LM MQF 2015

  1. To override the #2 or #3 hydraulic aux pumps for an auto shutdown due to low quantity or overheat,______________.
    Press and hold appropriate Aux pump switch for 5 seconds.
  2. When the APU alert start feature is used, there will be no_____________until the battery bus is powered.
    fire detection or protection
  3. The Battery Direct Bus, the Battery Bus, the AC and DC Emergency Buses, and the AC and DC Transfer Buses comprise the______________.
    emergency power system
  4. To preclude damage to the landing gear, accomplish no more than______consecutive landings without a cooling period. A cooling period consists of, flying with the gear retracted for at least 20 minutes or with the gear extended for at least 10 minutes before the next landing.
  5. The Maximum Payload for the C-17 is___________________.
    Zero Fuel Weight minus Operating Weight.
  6. A WAP message, CREW OXY LOW will be displayed when quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below_______+/- 5 psi.
  7. Following an intentional cabin depressurization above 10,000 feet, the cabin must be repressurized to less than__________feet to reset the regulators. If the regulators are not reset, subsequent flight above 9,000 feet cabin altitude may deploy the passenger oxygen masks.
  8. Below_________feet cabin altitude, each emergency oxygen regulator SURGE MODE lever/three position toggle switch must be positioned to MAN ON/MANUAL ON to provide passenger oxygen.
  9. The passenger oxygen masks can be manually deployed at any altitude with the -1 emergency oxygen regulator by positioning the SURGE MODE lever to the MAN ON position and rotating the spring loaded surge knob___________and holding momentarily (approximately______seconds) to open the passenger oxygen containers and start the flow of oxygen.
    clockwise; 6
  10. If either the pilot’s or loadmaster’s FED ARM switch is in ARM, all four FEDS hatches can be deployed from either the_______________initiator handles.
    maintenance/ditching hatch or the forward loadmaster station
  11. Portable hand fire extinguishers are provided in the following areas;_____in the Cockpit,_____in the Crew rest area, and_____in the Cargo compartment.
    2; 1; 6
  12. The EEBD is a_____-minute self-contained, disposable breathing unit. There are______installed on the aircraft.
    15; 6
  13. When an aircraft engine is at idle thrust, the engine intake danger area is_____.
    9 feet
  14. During the Interior Safety Inspection - Power Off, failure to fully install safety switch pins or place CMDS WOW MAINT ORIDE switch to NORM could result in____________.
    an unintended jettison of payloads
  15. If the aircraft is powered by batteries alone and the pilot’s CNC indicates OFF, radio communication is possible using the radio with the VHF/UHF Backup Control panel.
    COM 1
  16. The loadmaster advises the medical crew director that seat belts are required__________.
    immediately prior to takeoff
  17. The purge valve on the flight crew quick don mask should be in the_____position except during preflight and when oxygen is in use where smoke or fumes are not present and goggles are not required.
  18. During in-flight operation of the troop doors, deploy the air deflector between_______and______degrees before opening the first door.
    10; 15
  19. When on/offloading vehicles, do not deflate vehicle pneumatic tires__________.
    below the tires rated inflation pressure
  20. Equipment mounted on a single axle disconnected from its prime mover and loaded with its tongue resting on the aircraft floor or ramp,________________.
    must be drained, but not purged
  21. When the vehicle is parked on the cargo floor and parking brakes are inoperative,_____________.
    install a minimum of two chains and two tiedown devices, one forward and one aft
  22. When loading pallets with a bare tine forklift, one set of inner roller channels may be removed from the ramp toes if the pallet weight does not exceed__________pounds.
  23. Except where prohibited by specific procedures, open circuit breakers_____________in the event that the electrical condition was transient in nature.
    may be reset once
  24. If both left and right side FEDS Shielded Mild Detonating Cord (SMDC) lines are inoperative (AA-EM w/o TCTO 1549), limit persons on board to a maximum of______when mission segments involve overwater flight.
  25. The signal for prepare for ditching or crash landing is
    6 short rings of the alarm bell
  26. All odors not identifiable by the flight crew shall be considered toxic. Immediately______________________.
    use 100% oxygen, ventilate the aircraft, and land as soon as practical.
