Hazmat Tech Sample Questions

  1. In most situations, decontamination personnel should be in personal protective clothing that is:
    the same level of protection or one level below the people working in the Hot Zone.
  2. When facing a fire involving the cargo of a truck transporting explosives, the hazardous materials/WMD technician should:
    immediately evacuate to a safe distance.
  3. If combined materials cause a container to breach because they are more corrosive than the container was originally designed to withstand, the breach was caused by:
    Interactions.
  4. A tube trailer that carries oxygen, nitrogen, or hydrogen (to name a few), would be considered a _______ carrier.
    compressed-gas.
  5. The products that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are:
    flammable liquids.
  6. Operating filaments of the Combustible Gas Indicator (CGI) can be damaged by brief exposure to:
    Silicone
  7. A ______ will typically be inaccurate when used in oxygen deficient atmospheres.
    combustible gas indicator (CGI)
  8. Even in an Oxygen Deficient atmosphere, a sample containing _____ may indicate a safe level of oxygen on an oxygen meter.
    Chlorine
  9. The product that a high-pressure tank truck usually holds is:
    Anhydrous Ammonia or LP gases
  10. The illustration and description below would be identified as an:



    Description: Tank within a tank design with vacuum space between inner and outer tank
    IMO Type 7
  11. The pressure in a fixed facility tank can be determined by the:
    contents and hazard class.
  12. Identify the type and probable cargo of the tanker depicted below:

    MC 331 - LPG, Anhydrous Ammonia
  13. Identify the type and probable cargo of the cargo tank depicted below:

    • MC 307 / DOT 407
    • Isopropyl Alcohol, Methyl Ethyl Ketone
  14. What does DOT 112J200W stenciled on the side of a railroad tank car indicate?

    A. When the car was made
    B. Tank car specifications
    C. Tank Test Pressure
    D. Both B and C are correct
    D: Both B and C are correct
  15. The trailer depicted below is an example of:

    MC 307 / DOT 407
  16. In non-pressurized portable tanks, the internal pressure can be up to _____ PSI.
    100 PSI
  17. _______ are used to determine the presence and approximate concentration of specific gases and vapors that might be present in the atmosphere.
    Colorimetric Tubes
  18. The proper cargo tank for carrying a shipment of sulfuric acid is an:
    • MC 312 / DOT 412
  19. The transportation index found on labels of undamaged packages containing radioactive material indicated the:
    highest radiation level that is found 3 feet (1 meter) from the surface of the package.
  20. Cryogenic liquids are those that have a boiling point of  _____ or lower.
    minus 130ºF
  21. The pressure rating of this car is:

    DOT-105S300W
    300

  22. This picture shows an intermodal container that has the specification of:

    Tube Module
  23. A product that non-pressure tanks typically hold is:




    A. Gasoline
  24. Strong, tight containers are used to ship materials of low radioactivity. These packages are authorized for domestic shipment only in _____ shipments.
    exclusive use
  25. A tank car has the specification:

    TC 111 A 60 W7

    What is the  test pressure rating of the car?
    60PSI
  26. The term non-bulk container refers to packages that are:
    • less than 882 pounds
    • less than 119 gallons
    • less than 1,001 pounds in water capacity
  27. _____ are used to close cargo tank trucks unloading valves in the event of exposure to fire or intense heat.
    Fusible devices
  28. The responsibility for shutting down the flow of product in a pipline belongs to the:




    B. Pipeline Operator
  29. Identify the resource in which the major emphasis is determining the effects of mixing various chemicals:
    Bretherick's Handbook of Reactive Chemical Hazards
  30. One source of chemical information the IS NOT used by hazardous materials/WMD teams to check the properties of chemicals is:




    D. 29 CFR 1910.120
  31. Read the following Statements and select the correct answer from the choices below:

    1. Gamma radiation is the most difficult form of radiation to shield.
    2. Alpha radiation is not harmful to the body
    3. Gamma radiation does not travel very far

    A. All of the statements are true.
    B. Statement 1 is true and 2 & 3 are false.
    C. Statement 1 is false and 2 & 3 are true.
    D. Statements 1 & 2 are true and 3 is false.
    B: Statement 1 is true and 2 & 3 are false.
  32. An MC 307/DOT 307 low pressure chemical carrier must has at least ____ PSI allowable working pressure.
    18.0-40.0 PSI
  33. What is the approximate capacity of the IMO Type 7 tank depicted below?



