C-40 MQF (28 Oct 20)

1. Abort the engine start for which of the following:

A. EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit
B. No oil pressure indication by the time the engine is stable at idle
C. N1 or N2 does not increase or increases very slowly after the EGT increases
D. all of the above

2. What is the indication of a Takeoff/Landing Configuration Warning?

A. ground intermittent horn; flight intermittent horn
B. ground steady horn; flight steady horn
C. ground intermittent horn; flight steady horn
D. ground steady horn; flight intermittent horn

3. Maximum speed for extending and retracting the landing gear normally is _____ and _____ respectively.

A. 300 kts/.82 M; 220 kts
B. 270 kts/.82 M; 235 kts
C. 250 kts; 220 kts
D. 350 kts/.825 M; 235 kts

4. If a passenger evacuation is required on the ground, to open the outflow valve:

A. place cabin altitude mode selector to AUTO 2 and cabin altitude manual control to CLIMB
B. place cabin altitude mode selector to MAN and cabin altitude manual control to CLIMB
C. place the pressurization mode selector to MAN and hold the outflow valve switch to OPEN
D. pull emergency depressurization T-handle

5. The first step of the evacuation checklist is:

A. Passenger Evacuation - Initiate
B. Outflow Valve - Close
C. Start Levers (Both) - Cutoff
D. Parking Brake Set

6. Static discharge around the windshield, bright glow in the engine inlets, smoke or dust on the flight deck, or acrid odor indicates:

A. air conditioning smoke
B. thunderstorm penetration
C. severe turbulence
D. volcanic ash penetration

7. If the autopilot disengages:

A. fly the airplane manually
B. re-engage an autopilot
C. disengage the autothrottle
D. a or b

8. During the Aborted Engine Start checklist, motor the engine for:

A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 90 seconds

9. If you get an APU fire indication:

A. pull, rotate, and hold the APU fire switch
B. immediately advise the passengers to evacuate
C. immediately close the thrust lever and pull the engine fire switch
D. press the cockpit APU fire warning switch

10. When rotating the engine fire warning switch, rotate to the stop and hold for _____ to insure bottle discharge.

A. 25 sec
B. 1 minute
C. 10 sec
D. 1 sec

11. If, 30 seconds after initially rotating the engine fire switch, the engine fire switch or ENG OVERHEAT light remains illuminated:

A. immediately increase speed to Vmo/Mmo
B. turn off the associated air conditioning pack valve
C. prepare for immediate landing
D. rotate engine fire switch to remaining bottle

12. Disengage the autothrottle and retard the thrust lever if you have which of the following indications:

A. abnormal engine noises are heard
B. there is no response to thrust lever movement
C. engine indications are abnormal, or engine indications are rapidly approaching or
exceeding limits
D. all of the above

13. If an engine tailpipe fire is reported, with no engine fire warning:

A. position the affected engine fuel control switch to CUTOFF
B. position the affected engine start lever to CUTOFF
C. commence with passenger evacuation
D. all of the above

14. At the first indication of a stall buffet or stick shaker:

A. hold the control column firmly
B. level the wings and retract any flaps
C. advance thrust levers to maximum thrust
D. raise the landing gear

15. If terrain remains a threat after initially rotating the aircraft in response to a GPWS warning:

A. immediately turn the aircraft away from perceived terrain threat
B. raise flaps and gear, if extended, to enhance climb capability
C. continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator (if available) or stick shaker or initial buffet
D. engage the autopilot and autothrottles

16. Which of the following configuration changes is allowed when performing the terrain avoidance maneuver?

A. retracting the landing gear
B. retracting the flaps
C. extending the flaps
D. retracting the speedbrakes

17. If a resolution advisory (RA) occurs, use the autopilot to maneuver the aircraft away from the oncoming traffic.

True
False

18. Takeoff should be rejected for a Predictive Windshear Warning during takeoff roll prior to 80 knots and above 80 knots and prior to V1. During takeoff, a Predictive Windshear Warning is indicated aurally by:

