NMSK Exam 1

  1. What are the structural components of a chemical synapse?
    • Axon terminals
    • Synapses
    • Dendrites
  2. Axon terminals are packed with _________________
    Synaptic vesicles
  3. What are postsynaptic densities?
    Accumulations of receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of the dendrite
  4. What are electrical synapses?
    Gap junctions
  5. Synaptic cleft of chemical vs electrical synapses
    Electrical synapses smaller than chemical synapses
  6. What kind of synapses are found in cardiac muscle and some types of smooth muscle (uterus and bladder)
    Electrical synapses
  7. Peptide neurotransmitters are produced in the _______________
    Cell body
  8. Non-peptide neurotransmitters are produced in the _______________
    Axon terminal
  9. Role of microtubules in neuron
    Create a highway for peptide neurotransmitters to reach axon terminal
  10. Vesicle and peptide neurotransmitter precursors and enzymes are synthesized in the ________________ (organelle) and released from the ______________ (organelle)
    • Endoplasmic reticulum
    • Golgi
  11. What is the role of calcium in presynaptic vesicle release?
    Calcium controls vesicle fusion and mobilization of synaptic vesicles
  12. ________________ controls vesicle fusion and mobilization of synaptic vesicles
    Calcium
  13. Role of synapsin in presynaptic vesicle release
    • Restraint (non-phosphorylated)
    • Mobilization (phosphorylated)
  14. What is restraint?
    Non-phosphorylated synapsins bind vesicles to actin filaments
  15. Synapsins are substrates for ___________________ and _________________
    • cAMP-dependent protein kinase
    • Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase
  16. What is mobilization?
    Phosphorylated synapsins release vesicles from actin filaments
  17. When do synapsins become phosphorylated?
    With calcium entry
  18. Rab proteins bind _________________
    GTP
  19. ______________ targets the vesicles that have already been liberated from the actin filament to the active zones of the presynaptic membrane
    Rab/GTP complex
  20. Vesicle protein, synaptobrevin (VAMP), interacts with membrane proteins to form a ________________ and do what?
    • SNARE complex
    • Dock the vesicle to the presynaptic membrane
  21. Role of munc18 in presynaptic vesicle release
    For exocytosis of synaptic vesicles
  22. Elimination of munc18 prevents ______________
    Vesicle fusion
  23. Munc18 binds to syntaxin before/after synaptobrevin binds
    Before
  24. ______________ targets and cleaves VAMP
    Tetanus
  25. ______________ cleave SNAP-25, VAMP, and syntaxin
    Botulinum toxins
  26. What do clostridial neurotoxins do?
    Interfere with docking and priming by cleaving SNARE proteins
  27. Examples of clostridial neurotoxins
    • Tetanus
    • Botulinum toxins
  28. Alpha-latrotoxin causes…
    Massive calcium influx in the neuron which causes massive release of acetylcholine and cholinergic symptoms
  29. What is the role of synaptotagmin in presynaptic vesicle release?
    Binds with calcium and is considered a calcium sensor
  30. The binding of calcium to synaptotagmin triggers…
    • Vehicle fusion
    • Pore formation
    • Release of the neurotransmitter
  31. What is the final step in neurotransmitter release cycle?
    Recycling of the vesicles and disassembling the SNARE complex
  32. What is the role of NSF in presynaptic vesicle release?
    Binds to SNARE complex and unravels it
  33. What are the mechanisms of neurotransmitter termination?
    • Diffusion
    • Enzymatic degradation
    • Reuptake
  34. Glutamate transporters use _______________ and transporter for all other neurotransmitters use __________________
    • Na/K exchange
    • Na and Cl cotransport
  35. ________________ transporters have no chloride dependence
    Glutamate
  36. List the vesicular uptake transporters
    • VMAT1 and VMAT 2 (for monoamines)
    • VGAT (for GABA)
    • VAChT (for acetylcholine)
  37. What is the role of vesicular uptake transporters?
    Get the neurotransmitters into synaptic vesicles
  38. In neurotransmitter uptake, plasma membrane transporters use the __________ gradient and vesicle transporters use the ___________ gradient