  27. Following a ditching emergency, as a minimum, the loadmaster will provide__________________.
    a flashlight and first aid kit
  28. If a fire is being fed by oxygen from an oxygen system, consider turning off the___________until the fire is suppressed.
    manual shutoff valves
  29. Selective freefall of any landing gear can be accomplished by activating the release handles only for those gear that are not extended. When lowering both main gear on one side, lower_______________.
    the forward gear first
  30. During the Loadmaster Ground Emergency Procedure, you need to notify the fire department by any available means. State the_______________.
    Nature of the emergency, tail number, parking spot number, number of personnel on board
  31. The maximum vertical height of a load to be jettisoned is______inches measured from the______of the pallet/platform.
    118; top
  32. During cargo jettison, ensure all selected lock annunciators are___________before stating "LOCKS RELEASED".
  33. During a ditching, do not activate the____________prior to the aircraft coming to a rest.
    FEDS hatches
  34. [COSA] The________and__________ICS panels/Headset Receptacle Panels are not operative when on emergency or battery power.
    ACM/Crew Rest
  35. The maximum cargo weight that can be loaded left or right of aircraft center line is__________pounds, provided all aircraft limitations are complied with.
  36. Without [STRUT IMP]; in the event the stabilizer strut system fails to operate properly, do not recycle the STAB STRUTS switch. Immediately________________.
    remove hydraulic power and notify maintenance
  37. Without [STRUT IMP]; when retracting and stowing the stabilizer struts, prior to pulling the DOOR solenoid valve handle and rotating it clockwise to the CLOSED position, ensure both struts are fully retracted in the vertical position.
  38. Do not use___________cargo compartment lighting in flight. PA system speakers/volume will be deactivated during any condition that activates the cargo compartment lights because of sidewall oxygen system deployment. The speakers/volume must be manually reactivated to make PA announcements.
  39. A handle assembly is installed at the forward loadmaster’s station to manually override the_______________.
    Skin heat exchanger check valve
  40. With ambient temperatures are at or below -9 °C (15 °F), the AUX pumps may not initially generate full pressure. If system pressure does not rise to at least 3500 psi within 30 seconds of selecting the pump to AUTO, select the pump to off, wait 30 seconds and proceed as follows.1. Select the AUX pump to AUTO for 30 seconds, then off for 30 seconds.2. Repeat_______________or until system pressure indicates at least 3500 psi.
    for a maximum of 10 cycles
  41. If a centerline seat assembly cannot be secured with______serviceable floor attachment fittings, that seat module shall not be installed.
  42. Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than_________pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartments D, F and G.
  43. Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than_________pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartment E.
  44. The maximum vehicle weight of a tracked vehicle with articulated suspension loaded in E compartment is__________.
  45. Tracked vehicles with articulated suspension and with wheel weights exceeding_________lbs (average) must be loaded within 8 inches of aircraft centerline.
  46. Tunner loader furnished bridge plates shall not be used when loading/offloading rolling stock from a K- loader with the ramp toes installed.
  47. Hazardous cargo considered jettisonable__________be positioned forward of non-jettisonable cargo, except when its size, weight, and location will permit jettison by hand.
    shall not
  48. __________highlight essential operating procedure, practice, condition or statement, etc which if not strictly observed could result in damage to, or destruction of equipment or loss of mission effectiveness.
  49. Do not connect exhausts from low temperature materials to the________side vents or exhausts from operating engines to the________side vents. Connection of a low temperature exhaust to a vent contaminated with oil or grease may cause an explosion.
  50. When cargo projects aft of the end of the logistics rails (FS_____), ensure the ramp toes do not contact the cargo while being raised to the vertical position.
  51. When pedestal shoring is used under the Ramp Ground Support Pad for special loads, the shoring shall be a minimum of_____inches long and_____inches wide
  52. The aft end of the ramp toes shall not be supported when in the________position.
  53. When winching a vehicle with pneumatic tires up the cargo ramp at a 15 degree angle, a single line winching configuration has a limit of_________pounds.
  54. When winching and the direction of pull is changed, the sheave______________.
    must be manually realigned to the new direction
  55. In flight, the ramp toes will be___________.
    stowed or installed and raised to the up (vertical overcenter) position
  56. Palletized seat assemblies may be loaded in the logistic rails when transported as cargo. Passengers will not occupy palletized seats in the logistic rails.