A. “Windshear Ahead, Windshear Ahead”
B. “Monitor Radar Display”
C. “Windshear, Windshear, Windshear”
D. “Go-around, Windshear Ahead”

19. During a manual wind shear recovery, rotate to an initial pitch attitude of:

A. 22 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. stick shaker
D. 10 degrees

20. An airplane pitch attitude and thrust setting not consistent with the existing speed and altitude, SPD failure flag, or IAS DISAGREE alert are all conditions indicating:

A. airspeed unreliable
B. engine limit/surge/stall
C. loss of thrust on both engines
D. reverser unlocked (in flight)

21. In flight, if the intermittent cabin altitude/configuration warning horn sounds:

A. Accomplish recall -- Oxygen masks and regulators-On, 100% Crew
communications-establish
B. Assure proper airplane landing configuration
C. Accomplish the CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or Rapid Depressurization non-normal
checklist
D. A and C

22. An increase in fuel imbalance of approximately _____ lbs or more in _____ minutes should be considered an engine fuel leak.

A. 250/60
B. 500/30
C. 250/30
D. 500/60

23. Which is not true concerning engine anti-ice?

A. Icing conditions exist when TAT is 10°C (50°F) or below and visible moisture is present.
B. Icing conditions exist when TAT is 10°C (50°F) or below and standing water, ice or snow is present on the ramps, taxiways, or runways.
C. You may operate engine or wing anti-ice when the total air temperature (TAT) is above 10°C (50°F).
D. When SAT is below -40°C during climb and cruise, engine TAI need not be on.

24. If an emergency descent is required, the first step is to:

A. initiate the descent
B. close the thrust levers
C. announce the emergency descent
D. turn the engine start switches on

25. Based on conditions and time available, when an emergency landing is required, review the Emergency Landing checklist.

True
False

26. If a loss of thrust on both engines is confirmed, immediately:

A. confirm engine start lever in idle detent
B. confirm fuel pump switches on
C. place engine start levers to cutoff
D. place engine start switches to FLT

27. After a rapid depressurization, only engine bleed air is available for auxiliary fuel transfer.

A. This results in approximately a 50% reduction in the transfer rate
B. Fuel in forward aux tanks will not transfer
C. When FWD and/or AFT Aux Fuel Transfer switches are in Auto, the FWD and/or AFT Bleed Air switches shall be placed in the OVRD position
D. A and C

28. If a tailstrike is encountered on takeoff, do not pressurize the airplane due to possible structural damage.

True
False

29. Identify the correct configuration during degraded communication operations:

A. Captain VHF 1; First Officer VHF 2; Observer VHF 3
B. Captain VHF 1; First Officer VHF 2; Observer VHF 2
C. Captain VHF 2; First Officer VHF 1; Observer VHF 3
D. Captain VHF 1; First Officer VHF 2; Observer VHF 1

30. Fully charged batteries provide a minimum of _____ minutes of standby power.

A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 120

31. Abort an engine start if no increase in EGT, within _____ seconds on the ground or _____ seconds in flight, after the engine start lever is raised to idle.

A. 15, 30
B. 5, 30
C. 10, 60
D. 5, 60

32. The APU will shutdown automatically for a low oil pressure condition.

True
False

33. When the VIB levels are in excess of _____ units, whether accompanied by airframe vibrations or not, accomplish the High Engine Vibration checklist.

A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0

34. The first step in the ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist is:

A. Thrust lever…Close
B. Engine start lever…CUTOFF
C. Autothrottle (if engaged)…Disengage
D. Engine fire warning switch…Pull

35. The maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations are: Headwind _____, Crosswind _____ and Tailwind _____ knots.

A. 25, 20, 15
B. 25, 20, 10
C. 20, 15, 10
D. 50, 34, 15

36. A rolling takeoff procedure is recommended for setting takeoff thrust. It expedites the takeoff and reduces risk of foreign object damage or engine surge/stall due to a tailwind or crosswind.