    • Na+
    • H+
  39. Acetylcholine is degraded into ____________ and _______________ by _________________
    • Acetate
    • Choline
    • Acetylcholinesterase
  40. Serotonin is derived from which amino acid? This amino acid is a precursor to which molecule?
    • Tryptophan
    • Melatonin
  41. What are the steps of getting epinephrine from tyrosine?
    Tyrosine --> dopa --> dopamine --> norepinephrine --> epinephrine
  42. In the process of tyrosine being converted to epinephrine, what is the rate limiting step?
    Tyrosine hydroxylase (catalyzes tyrosine --> dopa)
  43. Tyrosine hydroxylase can be blocked by ________________
    Metyrosine
  44. What is the function of VMAT?
    Transport channel that transports monoamine neurotransmitters into vesicles
  45. VMAT can be blocked by _______________
    Resperpine
  46. ______________ and _______________ terminate neurotransmitter action
    • NET
    • DAT
  47. What are NET and DAT?
    • NET: norepinephrine transporter
    • DAT: dopamine transporter
  48. Where does dopamine --> norepinephrine take place?
    In the vesicle
  49. NET and DAT are blocked by ________________
    Cocaine
  50. NET and DAT action can be reversed by _________________. What is the new action after reversal?
    • Amphetamine
    • NE and DA pumped out of neuron
  51. What are the three catecholamines?
    • Epinephrine
    • Norepinephrine
    • Dopamine
  52. What are the four monoamines?
    • Epinephrine
    • Norepinephrine
    • Dopamine
    • Serotonin
  53. Calcium is needed for neurotransmitter release, what does it do?
    • Mobilizes vesicles
    • Creates fusion pore
  54. What is the role of astrocytes in synaptic transmission?
    Hep with synthesis of some neurotransmitters
  55. What is the cause of Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS)?
    Antibodies against voltage gated calcium channels in presynaptic terminals cause absence of calcium so no neurotransmitter release (no acetylcholine = muscle weakness)
  56. What kind of receptors are found at the neuromuscular junction?
    Nicotinic acetylcholine ionotropic receptors (ligand-gated)
  57. What is an ionotropic receptor?
    Receptor that is activated when ligand binds
  58. Ionotropic receptors are ___________-gated which means the channel opens when…
    • Ligand
    • Ligand binds
  59. Ligand-gated channels have ___________ subunits
    5
  60. Ligand-gated channels vs gap junctions structure
    Gap junctions formed by hemichannels and have 6 subunits
  61. Ligand-gated channels vs voltage-gated channels structure
    Voltage-gated channels have 4 subunits
  62. What is a metabotropic receptor?
    • Receptor is a separate protein from the ion channel
    • Activates a G-protein
  63. G-protein coupled receptors have _____ subunits
    1
  64. Active state of a G-protein has ________ bound
    GTP
  65. G protein is inactivated when…
    GTP hydrolyzed to GDP
  66. Effects of Gs, Gi, and Gq
    • Gs: increases cAMP
    • Gi: decreases cAMP
    • Gq: increases IP3 and DAG
  67. Examples of metabotropic receptors
    • GPCRs
    • Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs)
  68. Examples of ionotropic receptors
    Neuromuscular junction
  69. Receptor tyrosine kinases lack…
    Intrinsic kinase domains, but borrow from kinases not part of the receptor
  70. Ionotropic vs. metabotropic receptors: speed
    Metabotropic much slower
  71. Ionotropic vs. metabotropic receptors: area of action
    • Ionotropic: local action
    • Metabotropic: widespread action

    • Ionotropic vs. metabotropic receptors: neuronal firing
    • Ionotropic: excites or inhibits neuronal firing
    • Metabotropic: usually does not lead directly to action potentials
  72. Why are sweat glands an exception for sympathetic innervation?
    Sweat glands have muscarinic receptors in postsynaptic sympathetic fiber
  73. Nicotinic vs muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
    • Nicotinic: ligand-gated ion channels, ionotropic, fast EPSP
    • Muscarinic: GPCR, metabotropic, slow EPSP
  74. Both nicotinic and muscarinic receptors ___________ outward K+ current by ____________ K+ channels, thus encouraging __________________
    • Decrease
    • Closing
    • Depolarization
  75. Which type of receptors have more widespread action, ionotropic or metabotropic?
    Metabotropic

    • _________________ receptors usually do not lead directly to action potentials
    • Metabotropic
  76. What is the exception to sympathetic innervation?
    Sweat glands have muscarinic receptors, but are sympathetic
  77. Acetylcholine leads to slow/fast EPSPs through ______________ receptors and slow/fast EPSPs through ________________ receptors
    • Fast
    • Ionotropic
    • Slow
    • Metabotropic
  78. What do ionotropic and metabotropic receptors do to cause depolarization?
    Decrease outward K+ current by closing K+ channels (open at rest)
  79. Metabotropic receptors close ___________ channels to activate depolarization
    M-type K+
  80. Nicotinic receptors are ________________ and muscarinic receptors are _________________
    • Ionotropic
    • Metabotropic
  81. Examples of metabotropic channels
    • K+ channels
    • Heart
    • GIRK
  82. Serotonin receptors are AKA _________________
    5-HT receptors
  83. What kind of receptors are serotonin receptors?
    Both GPCR and ligand-gated
  84. 5-HT1 and 5-HT2 receptors are which type of receptor and are they inhibitory/excitatory?