    Description: Tank within a tank design
    4,500-5,500 gallons
  34. What is the approximate capacity of the IMO Type 1 container shown below?



    Description: Max allowable working pressure is 100 PSI
    5,000-6,400 Gallons
  35. What is the approximate capacity of the IMO Type 2 container shown below?



    Description: Maximum allowable working pressure is 24.4 PSIG
    5,000-6,400 Gallons
  36. What is the approximate capacity of the DOT SPEC 51 or IMO Type 5 tank container?
    4,500-5,500 gallons
  37. Infrared spectrometry can not detect:




    B. biological materials
  38. Ion Spectrometry can be used to detect all of the following, except:

    A. Nerve Agents
    B. Blister Agents
    C. Explosives
    D. Toxic Industrial Materials
    D. Toxic Industrial Materials
  39. When sampling air, _____ is the common reading used to determine exposure guidelines and values.
    Parts per million (PPM)
  40. To transport a container that does not meet the requirements set forth by the code of federal regulations for a given material, it must be shipped as an exemption. A shipper must then note the assigned DOT-E number on the:
    Shipping Papers
  41. A handheld device that provides semi-quantitative point detection of blister and nerve agents on personnel and equipment using ion mobility spectrometry is the:
    Chemical Agent Monitor
  42. Instruments used to measure and monitor radiation include:

    A. Dosimeter
    B. Geiger Mueller tubes
    C. photoionization detector
    D. Both A and B are correct
    D: Both A and B are correct
  43. Sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide are best described as:
    bases
  44. A/an ______ has the ability to pass through human tissue and travel great distances.
    Gamma Ray
  45. ________ are chemicals that cause blisters.
    Vesicants
  46. Given a break in a domestic gas line creating an open-air release of a flammable substance, the area of evacuation should start with the establishment of a hot zone. This are should be based on _______ of the LEL indicated on a combustible gas indicator.
    10 percent.
  47. The temperature at which a solid chemical changes to a liquid phase is known as the chemical's ______ point. The temperature at which a liquid chemical changes to a solid phase is known as the chemical's _____ point.
    Melting and Freezing
  48. Regarding safe storage of chemicals, MSST is an acronym for ___ ___ Storage Temperature.
    Maximum Safe
  49. The ability of a material to undergo a chemical reaction with the release of energy is known as:
    reactivity/instability.
  50. The minimum temperature required to ignite a gas or a vapor without a spark or flame being present in known as:
    The ignition temperature (autoignition)
  51. The chemical reaction in which an acid and a base are mixed with resulting pH of 5 to 9 when tested is called:
    neutralization
  52. Lead and Ethylene oxide materials that pose a threat to a developing fetus should an exposure occur are best known as:
    Teratogens
  53. the percentage of an acid or base dissolved in water is known as:
    Concentration
  54. Hydrocarbons that contain only a carbon to carbon single bond are called:
    Saturated Hydrocarbons
  55. In order to gather a solid sample, the hazardous materials/WMD technician should use:
    Scoop and a Bottle
  56. The temperature at which a solid changes its phase to a liquid is called:
    Melting point
  57. Of the three physical states of material (Gas, Liquid, Solid), which presents the greatest risk?
    Gas
  58. The ease with which a liquid or a solid can pass into the vapor state is called:
    Volatility
  59. Usually solid material that is dispersed in a liquid spray and causes pain or burning on exposed mucous membranes and skin best describes a:
    riot control agent
  60. Which of the following contribute to the products of combustion that are harmful to humans?




    D. All of the above
  61. A reaction that is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a release rate of less than one second is called a/an:
    Violent rupture
  62. Which of the following exposure values could be repeated during an eight hour work day at a maximum of four times daily for 15 mins with 60 minute rest period between exposures?




    B. TLV-STEL
  63. The maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed to for eight hours a day, 40 hours a week best defines:



    C. TLV-TWA
  64. A one percent concentration of a substance in air is equal to 10,000:



    A. PPM
  65. Of the following, ______ rays are the most dangerous type of radiation.




    A. Gamma
  66. To protect against radiological exposures, a responder should:

    A. maintain a maximum distance from the radiation source
    B. limit the time spent in the area
    C. use vehicles or buildings for shielding
    D. All of the above
    D: All of the above
  67. A one percent concentration in air is equal to how many parts per billion (PPB)?
    10,000,000 PPB
  68. A hazardous materials response team's decision to control a hazard materials problem should be based on:
    level of training, available resources, and capabilities of emergency responders.
  69. Which mode of operation involves the use of aggressive leak, spill, and fire control tactics designed to quickly control or mitigate the emergency?