True
False

37. Which statement related to the center fuel tank is not true?

A. Do not operate the center tank fuel pumps with the flight deck unattended.
B. If a LOW PRESSURE light does not extinguish when the switch is positioned ON, position the switch OFF.
C. For ground operation, center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned ON unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds 1,000 lbs / 453 kgs, except when defueling or
transferring fuel.
D. There are no restrictions concerning the center tank fuel switches.

38. RTO autobrakes are available only after the aircraft has exceeded approximately _____ knots “wheel speed” during the takeoff roll. If the takeoff is rejected prior to this speed, autobraking is not initiated.

A. 90
B. 80
C. 70
D. 60

39. The Rejected Takeoff procedure should be accomplished for predictive windshear warning prior to:

A. 80 knots
B. 90 knots
C. V1
D. the Rejected Takeoff procedure should not be accomplished for a predictive windshear warning

40. During the Terrain Avoidance maneuver, the initial target pitch attitude is _____ degrees.

A. 15
B. 20
C. pitch limit indicator
D. stick shaker or initial buffet

41. At speeds greater than _____ knots, use caution when using the nosewheel steering wheel to avoid overcontrolling.

A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 60

42. During takeoff at 84 knots, the A/T mode annunciates THR HLD. If full thrust is desired when THR HLD mode is displayed:

A. the thrust levers cannot be physically moved
B. the thrust levers must be manually advanced
C. pressing TO/GA will advance the thrust levers to full thrust
D. B and C

43. The flight director pitch command is not used for rotation.

True
False

44. Sideslip only (zero crab) landings are not recommended with crosswinds in excess of _____ knots at flaps 15, _____ knots at flaps 30, or _____ knots at flaps 40 for dry/wet runways.

A. 10, 14, 16
B. 15, 18, 21
C. 10, 20, 20
D. 15, 34, 34

45. The Assumed Temperature Method is allowed on a wet runway if approved takeoff performance data for a wet runway is used.

True
False

46. If an engine fails between V1 and liftoff, maintain directional control with smooth rudder application. At VR, rotate smoothly in one continuous motion towards 12° to 13°. Adjust pitch, as required, to maintain desired airspeed of _____ to _____.

A. V2; V2 + 10
B. V1; V2 + 30
C. V2; V2 + 15
D. V2; V2 + 20

47. If an engine failure occurs during initial climb and airspeed is above V2+20,

A. maintain current airspeed
B. increase pitch to reduce airspeed to V2
C. increase pitch to reduce airspeed to maintain V2 + 15 to V2 + 25 as this speed does not significantly affect the takeoff profile
D. increase pitch to reduce airspeed to V2 + 20 and maintain until reaching acceleration height

48. The C-40 is classified as a category _____ airplane for straight in approaches and normally category _____ for circling approaches.

A. C, C
B. C, D
C. D, D
D. D, C

49. Autoland requires the use of flaps _____.

A. 30 only
B. 40 only
C. 30 or 40
D. 15, 30 or 40

50. C-40 Category II approaches may be conducted to a DH and visibility no lower than ______, while Category IIIA approaches may be conducted to a DH and visibility no lower than ______.

A. 50' RA/1600 touchdown zone RVR; 50' RA/1200 touchdown zone RVR
B. Published Cat II RA (NLT 100’HAT)/2400 touchdown zone RVR; 50' RA/1600 touchdown zone RVR
C. Published Cat II RA (NLT 100’ HAT)/1600 touchdown zone RVR; 50' RA/1200 touchdown zone RVR
D. Published Cat II RA (NLT 100’ HAT)/1200 (1000 when noted on the procedure) touchdown zone RVR; 50' RA/700 touchdown zone RVR

51. IAN Glidepath is a geometric path and may not comply with FMC altitude constraints prior to the FAF.

True
False

52. If a missed approach is required on a dual autopilot approach before flare armed is annunciated, both autopilots will disengage when the TO/GA button is depressed. However, as the engines accelerate, the aircraft will pitch up and appear to follow the flight director.