    • Both GPCR
    • 5-HT1: inhibitory
    • 5-HT2: excitatory
  85. 5-HT3 receptors are which type of receptors and are they inhibitory/excitatory?
    • Ligand-gated channel
    • Excitatory
  86. What antibody is measured to diagnose myasthenia gravis?
    AchR-ab
  87. The myasthenia gravis antibody is _________________ and it acts against ________________
    • AChR-ab
    • Nicotinic ACh receptors on the postsynaptic terminal
  88. The LEMS antibody acts against _______________
    Voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic terminal
  89. What is the pathophysiology behind myasthenia gravis?
    Motoneurons produce ACh normally but antibodies bind to the ACh receptors, so ACh can’t bind and no depolarization happens

    • _______________ is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that is used to improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis
    • Pyridostigmine
  90. In myasthenia gravis, the defect lies in the ______________ and in LEMS, the defect lies in the _______________
    • ACh receptors
    • Calcium uptake by motoneurons
  91. Electrophysiology of Neurons – Dr. Pong
    • Action potential in a spherical cell vs. action potential in a cylinder
    • AP in a cylinder is able to propagate
  92. What happens to the amplitude of the action potential as it moves down the axon?
    Decays
  93. Decay of the action potential as it propagates down axon is determined by:
    • Membrane resistance
    • Membrane capacitance
    • Internal resistance
  94. Membrane length constant, λ, is the…
    Distance that a graded potential will travel along an axon
  95. Membrane length constant (λ) relationship with resistance
    λ is proportional to square root of (membrane resistance ÷ internal resistance)
  96. How does nerve diameter affect conduction velocity of an AP?
    Larger diameter = faster conduction
  97. What is membrane time constant, τ? What is the equation?
    • Time required to change the membrane
    • τ = membrane resistance x membrane capacitance
  98. What type of axon has the fastest conduction velocity of an AP?
    • Axon with:
    • High resistance to charge loss (high length constant)
    • Ease in charging the membrane (low time constant)
  99. How can you increase conduction velocity of an AP?
    Increasing nerve diameter and having myelination
  100. What does myelin do in terms of membrane resistance and capacitance?
    • Increases membrane resistance
    • Decreases membrane capacitance
  101. What are the advantages of saltatory conduction?
    High speed and low metabolism cost
  102. Nodes of Ranvier contain ________________ in high density
    Voltage-gated Na+ channels
  103. In the periphery, APs are shut off by the inactivation of the ______ channel and a large outward ______ current. Voltage-gated K+ channels are common/uncommon.
    • Na+
    • K+
    • Uncommon
  104. In both the CNS and periphery, high densities of ______________ are located beneath the myelin sheath. What happens in demyelinating diseases?
    • K+ channels
    • K+ channels exposed and slow down AP
  105. What are the ways an EPSP can be created?
    • Positive ions entering the cell
    • Negative ions leaving the cell
  106. What are the ways an IPSP can be created?
    • Positive ions leaving the cell
    • Negative ions entering the cell
  107. What effect does hyperkalemia have on action potential generation?
    Depolarized membrane potential and keeps AP generation from occurring since inactivation gate cannot close
  108. What effect does hypokalemia have on action potential generation?
    Makes K+ leave the cell faster and hyperpolarized the membrane, so keeps you away from reaching AP threshold
  109. How can serotonin have both an excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic effect? What is an example of one that is inhibitory?
    • Has both cation channels (excitatory) and GPCR (excitatory or inhibitory)
    • GPCR can cause K+ channels to open, K+ leaves, leads to hyperpolarization (inhibitory)
  110. What is multiple sclerosis caused by?
    Loss of myelination results in decreased conduction speed of Aps
  111. What effect does hypercalcemia have on action potential generation?
    Ca blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels which makes cell less excitable
  112. What effect does hypoxia have on action potential generation?
    No oxygen, no ATP, Na+/K+ pump does not work without ATP, no AP
  113. What effect does hypoxia have on cells?
    Na+/K+ pump doesn’t work, Na+ stays in cell and draws water into cell (swells)
  114. Physiology of Sensation and Pain – Dr. Pong
    • What are the four qualities of pain sensation?
