When bacteria from a carious lesion invade the pulp, a massive accumulation of ___ results in the development of an abscess.
C. neutrophils
The most important cell in the development of a granuloma is the:
C. macrophage
Which one of the following statements about an acute apical abscess is true?
E. Pus being formed seeks release through drainage
A vasoactive inflammatory mediator release by blood platelets:
B. 5-hydroxytryptamine
The kinin system involves a cascade commencing with the activation of:
D. Hageman factor
Which of the following exudates contains numerous neutrophils?
C. purulent
Virulence factors associated with pyogenic bacteria include each of the following except:
D. some bacteria are able to resist destruction within the phagocytic cell
Histamine is stored in the granules of:
D. mast cells
A powerful chemotactic agent for neutrophils:
D. leukotriene B4
The enzyme myeloperoxidase is involved in the conversion of hydrogen peroxide to:
E. hypochlorous acid
Granulation tissue is BEST characterized by the presence of:
B. Fibroblasts / macrophages / blood vessels
Each of the following is associated with complement activation EXCEPT:
A. angiogenesis
Following injury to the pulp, extensive sprouting of nerve fibers is promoted by the release of:
D. nerve growth factor
The most important cells in the development of a chronic inflammatory response are:
D. macrophages / CD4+T cells
Before fibroblasts can move into a wound,
C. macrophages must debride the wound
Which of the following is an important opsonin?
A. complement component c3b
Differentiation of odontoblasts occurs during the:
A. bell stage of tooth development
Which of the following is not found in the odontoblast layer of the pulp?
D. macrophages
Which of the following statements about odontoblasts is FALSE?
B. cell bodies on the radicular pulp are columnar in shape
Which one of the following statements about reparative dentin is TRUE?
B. unlike primary dentin, it contains no collagen
Which two cells of the pulp are class II antigen presenting cells?
E. dendritic cells / macrophages
Evidence suggests that the permeability of the odontoblast layer is determined by the presence of:
B. gap junctions
As compared with other regions of the periodontist, the apical region:
C. has the highest rate of collagen turnover
Which one of the following statements regarding pulpal fibroblasts is FALSE?
D. they are limited to cell-rich zone of the pulp
Which type(s) of structural collagen fibers is/are found in the extracellular matrix of human dental pulps:
C. Type I and III
Intermediate cementum is produced by:
E. root sheath cells
The root sheath (Hertwig's) arises as a result of proliferation of cells in the:
B. cervical loop
Which one of the following is usually absent in the radicular pulp?
E. cell poor zone
Which of the following is a proteoglycan?
E. heparin sulfate
Which one of the following statements about the vascular supply of the pulp is INCORRECT?
B. stimulation of sympathetic nerve fibers produces vasodilation
A key enzyme linked to mineralization:
D. alkaline phosphatase
The principle cell type found in the pulp proper:
B. fibroblast
Each of the filling promotes formation of bone EXCEPT:
E. estrogen
The inorganic phase of bone is composed primarily of:
E. hydroxyapatite
Which of the following binds osteoclasts to proteins in bone matrix?
A. integrin
Which of the following is involved in the production of protons in bone demineralization?
D. IL-6
Which of the following stimulates bone resorption?
C. parathyroid hormone
Which of the following inhibits the resorption of bone?
C. calcitonin
Bone lacunae contain:
A. osteocytes
Which one of the following statements about osteoclasts is FALSE?
C. contain a single nucleus
Which of the following stimulates osteoclast precursors to fuse together to form osteoclasts?
E. osteopontin
May have MORE than one correct answer:
Which of the following statements concerning commanding (warfarin sodium) is true?
D. Coumadin is a vitamin K antagonist
Warfarin inhibits the vitamin K-dependent synthesis of biologically active forms of the calcium-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, as well as the regulatory factorsprotein C, protein S, and protein Z.
May have MORE than one correct answer:
Adverse reactions to tetracycline include:
A. photosensitivity
B. superinfection
C. discoloration of developing teeth
D. discoloration of bone
A. photosensitivity
B. superinfection
C. discoloration of developing teeth
D. discoloration of bone
May have MORE than one correct answer:
Which of the following statements concerning aspirin are true.