True
False

53. The maximum operating altitude is ______ ft.

A. 35,000
B. 40,000
C. 41,000
D. 51,000

54. Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind is ______ kts.

A. 15
B. 10
C. 20
D. 5

55. Maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude is _______ ft.

A. 14,000
B. 13,500
C. 10,000
D. 8,400

56. Maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is ______ feet.

A. 75
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

57. Maximum takeoff weight is:

A. 175,000 lbs
B. 171,500 lbs
C. 171,000 lbs
D. 170,000 lbs

58. Maximum taxi weight is:

A. 175,000 lbs
B. 171,500 lbs
C. 171,000 lbs
D. 170,000 lbs

59. Engine TAI must be on when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below _____°C SAT.

A. -30
B. -40
C. -50
D. -60

60. Do not operate engine or wing anti-ice when the total air temperature (TAT) is above _____°C (_____°F).

A. 0, 32
B. 10, 50
C. 15, 50
D. 20, 32

61. Do not engage the autopilot for takeoff below ______ feet AGL.

A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500

62. For single channel operation during approach, the autopilot shall not remain engaged below _____ ft AGL.

A. 200
B. 100
C. 50
D. DH or MDA

63. Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

True
False

64. Engine ignition must be on for:

A. takeoff/landing
B. anti-ice operation
C. operation in heavy rain
D. all of the above

65. Maximum altitude for extending the flaps is _____ ft.

A. 25,000
B. 20,000
C. 15,000
D. 10,000

66. If operating into an airport requiring QFE altitudes and altimeter settings:

A. do not use LVL CHG below transition altitude
B. do not use vertical speed (V/S) below transition altitude
C. do not use the metric altimeter below 10,000
D. do not use LNAV or VNAV

67. Do not deploy the speedbrakes in flight at radio altitudes less than _____ feet.

A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 1,500
D. There is no altitude limitation for speedbrake deployment

68. Minimum inflight tank fuel temperature is _____°C above the freezing point of the fuel being used or _____°C, whichever is higher.

A. 3, -43
B. 5, -40
C. 2, -43
D. 5, -43

69. Activating the Passenger Oxygen Switch to ON during preflight will cause deployment of the passenger oxygen masks.

True
False

70. During the Engine Start Procedure, the minimum Brake pressure, and System A and B pressure should read _____ PSI.

A. 2,700
B. 2,800
C. 2,900
D. 3,000

71. Set AUTO BRAKE selector to _____ during the First Officer Preflight procedure.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. RTO

72. Do not key HF radio while the airplane is being fueled. Injury to personnel or fire may result.

True
False

73. Limit each start attempt to a maximum of _____ minute(s). A minimum of _____ seconds is required between start attempts.

A. 1, 5
B. 1 1/2, 10
C. 2, 10
D. 2, 5

74. During an engine start, if 25% N2 is not achievable, at max motoring and a minimum of _____% N2, position the engine start lever to IDLE Detent.

A. 18
B. 20
C. 24
D. 15

75. Accomplish the ABORTED ENGINE START checklist if no N1 rotation is indicated by the time the engine is stabilized at idle.

True
False

76. During Pushback or Tow Out Procedures, if the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed, system A HYDRAULIC PUMPS must be placed off.

True
False

77. By 80 knots, start movement of the reverse thrust levers to be at the reverse idle detent by 60 knots (conditions permitting).

True
False

78. Operation of the airstairs in winds exceeding _____ knots is not recommended.

A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40

79. If the QFE altimeter setting is beyond the range of the altimeters: A. QNH procedures must be used
B. QNE procedures must be used
C. set appropriate QNH setting in the altimeters
D. A and C above

80. The normal configuration at the MDA and prior to turning base for a single engine circling approach is:

A. gear down, flaps up
B. gear up, flaps 10 (flaps 5 optional)
C. gear down, flaps 5
D. gear down, flaps 10

81. Takeoffs are not recommended when slush, wet snow, or standing water is more than _____ in depth.

A. 1/4 inch (7 mm)
B. 1 1/2 inches (38 mm)
C. 1/2 inch (13 mm)
D. 1/8 inch (3 mm)

82. Landing gear doors, air conditioning inlets/exits, engine inlets, APU air inlets, pitot probes, and static ports must be free of ice and snow prior to takeoff.

