD is only allowed to share administrative findings with the Detective Division when:
(1010.10 Deadly Force and In-Custody Death Reporting and Investigation Procedures)
D. Upon the conclusion of all criminal proceedings and the approval of the PSD Captain
Whose responsibility is it to direct FED to collect all identified evidence at an Officer Involved Shooting?
(1010.10 Deadly Force and In-Custody Death Reporting and Investigation Procedures)
B. Homicide Detective
After a Garrity warning, the homicide detective can compel a statement from any involved member after an Officer Involved Shooting.
(1010.10 Deadly Force and In-Custody Death Reporting and Investigation Procedures)
B. False
Only PSD can compel a statement after a Garrity warning.
After an Officer Involved Shooting the Homicide Detective will conduct a complete and thorough investigation, they will also:
(1010.10 Deadly Force and In-Custody Death Reporting and Investigation Procedures)
A. Everything listed
The following information will be released after an Officer Involved Shooting, except:
(1010.10 Deadly Force and In-Custody Death Reporting and Investigation Procedures)
D. Most recent mugshot photo of the suspect
Whose responsibility is it to issue CRO's after an Officer Involved Shooting?
(1010.10 Deadly Force and In-Custody Death Reporting and Investigation Procedures)
D. Homicide Sergeant
Who is ultimately responsible for approving information to be released after an Officer Involved Shooting?
d. PIO
(1010.10 Deadly Force and In-Custody Death Reporting and Investigation Procedures)
B. Chief of Police
A juvenile cannot be held in police detention for more than _____ hours.
(850.30 Temporary Detention and Custody of Juveniles)
A. 5
Defendant hits a Tri-met driver after the driver exits the bus, causing a physical injury. What is the appropriate charge?
D. Assault 4
The driver was not in control of the bus.
Defendant throws feces at a guard working in the Multnomah County Detention Center. What is the appropriate charge?
C. Assault 3
Joe and Phil hit Steven causing physical injury to Steven. What is the appropriate charge?
B. Assault 3
Emily's infant son has a broken femur but Emily does not have the money to take her son to the hospital. She waits 5 days before she eventually takes her son to the hospital. Has Emily committed a crime? If so, what crime?
B. Yes
Criminal Mistreatment I
Billy Bob helped Cinnamon, a 17-year-old girl, commit prostitution by connecting her to a paying customer. Billy Bob reasonably believed Cinnamon to be 21 years old. Can Billy Bob be charged with Compelling Prostitution?
B. yes
It is no defense that the defendant reasonably believed the person to be older than 18 years of age.
An 11-year-old girl willingly engages in sexual intercourse with an 18-year-old male. What is the appropriate charge, if any?
A. Rape 1
15 and 1/2-year-old Kala agrees to have sexual intercourse with 18-year-old Jim. What is the appropriate charge, if any?
B. No Crime
Age as a defense, less than 3-year difference.
Harry slips drugs in Jill's wine. Jill falls fast asleep. Harry then anally penetrates Jill with his penis. What is the appropriate charge?
C. Sodomy 1
Steve touches the undeveloped breasts of 12-year-old Mary. What is the appropriate charge, if any?
B. Sexual Abuse 1
The undeveloped breasts of a child are "intimate" parts of the body for the purposes of this statute.
Andre hits Bjorn on the head two times with a graphite tennis racquet. Bjorn is treated for a slight concussion and required 7 stitches on the top of his head. What is the appropriate charge?
C. Assault 2
Joe picks up Cindy, a working prostitute, and tells her that he wishes to pay for sexual intercourse. Joe drives Cindy 8 miles into a wooded area where he forces her to orally pleasure him. He then pulls a gun, takes her money, and leaves her in the woods, without causing injury. What is the appropriate charge(s)?
A. All of the listed crimes
19-year-old Matthew has sexual intercourse with 13-year-old Heather. Heather wishes to continue to see Matthew. What crime, if any, did Matthew commit?
D. Rape 2
18-year-old Trevor baby-sits for his twin 10-year-old sisters. Trevor typically sells methamphetamine on the street unless he is forced to stay at home to take care of his sisters. On the date in question, while babysitting, Trevor makes methamphetamine in the kitchen to sell on the street. Can Trevor be charged with Criminal Mistreatment I?
C. Yes
Which of the following circumstances is considered an in-custody death?
D. all of the listed circumstances
According to Directive 1010.10, of those listed below who is not considered an involved member?
A. A member who observed the events surrounding an in-custody death
May a witness member to an officer-involved deadly force encounter decline a detective interview?
B. No
Witness members shall provide a full and candid account.
A police officer executing a search warrant shall give appropriate notice of all of the following except what when executing a search warrant?
C. Demand
According to ORS 146.107, Authority to Enter & Secure Certain Premises, no person shall enter upon the enclosure or area without the permission of all of the following except?
C. Homicide Sergeant
A subject in which of the following category can have their polygraph exam rescheduled at a later date?
C. Is emotionally involved in a traumatic incident
According to the ORS, an elderly person is ____ years and older.
A. 65
Author
Lprchn81
ID
344931
Card Set
2019 Detective Practice Exam
Description
Practice Questions Covering Directives, ORS, and Search and Seizure