D. at toxic levels, depresses respiration
May have MORE than one correct answer:
MEN I classically entails all of the following EXCEPT:
B. oral mucosal neuromas
A diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is likely if the fasting plasma glucose value on two separate occasions is:
B. > 126mg / 100m
T/F. Hypoglycemia is treated by insulin infusion.
False
A lack of coagulation factor IX is seen in:
B. hemophilia B
May have MORE than one correct answer:
Head and neck radiotherapy potentially places the patient at risk for:
A. candidiasis
B. dysgeusia
C. xerostomia
D. radiation caries
A. candidiasis
B. dysgeusia
C. xerostomia
D. radiation caries
May have MORE than one correct answer:
Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include:
A. hypertension
B. hypotension
C. irregular heart beat
D. visual disturbances
E. drowsiness
C. irregular heart beat
D. visual disturbances
E. drowsiness
Which of the following drugs decrease the metabolism of Coumadin?
B. cimetidine
C. erythromycin
The OTC drug Tagement inhibits microsomal enzymes in the liver, increasing the half-life of which of the following drugs:
A. coumadin
B. theophylline
C. carbamazepine
D. phenobarbital
A, B, C, D
Which of the following drugs should not be prescribed for patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease?
A. acetaminophen
B. aspirin
C. ibuprofen
D. codeine
B. aspirin
C. ibuprofen
Signs and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include:
A. intolerance to cold
B. tachycardia
C. restlessness
D. elevated blood pressure
B. tachycardia
C. restlessness
D. elevated blood pressure
Which of the following statements about primary hyperparathyroidism is/are true?
B. most cases are caused by pituitary adenoma
C. elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels
D. low serum phosphate levels
What two organs are classically referred to when talking about the microangiopathic complications of diabetes mellitus?
C. eyes
D. kidney
Which test evaluates the patient's functional ability to initially stop bleeding:
C. bleeding time
Therapeutic Coumadin feels are typically associated with INR values of:
D. 2.0-3.0
The most common causes of thrombocytopathy is:
A. iatrogenic causes
Which of the following statements concerning radiation induced xerostomia is/are true?
C. the buffering capacity of the patient's saliva is impaired
C. the cornerstone of successful management is fluoride therapy
Which of the following is true concerning latex sensitivity?
A. health care workers are at increased risk for developing a sensitivity to latex
B. life-threatening reactions can occur
C. children with spina bifida are at higher risk than the general population
D. latex allergens may be spread through the air in the operatory
A. health care workers are at increased risk for developing a sensitivity to latex
B. life-threatening reactions can occur
C. children with spina bifida are at higher risk than the general population
D. latex allergens may be spread through the air in the operatory
Which of the following statements about viral hepatitis is/are true:
D. hepatitis D infection can not occur without the presence of hepatitis B
Approximately how many Americans have been exposed to hepatitis C?
C. 4 million
T/F. The majority of allergic reactions to latex products are thought to be T-cell mediated
True
Which of the following drugs decrease the absorption of glucose by the gut?
C. alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Side effects of narcotic analgesics include:
A. nausea
B. constipation
C. depressed respiration
D. vomitting
A. nausea
B. constipation
C. depressed respiration
D. vomitting
Which of the following drugs is/are not (a) selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor?
A. Prozac
B. Ambien
C. Xanax
D. Zoloft
B. Ambien
C. Xanax
Side effects of long term prednisone therapy include the following EXCEPT:
A. thickened, coarse skin
Which of the following is/are acceptable methods of sterilization:
A. chemical vapor / ethylene oxide gas
B. dry heat
C. cold chemicals
D. steam under pressure
A. chemical vapor / ethylene oxide gas
B. dry heat
D. steam under pressure
Almost all dental handpicks today can be sterilized:
A. True
B. False
A. True
Macrolide antibiotics such as erythromycin should not be prescribed for patients taking:
A. Seldane or Hismanal
B. theophyline
C. carbamezapine
D. aspirin
A. Seldane or Hismanal
B. theophyline
C. carbamezapine
Aspirin may be associated with:
A. induction of bronchospasm in the asthmatic
B. GI bleeding
C. tinnitus
D. increased respirations at toxic levels
E. all of the above
(E) all of the above
Which of the following is characterized by direct attachment of the lesion in the root of a tooth?