True
False

83. During ground operations when engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, accomplish engine run-up, as needed, to minimize ice build-up. Run-up to a minimum of 70% N1 (or as high as practical) for approximately _____ seconds duration at intervals no greater than _____ minutes.

A. 10; 10
B. 20; 20
C. 30; 30
D. 60; 60

84. Wait approximately _____ minute(s) after completion of deicing to turn engine BLEED air switches on to ensure all deicing fluid has been cleared from the engines.

A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 1 1/2
D. 2

85. With the APU operating, ingestion of de-icing fluid causes objectionable fumes and odors to enter the airplane. This can also cause damage to the APU.

True
False

86. When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, the takeoff must be preceded by a static engine run-up. Run-up to a minimum ______ and confirm stable engine operation before the start of the takeoff roll.

A. 50% N1
B. 4,000 lbs fuel flow
C. 50% N2
D. 70% N1

87. The minimum width of pavement for 180° turn is:

A. 49 feet (15 meters)
B. 66 feet (20 meters)
C. 75 feet (22.9 meters)
D. 98 feet (30 meters)

88. Use of wing anti-ice above FL350 may result in a pack trip off, with no apparent loss of cabin pressure.

True
False

89. While the airplane is electrically powered on the ground, packs should be run or cooling air supplied to the airplane when the OAT exceeds _____°C (_____°F) to protect the reliability of electrical and electronic equipment in the airplane.

A. 35, 95
B. 40, 103
C. 110
D. none of the above

90. Severe turbulence climb speed is _____, cruise speed is _____, and descent speed is _____.

A. 280 knots or .76 Mach, .76 Mach, 280 knots or .76 Mach
B. 280 knots or .76 Mach, FMC recommended thrust settings, .76 Mach/280/250 knots
C. 300 knots or .78 Mach, FMC recommended thrust settings, .78 Mach/300/250 knots
D. 280 knots or .78 Mach, .78 Mach, 280 knots or .78 Mach

91. For approach and landing in areas of suspected wind shear, select _____ for landing.

A. maximum landing flap position consistent with field length
B. minimum landing flap position consistent with field length
C. flaps 25
D. flaps 30

92. The APU start cycle may take as long as _____ seconds.

A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. none of the above

93. If windshear is encountered during takeoff roll and there is insufficient runway left to stop, initiate a normal rotation at least _____ feet before the end of the runway.

A. 1,000
B. 1,500
C. 2,000
D. 2,500

94. Landing distance calculations are based upon a 50’ threshold crossing height and 1,000 feet of air distance.

True
False

95. The C-40B/C is certified to fly approaches requiring Fail Operational capability (CAT IIIB approaches).

True
False

96. The Cargo Fire Panel

A. is not required to be checked by the aircrew.
B. is required to be checked prior to each flight.
C. is required to be checked once per flight day
D. must be checked after the cabin smoke detector test is initiated.

97. When checking the Oxygen system, you should push/hold the Emergency/Test selector for 5 seconds and verify that the yellow cross shows continuously in the flow indicator and crew oxygen pressure does not decrease more than 100 psig.

True
False

98. With one engine inoperative, rudder trim may be set to zero to facilitate directional control during thrust reduction. This should be accomplished prior to _____ feet AFE to allow the PM ample time to perform other duties and make appropriate altitude callouts.

A. 100
B. 300
C. 500
D. 1,000

99. The maximum altitude for inflight APU bleed + electrical load is _____ feet.

A. 15,000
B. 10,000
C. 41,000
D. 17,000