    • Modality
    • Location
    • Intensity
    • Duration/frequency
  115. What is a receptive field?
    The area that is sensitive to the stimuli
  116. Small receptive field vs. large receptive field
    Large receptive fields have inputs from multiple neurons
  117. Contrast the organization of muscle activation (spinal motoneuron to muscle) with the organization of pain sensation (nerve ending to spinothalamic relay neuron)
    • Muscle: motor cortex --> pyramidal tract --> spinal cord --> brachial plexus --> peripheral nerve --> neuromuscular junction
    • Pain: nociceptor --> peripheral nerve --> brachial plexus --> spinal cord --> spinothalamic tract --> somatosensory cortex
  118. What type of sensory receptor is a nociceptor?
    Free nerve endings
  119. Sensory info comes into the spinal cord via the ____________ horn and motor info comes out of the spinal cord via the ______________ horn
    • Anterior/ventral
    • Posterior/dorsal
  120. What is a receptor potential?
    Membrane potentials at free nerve endings
  121. Can receptor potentials become action potentials?
    Yes, membrane potentials summate and if threshold is reached --> AP
  122. ________________ channels open to specific stimuli in free nerve endings and cause receptor potentials
    Transient receptor potential (TRP)
  123. What are the types of nociceptors?
    • Temperature
    • Mechanical
    • Polymodal
    • Silent
  124. Thermal nociceptors: diameter, myelination, types of fibers, speed
    • Small diameter
    • Thinly myelinated
    • A-delta fibers
    • Fast
  125. Mechanical nociceptors: what they sense, types of fibers
    • Sense intense pressure to skin
    • A- delta fibers
  126. Polymodal nociceptors: what they sense, diameter, myelination, types of fibers, speed
    • Mechanical, chemical, thermal stimuli
    • Small diameter
    • Nonmyelinated
    • C fibers
    • Slow
  127. Silent nociceptors are found in the _____________ and are normally activated/not activated by noxious stimuli
    • Viscera
    • Not activated
  128. When can silent nociceptors be activated and why?
    Inflammation, reduces firing threshold
  129. How can you affect the intensity or duration of pain sensation?
    Involve other nociceptors and sensory receptors
  130. A-delta fibers vs. C fibers type of pain caused
    • A-delta fibers: initial, sharp pain
    • C fibers: later, dull, achy pain
  131. How do chemical mediators affect sensitivity of nociceptors?
    Can either activate nociceptors or sensitize them

    • Examples of chemical mediators that can sensitize nociceptors
    • Prostaglandins
    • Bradykinin
  132. Bradykinin effect on nociceptors
    Activates A-delta fibers and C fibers
  133. Mechanism of NSAIDs
    Block cyclooxygenase (generate prostaglandins)
  134. Somatosensory pathway of neurons in the anterolateral system (pain, temp)
    • First order neuron from receptor to spinal cord
    • First order neuron synapses with second order neuron in spinal cord
    • Second order neuron crosses over to other side and ascends up to thalamus
  135. What is the mechanism of referred pain of visceral origin?
    • Fibers of different origin cross in the dorsal horn leading to incorrect localization of pain
    • (ex: heart attack, arm pain)
  136. _________________ is the idea that pain transmission can be disrupted with non-noxious stimulation
    Gate control theory of pain
  137. What are the 4 parts of the upper limb?
    • Shoulder girdle (scapula and clavicle)
    • Arm (humerus)
    • Forearm (radius and ulna)
    • Hand
  138. What is the only bony connection between the upper limb and body?
    Joint between clavicle and sternum
  139. Vasculature of the arm from heart to fingers
    Subclavian artery --> (passes first rib) --> axillary artery --> (passes teres major) --> brachial artery --> (passes elbow and splits) --> radial artery and ulnar artery --> form superficial palmar arch and deep palmar arch in hand --> branches to fingers