    B. Offensive
  70. The process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment best describes:
    penetration.
  71. Which regulatory agency developed the four level classification of chemical protective clothing?




    B. EPA
  72. The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical due to exposure to chemicals, general use, or ambient conditions defines:




    B. Degradation
  73. When using air purifying respirators, which of the following is not an operational component that should be considered prior to use?




    A.  The supplied air line cannot exceed 300'
  74. All of the following are procedures for personnel wearing vapor-protective clothing requiring emergency decon, except:




    A. conduct fine decontamination.
  75. All of the following are safety guidelines for the use of vapor protective clothing except:




    B.  one support person is necessary for every two entry people.
  76. Chemical vapor protective clothing should be used when ______ are expected.

    A. extremely hazardous substances
    B. corrosives
    C. splash hazards
    D. All of the above
    D: All of the above
  77. The best type of PPE for Thermal Hazards is:
    Structural firefighting clothing
  78. ______ is a process that encapsulates a contaminant or chemically bonds a contaminant to another object.
    Solidification
  79. Physical methods of decontamination generally involve physically removing the contaminate from the contaminated person or object. Which of the following is NOT considered a physical method of contamination?




    D. Neutralization
  80. Which of the following would not be a source of technical information for selecting decontaminated procedures?




    B. Monitoring instruments
  81. Before initiating any neutralization techniques, all of the following conditions must be satisfied except:




    C. the property owner must have been as to what actions are being taken
  82. The physical process of immediately reducing contamination of individuals in potentially life-threatening situations, without formal establishment of a contamination reduction area, best describes:




    D. emergency decontamination
  83. ______ is the process used to inactivate virtually all recognized pathogenic microorganisms.
    Disinfection
  84. ______ is the process of destroying all microorganisms in or on an object.
    Sterilization
  85. Given an aluminum MC 306/ DOT 406 cargo tank truck with a small hole in the tank, driving a wooden wedge into the opening with a rubber mallet to reduce or stop the leak is known as:
    Plugging
  86. The physical process of containment by which a leaking drum is placed into a larger container is called:
    overpacking
  87. Spills involving hazardous materials in confined spaces require atmospheric monitoring to determine:
    Whether the area can be entered safely
  88. When assessing an incident, your top concern is considered to be:
    safety
  89. The eight step process recommended for assessing a hazardous materials incident includes:

    A. hazard and risk evaluation
    B. implementing response objectives
    C. sniffing for odors and tasting the material
    D. Both A and B are correct
    D: Both A and B are correct
  90. Flammable atmospheres are a concern when entering a confined space. Rescue teams must utilize electrical equipment that is:
    rated for Class 1 and Division 2 atmospheres
  91. A chemically impaired person might not be able to recognize his/her own signs and symptoms. They may be able to continue to work in this impaired condition. This is one reason that _____ is used.

    A. the buddy system
    B. the incident commander
    C. medical monitoring
    D. Both A and C are correct
    D: Both A and C are correct
  92. The person who advises the incident commander of existing or potentially unsafe conditions and monitors conditions of personnel and compliance with standard operating procedures is:
    Incident Safety Officer
  93. The most likely location for the incident command post is on the  ______ zone.
    Cold
  94. Compressed flammable gases can be transferred from damaged containers by using:
    Vapor Suppressors
  95. Prior to installing a patch on a leaking small container, you should:

    A. Don the Proper PPE
    B. Select a patch half a size larger than the opening
    C. Check material compatibility with the leaking product.
    D. All of the Above
    D: All of the Above
  96. Termination activities include which of the following?

    A. Debriefing
    B. Incident Critique
    C. Providing reports and documentation
    D. All of the above
    D: All of the above
  97. An activity log and exposure records are kept as a result of a hazardous materials/WMD response. These records assist responders and employers to:
    establish a link between a responder's activities and their exposures.
  98. Records produced as a result of a debriefing best serve the purpose of documenting:

    A. the equipment and apparatus exposure overview
    B. the discussion of health program
    C. problems requiring immediate action
    D. All of the Above
    D: All of the Above
  99. Exposure records are important as the time intervals between exposures and the appearance of possible chronic effects may take years. OSHA requires exposure records and medical records to be maintained for at least ____ years after the employee retires.
    30
  100. Define Acute Exposure - an ______ exposure such as an _____ dose that might occur in an emergency response
    • Immediate
    • Single
  101. Define Chronic exposure - are _____ exposures over time.
    repeated
  102. Types/Names of Shipping Paper information:

    Highway - ______
    Railroad - ______
    Water - ______
    Air - ______
    • Highway - Bill of Lading or Freight Bill
    • Railroad - Waybill &/or Consist, Switch list, track list
    • Water - Dangerous Cargo Manifest
    • Air - Airbill with Shippers Declaration of goods
  103. Element -   ___________
    Compound - __________
    Slurry - _______
    • Element -   Pure substance that cant be broken down
    • Compound - a mixture of two or more elements
    • Slurry - Pourable mixture of a solid or a liquid
  104. Hazard Class 1
    Explosives
  105. Hazard Class 2
    Non-Flammable Gas / Inhalation Hazard / O2
  106. Hazard Class 3
    Combustible / Fuel Oil
  107. Hazard Class 4
    Flammable Solid
  108. Hazard Class 5
    Oxidizer
  109. Hazard Class 6
    Toxic or Poison
  110. Hazard Class 7
    Radioactive
  111. Hazard Class 8
    Corrosive
  112. Under OSHA 1910.120b, a site safety plan should include:




    B. location of command post
  113. In most situations, decontamination personnel should be in personal protective clothing that is:




    A. the same level of protection or one level below the people working in the hot zone
  114. What is the first step in a technical decontamination process?




    C. Tool and equipment drop
  115. Chemical methods of decontamination generally involve the removing of the contaminant through some type of chemical process. Which of the following is an example of a chemical method of decontamination?




    D.  Neutralization
  116. 1.   What is the final or ninth step in a technical decontamination process?




    D.  Medical evaluation
  117. An entry team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. The team reports that the vehicle is an MC 312. The container most probably contains a:




    B.  corrosive liquid
  118. You are called to an incident involving a spilled pesticide. The only legible number on the container is its EPA Registration Number: 54321-1234-69.Which portion of this sequence identifies the specific product?




    A. 1234
  119. A tube trailer that carries oxygen, nitrogen, or hydrogen, to list a few, would be considered a ______ carrier.




    C. compressed-gas
  120. What is the general maximum capacity of a MC 312/DOT 412 cargo tank?




    C. 6,300 gallons
  121. The products that IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry are:




    A.  flammable liquids
  122. Operating filaments of the Combustible Gas Indicator (CGI) can be damaged by brief exposure to:




    B.  silicone
  123. In addition to the combustible gas indicator, a(n) ______ maybe used to measure the concentration of a flammable gas in the air.




    A.  colorimetric tube
  124. A ______ will be typically inaccurate when used in oxygen deficient atmospheres.




    B.  Combustible gas indicator
  125. Using a pH meter, readings of less than _____ or more than ______ are cause for extreme caution.




    B. 2, 12
  126. What type of packaging is required when transporting high-activity radioactive materials by air?




    C. Type C
  127. Monitoring for flammable atmospheres can best be accomplished using a(n):




    D.  combustible gas indicator
  128. A product that a high pressure tank truck typically holds is:




    D. LP Gas
  129. A responder to a hazardous materials incident would use _____ to detect the presence of an alkali.




    B. pH indicators
  130. The highway cargo tank that carries ammonium nitrate, fertilizer, plastic pellets and dry caustic soda is a(n):The highway cargo tank that carries ammonium nitrate, fertilizer, plastic pellets and dry caustic soda is a(n):




    A. Dry Bulk Cargo
  131. Which intermodal tanks has an inner and outer tank with a vacuum space between the tanks and carries cryogenic liquids?




    C.  IMO Type 7
  132. The appropriate non-bulk container that would typically transport corrosive liquids is a(n):




    B. carboy
  133. Incident monitoring priorities dictate that, if there is any doubt, detection should be the first priority.




    D. Radiation
  134. Capacity in an open roof floating tank can be determined by the:




    C. tank spec plate
  135. In what type of cargo tank is gasoline usually transported on the highways?




    B.  MC 306/DOT 406
  136. A tank car that has the characteristics of an inner tank, a vacuum-space, and an outer shell, is a _______ tank car.




    C.  cryogenic liquid
  137. 45.    What monitoring technology can be used to determine pathogenicity?




    D.  Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
  138. When dealing with an unknown gas incident, the Hazardous Materials/WMD Technician must be alert for ______ and ______ hazards.




    C.  flammability, toxicity
  139. Compressed, non-flammable gases would require transport in ______ class cargo tank trucks.