  57. On aeromedical evacuation missions with litter or ambulatory patients, the ramp is restricted________________.
    to two pallets in the ADS rails or centerline floor loaded items
  58. Pallets or pallet trains up to_________lbs per pallet may be loaded into the logistics rail system provided at least two locks, one left and one right are engaged in each pallet.
  59. The ramp loadable height capability varies between______at the ramp hinge to______inches at the end of the ramp.
    156, 116
  60. Spotters are required to observe clearances and to prevent contact with the wing box structure when loading cargo higher than______inches forward of FS______.
    148; 937
  61. When loading ISU containers that are 90 inches or higher into the logistic rails on the aircraft ramp,_______________.
    ramp toes with rollers and guide rails shall be installed
  62. The primary method of loading pallets into the ADS and logistic rail system is using the ramp toes.
  63. Due to limited maneuvering space, pallet rotation shall be closely supervised. Failure to comply could result in personnel injury or damage to the___________.
  64. Required restraint for cargo on the pallet/pallet train shall be provided using nets, tiedown straps, or chains. When supplemental restraint is required, additional tiedowns may be attached to the pallet or cargo floor.
  65. Straps and chains shall not be mixed to restrain cargo in the same direction. However, 10,000 and 25,000 pound rated devices with the appropriate chains may be used for a given direction of restraint.
  66. Netted two pallet trains that exceed_________shall be restrained to the cargo floor.
    20,710 pounds
  67. Pallets or pallet trains up to 7,800 pounds per pallet may be loaded into the ADS rail/lock system when
    at least two ADS locks (one left and one right) are engaged in each pallet.
  68. Ensure cargo is restrained in_________prior to raising and closing the ramp when cargo is positioned on the ramp for flight. Failure to comply could result in damage to the aircraft and cargo.
    both directions
  69. When properly installed on a single pallet, the nets provide all necessary restraint for cargo loads up to_________pounds when the height of stacked cargo does not exceed 96 inches.
  70. The maximum wheel load on each ramp toe in the low position is pounds____________.
  71. The maximum pallet/platform weight on two ramp toes is__________pounds except for 18-foot type VI platforms which may be increased to 14,500 pounds.
  72. The maximum single axle load on the toes in the low position is__________pounds.
  73. Replace the cargo winch cable if_____or more broken wires per strand inch or_____or more broken wires per cable inch are found.
    4; 7
  74. Vehicles with transmissions that are not equipped with a neutral position shall be loaded/offloaded using the cargo winch.
  75. Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked to 96 inches shall not exceed__________pounds.
  76. Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked above 96 inches (not to exceed 100 inches) shall not exceed__________pounds.
  77. All vehicle winching must be closely monitored by a crew of at least______personnel.
  78. When low profile cargo does not permit the use of side nets, the top net may be used by itself provided the cargo weight does not exceed________pounds and cargo height does not exceed_____inches from the pallet surface.
    2,500; 45
  79. While offloading rolling stock with the cargo winch, if continuous tension cannot be maintained while transiting the ramp hinge; ensure ramp remains_____________when cargo is on the ramp or traversing the ramp hinge.
    below coplanar
  80. When plywood barriers and chain bridles are installed for forward restraint on palletized cargo, pallets that exceed______inches in height will have a minimum of______bridle(s) installed and the minimum thickness for the barrier will be______inches.
    30; 2; 3/4
  81. If________stowage pins are not engaged on_____________side of each toe stowed on the cargo door, that toe may come loose during flight.
    lower; both left and right
  82. When loading pallets that exceed a height of 100 inches, monitor overhead clearances between the top of pallets and aircraft structure. When positioning MHE in preparation for loading 463L pallets into the logistic rail system, contact with the aircraft_________shall be considered.
  83. A chain bridle provides restraint in____________direction(s.)
    more than one
  84. The maximum number of empty 463L pallets that may be stacked for airlift, excluding the base support pallet is_____.
  85. During palletized cargo loading (non –winching), the minimum distance between the aircraft ramp/toes and K- loader is______inches.