  140. Shoulder vasculature (scapular anastomosis)
    • Dorsal scapular artery
    • Suprascapular artery
    • Circumflex scapular artery
  141. What are mammary glands?
    Modified sweat glands
  142. What is the axillary tail of mammary glands?
    Extends into the armpit and breast cancer metastasizes through this

    • ________________ act as walls to separate breast into 15-20 lobes
    • Suspensory ligaments
  143. Arteries that supply mammary glands
    • Internal thoracic artery
    • Lateral thoracic artery
    • Thoracoacromial artery
    • Branches of intercostal arteries
  144. Describe the lymphatic drainage of the mammary glands
    • 75% drains to axillary nodes (from lateral breast)
    • 25% drains to parasternal nodes (from medial breast)
  145. Pectoralis major origins
    • Clavicular head
    • Sternocostal head
    • Costal cartilages 1-6
  146. Pectoralis major insertions
    Intertubercular sulcus of humerus (bicipital groove)
  147. Pectoralis major innervation
    Lateral and medial pectoral nerves
  148. Pectoralis major actions
    • Medially rotates arm
    • Adducts arm
  149. Pectoralis minor insertions
    Coracoid process of scapula
  150. Pectoralis minor origins
    Ribs 3-5
  151. Pectoralis minor innervation
    Medial pectoral nerve
  152. Pectoralis minor actions
    • Depresses scapula
    • Elevated ribs for deep inspiration
  153. Subclavius insertion
    Clavicle
  154. Subclavius origin
    First costal cartilage
  155. Subclavius innervation
    Nerve to subclavius
  156. Subclavius actions
    Depresses and anchors clavicle
  157. Serratus anterior insertions
    Medial border of scapula
  158. Serratus anterior origins
    Ribs 1-8
  159. Serratus anterior innervation
    Long thoracic nerve
  160. Serratus anterior actions
    • Rotates scapula
    • Draws scapula forward
    • Anchors scapula against thoracic wall
  161. Winged scapula results from damage to _______________
    Long thoracic nerve
  162. Where is clavipectoral fascia located?
    Surrounds pectoralis minor and is in between of pectoralis major and minor
  163. What are the structures that pierce the clavipectoral fascia?
    • Cephalic vein
    • Thoracoacromial artery
    • Lateral pectoral nerve
  164. Clavipectoral fascia protects…
    Nerves of brachial plexus and axillary vessels
  165. What are the contents of the clavipectoral triangle?
    • Cephalic vein
    • Tip of coracoid process of scapula
  166. What are the borders of the clavipectoral triangle?
    • Deltoid
    • Pectoralis major
    • Clavicle
  167. Clavipectoral triangle is protected by ______________
    Pectoral fascia
  168. Clavipectoral triangle is AKA _______________
    Deltopectoral triangle
  169. __________________ receive lymph from humeral, subscapular, and pectoral nodes