    B.  MC-331
  140. Cylindrical or box-like cask packaging made of rigid metal that is designed for performance under hypothetical accident conditions best describes Type ______ radioactive packaging.




    A. B
  141. An appropriate non-bulk container in which solid fertilizers and pesticides would typically be transported is a(n):




    D. bag
  142. A tank carrier with vapor pressures less than 4 psi and designed to carry flammable liquids and combustible liquids is an:




    B.  MC 306/DOT 406
  143. A tank carrier designed to haul various chemicals whose pressures do not exceed 40 psi at 170°F is:




    B.  MC 307/DOT 407
  144. In a railroad tank car, a ______ is a deformation, caused by impact by a blunt object, to the tank head or shell.




    A. dent
  145. Typically made of steel, although aluminum or fiberglass/aluminum may be used, best describes:




    B.  uninsulated containers
  146. Cylindrical packaging made of metal, plastic, or fiberboard used to transport solids or liquids best describes




    B. drums
  147. Radioactive materials shipped in a steel drum can be considered to have a Type        level of protection




    C. A
  148. Under the U.N. Labeling System, a substance that spontaneously releases ionizing radiation would be labeled




    D. 7
  149. Three types of biological weapons are:




    C.  bacterial, viral, and toxins
  150. Bulk containers that can be lifted from one transportation mode to another are referred to as:




    B.  intermodal portable tanks
  151. A DNA Fluoroscopy is used in the field to determine:




    C.  the credibility of the threat
  152. Hydrocarbon that contains at least one multiple bond between two carbon atoms is a(n):




    B.  unsaturated hydrocarbon
  153. A product that atmospheric pressure tanks typically will hold is:




    B.  gasoline
  154. When dealing with radiation, it is important to remember the rule--when distance from the radiation source is doubled, the radiation intensity is lowered by:




    B. 1/4
  155. A Raman Spectroscopy is used to detect or identify"




    C.  toxicity/chemical agents
  156. Wet chemistry can be used to determine"




    B.  corrosivity
  157. When a cryogenic liquid is spilled from its container, the product will:




    D.  boil off rapidly
  158. The tank car specification number is located on the ______ end as one faces the railroad tank car:




    D. right
  159. Which of the following would you not expect in a one-ton container?




    C.  Oxygen
  160. A metal oxide sensor (MOS) is used to monitor/detect:




    A.  toxicity/chemical agent
  161. The tank car identification number is located on the ______ end as one faces the railroad tank car.




    C. Left
  162. Radiopharmaceuticals are typically shipped in ______ Packages and spent nuclear fuel is typically shipped in ______ Packages.




    A.  Type A; Type B
  163. An MC 307/DOT 407 low-pressure chemical carrier must have at least      psi allowable working pressure.




    C. 18-40.0
  164. The TravellR HCI, HAZMat ID, and Avater ESP are all types of ______ monitors:




    D.  Infrared Spectrometry
  165. Infrared Spectrometry can not detect:




    A. biological materials
  166. Ion Spectrometry can be used to detect:




    B.  toxic/chemical agents
  167. The appropriate device to be used in detecting nerve agents is a(n):




    D.  M8 detection paper
  168. What is the order of monitoring priorities used when identifying an unknown atmosphere?




    C.  Radiation, flammability, oxygen, toxicity
  169. Carbon monoxide meters are examples of a:




    B.  gas specific monitor
  170. The weight of a pure vapor or gas compared with the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure is known as vapor:




    B.  density
  171. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the atmospheric pressure is known as the:




    C.  boiling point
  172. The lower the boiling point, the higher the of the chemical.




    D.  volatility
  173. The time it takes for half of the atoms to decay to a more stable form is called the:




    C.  half life
  174. ______ chemicals lack carbon chains and are typically derived from other than vegetable or animal sources.




    C. Inorganic
  175. _______ is the concentration or amount of a hazardous substance to which the body is exposed over a period of time.
    Dose
  176. Hydrocarbons that contain benzene ring structures are known as:




    C.  aromatic hydrocarbons
  177. _______ is the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water.




    D.  Specific gravity
  178. The purpose of a(n) ______ is to provide specific identification of a given chemical.




    D.  chemical abstract service number - CAS
  179. The curie (Ci) is a unit used to measure
    Radioactivity
  180. When testing for gas migration at a propane pipeline, the best monitor to use would be a:




    B.  photoionization detector (PIO)
Author
cordero52
ID
343888
Card Set
Hazmat Tech Sample Questions
Description
Hazmat Tech Sample Questions
Updated