  86. Tiedown devices connected to cargo that spans from the main cargo floor to the ramp shall be__________prior to opening the ramp.
  87. The minimum thickness of rolling shoring shall be_________inch(es).
  88. With the ramp toes in the high position, the required overlap between the ramp toe contact pads and the floor of the loader is_____inches.
  89. In the high position the ramp toes should be at an angle which causes the aft end of the toe to be above coplanar position with the ramp floor.
  90. When using a tiedown strap to secure a ramp toe on the cargo door, route the strap around the stowage rack and secure the strap to the rack.
  91. Each tiedown ring can accommodate a maximum of_____CGU-1/B tiedown straps for any directional pull calculations
  92. When attaching multiple chains/devices to one tiedown ring, the ring_____________.
    cannot be used for both forward and aft restraint
  93. Crewmembers occupying a crew station will have an oxygen mask connected and readily available for use from______________.
    before engine start until engine shutdown.
  94. Crewmembers may travel as MEP for a maximum of______hours.
  95. When children under the age of______are accepted as passengers, their sponsor has the option to either hold the child or place him/her in a DOT approved ICS.
  96. Use of non-mission related material is prohibited by any crewmember during any critical phase of flight. All non-mission related material will be stowed prior to__________.
    Descent Checklist
  97. MEP crewmembers will not retain custody of ammunition on an aircraft.
  98. An entry will be placed in AFTO 781A when the aircraft is________________________.
    • both A and C 
    • [operated on a Semi-Prepared Runway] and [flown over water, under 1,000 feet above sea level for longer than 30 minutes]
  99. When wearing the ACDE, Atropine and 2 PAM Chloride auto injectors will be kept in the________ACDE pocket. If the integrated survival vest/body armor is worn, the Atropine and 2 PAM Chloride auto injectors may be kept in the_________flight suit pocket.
    upper left, lower right
  100. The aircraft loadmaster may deviate from load plans to facilitate ease of onload or offload of cargo, accommodate additional passengers, and to alleviate unnecessary aircraft reconfiguration without submitting documentation.
  101. Personnel will only be permitted to carry their basic combat load or individual issue of hazardous material when_______________.
    When they will engage an enemy force immediately upon arrival
  102. The maximum altitude for emergency airlift of personnel will not exceed flight level_____.
  103. Maximum altitude for floor loaded patients is flight level_____.
  104. When_____or more passengers/troops are planned, a pallet position shall be left open to accommodate palletized/floor loaded baggage.
  105. The following smoke detectors are required for home station/main operating base departures: One AV, all 4 IRU,______________plus two others in the cargo compartment.
    CAR 9, 10, 13, 14
  106. All passenger hand-carried items must be of a size to fit under the seat and must not obstruct the safety aisle. Any item that does not fit under a seat or obstructs an aisle way will be__________________.
    stowed with checked baggage and secured for flight
  107. If no maintenance personnel are available and crew duties limit the availability of a crewmember, the engines may be started without someone outside the aircraft. If this option is used, ensure all crewmembers are thoroughly briefed.
  108. The maximum FDP for a basic aircrew is_____hours, (_____hours when the autopilot is inoperative).
  109. The maximum crew duty time for a basic aircrew is________.
    18 hours
  110. Maximum CDT for an augmented aircrew is______hours.
  111. For all missions, the latest allowable alert time is________hours after the expected alert time.
  112. Do not taxi an aircraft within________of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least__________.
    25 feet; 10 feet
  113. During reverse taxi operations, obstacles greater than________tall require_________of clearance from the aft end of the ramp in coplanar.
    8 feet; 88 feet
  114. If taxiing on very narrow taxiways, a good technique according to AFTTP 3-3.C-17 is to________________.
    place a loadmaster in each troop door to call out distances
  115. The AFTTP 3-3.C-17 “paint a picture” technique for loadmasters involves_______________the backing operation.
    giving descriptive information needed to increase pilot situational awareness during
  116. The critical side is situation dependent and may vary based on___________________.
    Proximity of wheels to runway/taxiway edge, obstacles, or FOD potential
  117. When backing, the effective aircraft gross weight can increase up to an additional__________pounds and possibly exceed maximum allowable ramp weights.
Card Set
LM MQF 2015
LM MQF 2015 (old)