    Central nodes
  170. _________________ drain upper limb
    Humeral nodes
  171. _________________ drain posterior wall of axilla
    Subscapular (posterior) nodes
  172. _________________ drain anterior wall of axilla, including lateral breast
    Pectoral (anterior) nodes
  173. _________________ receive lymph from central nodes
    Apical nodes
  174. Right lymphatic duct drains lymph from which parts of body?
    Right side of head, neck, trunk, and right arm
  175. Thoracic duct drains lymph from which parts of body?
    • Left side of head and neck
    • Left arm
    • Abdomen
    • Lower extremities
  176. What are the boundaries of the axilla?
    • Anterior wall
    • Posterior wall
    • Medial wall
    • Lateral wall
  177. What is the posterior wall of the axilla comprised of?
    • Scapula
    • Subscapularis
    • Insertion of latissimus dorsi
    • Teres major
  178. What is the anterior wall of the axilla comprised of?
    • Pectoralis major
    • Pectoralis minor
  179. What is the medial wall of the axilla comprised of?
    • Upper 4-5 ribs
    • Intercostal muscles
    • Serratus anterior
  180. What is the lateral wall of the axilla comprised of?
    Humerus
  181. Axillary artery is divided into three parts in reference to which muscle?
    Pectoralis minor
  182. The first part of the axillary artery begins at the ______________ and ends at the ________________
    • Border of clavicle
    • Pectoralis minor muscle
  183. The second part of the axillary artery is located…
    Under the pectoralis minor
  184. The third part of the axillary artery begins ______________ and ends ________________
    • After pectoralis minor
    • Lower border of teres major
  185. What are the branches off the first part of the axillary artery?
    Superior thoracic artery
  186. What are the branches off the second part of the axillary artery?
    • Thoracoacromial trunk
    • Lateral thoracic artery
  187. What are the branches off the third part of the axillary artery?
    • Subscapular artery
    • Anterior circumflex humeral artery
    • Posterior circumflex humeral artery
  188. What is the artery that supplies serratus anterior?
    Lateral thoracic artery
  189. The brachial plexus is formed by the ___________ rami of ____________
    • Ventral
    • C5-C8 and T1
  190. What are dermatomes?
    Strips of skin innervated by an individual spinal root
  191. Important dermatomes: the nipple is innervated by spinal segment _________, the umbilicus ________, the fingertips _________, and the toes __________
    • T4
    • T10
    • C6-T1
    • L5-S1
  192. What is a prefixed brachial plexus?
    Brachial plexus starts at C4 (normal: C5)
  193. What is a postfixed brachial plexus?
    Brachial plexus ends at T2 (normal: T1)
  194. Sections of the brachial plexus: how many roots?
    5
  195. Sections of the brachial plexus: how many trunks?
    3
  196. Sections of the brachial plexus: how many divisions?
    • 3 anterior
    • 3 posterior
  197. The anterior/posterior divisions of the brachial plexus are in reference to what?
    • Axillary artery
    • (anterior to or posterior to)
  198. Sections of the brachial plexus: how many cords?
    3
  199. Sections of the brachial plexus: how many branches?
    5
  200. The superior trunk of the brachial plexus is made up of…
    C5 and C6
  201. The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is made up of…
    C7
  202. The inferior trunk of the brachial plexus is made up of…
    C8 and T1
  203. Which spinal nerves make up the axillary nerve?
    C5-C6
  204. Nicotinic receptors are opened by the endogenous ligand _______________ or by the exogenous ligand _______________
    • Acetylcholine
    • Nicotine
  205. Muscarinic receptors are activated by binding the endogenous ligand _______________ or the exogenous ligand _______________
    • Acetylcholine
    • Muscarine
  206. What are the substrates of acetylcholinesterase?
    Acetylcholine and water
  207. What are the products of acetylcholinesterase?
    Acetate and choline

    • What is the synaptic location of acetylcholinesterase?
    • In the synapse, attached to postsynaptic membrane
  208. What is the function of acetylcholinesterase?
    Degrade ACh
  209. What are the substrates of choline acetyltransferase?
    Choline and acetyl-CoA
  210. What are the products of choline acetyltransferase?
    Acetylcholine and CoA
  211. What is the synaptic location of choline acetyltransferase?
    Inside presynaptic neuron
  212. What is the function of choline acetyltransferase?
    Synthesize the neurotransmitter
  213. What are the effects of inhibiting acetylcholinesterase?
    Increase in acetylcholine and decrease in choline
  214. How are amino acids precursors to monoamine neurotransmitters?
    Amino acids decarboxylased to become monoamine neurotransmitter
  215. Serotonin is AKA ________________
    5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT)
  216. What is the role of serotonin in the synapses of the CNS? What about outside of the CNS, crossing the BBB?
    • Acts as a neurotransmitter
    • Increases tone (contract) of smooth muscle
  217. List the pathway of biosynthesis of serotonin, including substrates, enzymes, and products
    • 1. Tryptophan hydroxylase turns tryptophan into 5-hydroxytryptophan
    • 2. 5-hydroxytryptophan decarboxylase turns 5-hydroxytryptophan into 5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT, serotonin)
  218. Biosynthesis of serotonin requires which enzyme and which cofactors?
    • Enzyme: tryptophan hydroxylase
    • Cofactors: tetrahydrobiopterin and iron
  219. 90% of the serotonin in the human body is produced in the _____________
    Intestine
  220. What is the primary fuel of the brain? What is the primary fuel for the muscle?
    • Brain: glucose
    • Muscle: lipids
  221. What is the cellular location of glycolysis?
    Cytosol
  222. What is the cellular location of the citric acid cycle?
    Mitochondria matrix
  223. What is the cellular location of the
    Mitochondrial inner membrane
  224. How does glucose get into the cell?
    Glucose transporters (passive)
  225. Once glucose enters the cell, what traps it in? Why does this trap it in?
    • Glucose is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate
    • Glucose-6-phosphate can’t bind to transporter and leave
  226. Phosphorylation of glucose is catalyzed by which enzyme?
    Hexokinase
  227. What does hexokinase do?
    Adds phosphate to glucose

    • Phosphorylation of glucose-6-phosphate is catalyzed by which enzyme?
    • Glucose-6-phosphatase
  228. What does glucose-6-phosphatase do?
    Phosphorylates glucose-6-phosphate
  229. Why do we need glucose-6-phosphatase?
    Dephosphorylation of glucose-6-phosphate allows glucose to leave cell (liver and kidney)
  230. Glucose 6-P is converted into glucose 1-P by which enzyme?
    Phosphoglucomutase
  231. Glucose 6-P is converted into fructose 6-P by which enzyme?
    Phosphoglucose isomerase
  232. What is the function of phosphoglucose isomerase?
    Glucose-6-phosphate --> fructose-6-phosphate
  233. Which metabolic pathway produces the most ATP?
    Oxidative phosphorylation
  234. Which metabolic pathway produces the most NADH?
    Citric acid cycle
  235. Glycolysis produces how many ATP and how many NADH?
    • 2 ATP
    • 2 NADH
  236. Citric acid cycle produces how many ATP and how many NADH?
    • 2 ATP
    • 6 NADH
  237. Oxidative phosphorylation produces how many ATP and how many NADH?
    • 32-34 ATP
    • No NADH
  238. What is the function of glycogen synthase?
    G-1-P --> glycogen
  239. What is the function of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
    G-6-P --> 6-phosphogluconolactone (pentose phosphate pathway)
  240. What is the function of phosphofructokinase 1?
    F-6-P --> F-1,6-BP
  241. Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is catalyzed by which enzyme?
    Phosphofructokinase-1
  242. What is the dam model of enzyme inhibition when phosphofructosekinase-1 is stimulated?
    • F-6-P decreases, F-1,6-BP increases
    • If F-6-P decreases, then G-6-P and G-1-P also decrease
  243. What is the dam model of enzyme inhibition when glycogen synthase is inhibited?
    G-1-P, G-6-P, and F-6-P all increase
  244. What is the function of fructokinase 1?
    Fructose --> fructose-1-phosphate
  245. What is the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose to F-1-P?
    Fructokinase 1
  246. What is the end goal for citric acid cycle in terms of NADH?
    Reduces NAD+ to NADH
  247. What is the end goal for oxidative phosphorylation in terms of NADH?
    Oxidizes NADH to NAD+
  248. Glycolysis oxidizes/reduces glucose to pyruvate
    Oxidizes
  249. The first step of citric acid cycle is…
    Production of citric acid from oxaloacetate and acetyl-coA
  250. Regulation of glycolysis occurs only at steps in which…
    Products are much lower in energy than substrates
  251. Regulation of glycolysis occurs at which enzymes?
    • Hexokinase
    • Phosphofructokinase 1
    • Pyruvate kinase
  252. Phosphoenolpyruvate --> pyruvate is catalyzed by which enzyme?
    Pyruvate kinase
  253. Most steps in glycolysis are reversible except those that are…
    Regulatory (hexokinase, PFK-1, pyruvate kinase)
  254. What are the three parts of a neuron?
    • Cell body (perikaryon)
    • Dendrites
    • Axon
  255. What is a nerve fiber?
    Axon and its sheaths
  256. What is the process of myelination?
    Schwann cell winds around axon several times and makes cytoplasm and nucleus pushed to outside layer (while myelin is inner portion)
  257. _________________ is the peripheral nucleated cytoplasmic layer of the Schwann cell that encloses the myelin sheath
    Neurolemma
  258. What is the function of the neurolemma?
    To assist regeneration of injured axons
  259. Do unmyelinated fibers have Schwann cells?
    Yes, but without the multiple wrappings
  260. An axon contains _______________ and _________________ for support
    • Mitochondria
    • Neurofibrils
  261. What are the layers of the cerebral cortex from superficial to deep?
    • Molecular layer
    • External granular layer
    • External pyramidal layer
    • Internal granular layer
    • Internal pyramidal layer
    • Multiform layer
  262. The _______________ layer of the cerebral cortex is composed mostly of nerve terminals originating from other areas of the brain
    Molecular
  263. The _________________ layer of the cerebral cortex contains neuronal cell bodies whose axon is the principal path of output from the cortex
    External pyramidal
  264. The __________________ layer of the cerebral cortex is composed of stellate cells, pyramidal cells, and neuroglia
    Internal granular
  265. What cell types are found in the internal granular layer of the cerebral cortex?
    • Stellate cells
    • Pyramidal cells
    • Neuroglia
  266. The ___________________ layer of the cerebral cortex contains the largest pyramidal cells and neuroglia
    Internal pyramidal
  267. What cell types are found in the internal pyramidal layer of the cerebral cortex?
    • Pyramidal cells
    • Neuroglia
  268. The ___________________ layer of the cerebral cortex is the inner most layer that touches the underlying white matter
    Multiform
  269. What is the role of the cerebellum?
    Balance, equilibrium, muscle tone, muscle coordination
  270. What are the layers of the gray matter of the cerebellum from superficial to deep?
    • Molecular layer
    • Purkinje cell layer
    • Granular cell layer
  271. The _________________ layer of the cerebellum lies directly below the pia and contains two cell types: __________________ and _________________ cells
    • Molecular
    • Basket
    • Stellate
  272. The Purkinje cell layer of the cerebellum contains which cell types?
    Purkinje cells (only present in cerebellum)
  273. The granular cell layer of the cerebellum contains which cell types?
    Granular cells
  274. The dura mater is made of __________________ and is loosely attached to most of the skull but firmly attached to which parts of the skull?
    • Dense collagenous connective tissue
    • Sutures and the base of skull
  275. _____________ mater has blood vessels coursing through it
    Arachnoid
  276. What is the subarachnoid space?
    Space between arachnoid and pia mater
  277. What is the subdural space?
    Space between dura mater and arachnoid
  278. The _______________ space between the meninges is considered a potential space because it appears only as the aftermath of head trauma
    Subdural
  279. What are the four types of neuroglia?
    • Astrocytes
    • Oligodendrocytes
    • Microglia
    • Ependymal cells
  280. _______________ is an increased response to a stimulus that normally is painful
    Hyperalgesia
  281. _______________ is a diminished response to a normally painful stimulus
    Hypoalgesia
  282. _______________ is an absence of pain in response to a stimulation that is normally painful
    Analgesia
  283. _______________ is an increased sensitivity to stimulation, excluding the special senses
    Hyperesthesia
  284. _______________ is a diminished sensitivity to stimulation, excluding the special senses
    Hypoesthesia
  285. _______________ is an unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evokes
    Dysesthesia
  286. _______________ is an abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked
    Paresthesia
  287. _______________ is pain resulting from a stimulus that does not normally elicit pain
    Allodynia
  288. _______________ refers to the conversion of a noxious stimulus into electrical activity in nociceptor fibers
    Transduction
  289. _______________ refers to the passage of action potentials from peripheral terminal along axons to the central terminal of nociceptors in the CNS
    Transmission
  290. _______________ is the synaptic transfer of input from one neuron to another
    Conduction
  291. _______________ refers to the alteration of sensory input
    Modulation
  292. _______________ refers to the interpretation of afferent input in the brain that gives rise to the individual’s specific sensory experience
    Perception
  293. True or false: nociceptors respond ONLY to noxious stimuli
    True
  294. Nociceptive pain vs. neuropathic pain
    • Nociceptive pain comes from a noxious stimulus
    • Neuropathic pain comes from abnormal neural activity
  295. What are the types of nociceptive pain? Define them.
    • Somatic pain: arises from injury to body tissues
    • Visceral pain: arises from viscera mediated by stretch receptors
  296. Pain that is localized and sharp, dull, or achy is suggestive of _________________ pain
    Somatic

    • Pain that is poorly localized, deep, dull, or camping is suggestive of _________________ pain
    • Visceral
  297. What are the types of neuropathic pain? Define them.
    • Sympathetic: arises from injury to peripheral nerves with autonomic changes
    • Central: arises from abnormal CNS activity
    • Peripheral: arises from injury to peripheral nerves without autonomic changes
  298. Symptoms such as burning, shooting, stabbing, paroxysmal, vice-like, lancinating, electric-like shocks are indicative of ________________
    Neuropathic pain
  299. Intrinsic pain vs. referred pain limb pain
    • Intrinsic pain is pain in the actual limb
    • Referred pain is pain in another part of the body that radiates to limb
  300. Articular vs non-articular limb pain
    • Articular pain primarily originates in a joint
    • Non-articular pain does not primarily originate in a joint
  301. List causes of inflammatory limb pain (from class)
    • Infectious
    • Crystal-induced
    • Immune-related
    • Reactive
    • Idiopathic
  302. List causes of non-inflammatory limb pain (from class)
    • Trauma
    • Repetitive use
    • Degeneration
    • Neoplasm
    • Pain amplification
  303. List the three main sources of referred limb pain
    • Neurologic
    • Vascular
    • Lymphatic
Author
lykthrnn
ID
342977
Card Set
NMSK Exam 1
Description
NMSK Exam 1
Updated