D. cementoblastoma
At the time of surgical exploration, this lesion, most commonly found in the mandible, is found to be an empty bony cavity with minimal soft tissue lining:
D. traumatic bone cyst
A small, well-defined, unilocular radiolucent lesion of the inter-radicular alveolar bone between vital teeth #20 and #21 is most likely a:
B. lateral periodontal cyst
Which of the following lesions commonly occurs in those patients with basal cell nevus syndrome?
C. odontogenic keratocyst
Which disease process commonly occurs as multiple lesions in the anterior mandible of middle-aged, African-American women?
A. periapical cemental dysplasia
Which of the following diseases is characterized microscopically by the presence of eosinophils admixed with diffuse sheets of the proliferative cellular component?
A. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
All of the following odontogenic lesions characteristically occur in children and teens EXCEPT:
D. ameloblastoma
A well-defined, radiolucent lesion near the apices of asymptomatic, vital, central maxillary incisors is most likely:
D. nasopalatine duct cyst
Which of the following odontogenic lesions histologically recapitulates the enamel organ?
D. ameloblastoma
The microscopic differential diagnosis of a biopsy from the jaw which contains collections of multinucleate giant cells includes all fo the following EXCEPT:
B. focal sclerosis osteomyelitis
Which of the following properties is mediated by the BASE form of the local anesthetic?
D. ability to penetrate nerve / plasma membrane
Which of the following sensations is blocked FIRST by injection of a local anesthetic?
A. pain
The reduced efficacy of local anesthetics following injection into inflamed tissue is thought to be due to:
A. ion trapping
How many milligrams of lidocaine are in 3 cartridges of 2% solution?
E. 108.0
In general, local anesthetics block the sensation of ___ first and maintain the loss of this sensation longest.
A. pain
Which of the following local anesthetics is associated with methemoglobinemia?
C. prilocaine
The "three D's" of acute pain control refer to:
A. diagnosis, dental treatment, and drugs
Patients with a history of severe hepatic disease may experience greater toxicity of the ___ class of local anesthetics due to reduced metabolism.
E. amide
Which of the following is NOT an amide local anesthetic?
B. tetracaine
The advantages of NSAIDS for analgesic indications include all of the following EXCEPT:
E. no analgesic ceiling
A patient presents to your office with pain of inflammatory origin and a medical history of active asthma with nasal polyps. Which of the following analgesics would be contraindicated for use?
A. ketoprofen
Which of the following mechanisms could contribute to increased bleeding time with aspirin?
A. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation
Which of the following drugs could increase the magnitude of acetaminophen induced toxicity?
E. All of the above
Which of the following effects are similar between the NSAIDs and aspirin?
D. antipyretic action
Which of the following NSAIDs would most likely be considered a drug of first choice for treating inflammatory pain?
E. none of the above
Which of the following is likely to produce the greatest analgesic effect in acute inflammatory pain patients?
E. 30 mg of pentazocine
What is the minimal dose of coding generally recognized to produce a clinically significant level of analgesia?
B. 30 mg
A patient takes two tablets of Tylenol III every 6 hours for five days. Which of the following opioid side effects would be LEAST LIKELY to occur?
B. Dizziness
The rationale for developing a flexible prescription plan includes all of the following EXCEPT:
C. the minimal opioid dose should be equivalent to 60 mg of codeine
Treating patients with NSAID drugs has been previously demonstrated to significantly reduce the magnitude and delay the onset of postoperative pain in dental patients. Please select the biochemical rationale best explaining this clinical observation.
C. inhibition of cyclooxyrgenase activity prior to release of prostaglandins
Which of the following agents/procedures could reduce pain by inhibiting peripheral biochemical processes signaling tissue injury.
E. all of the above
A patient presents to the clinic with an odontogenic infection having systemic signs. The patient is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered for use?
C. clindamycin
Which of the following antibiotics has been associated with development of pseudomembranous colitis?
B. clindamycin
Concurrent administration of NSAIDs and glyburide may lead to:
D. hyperglycemia
Unmyelinated C polymodal nociceptors display which of the following response properties?
E. all the above
The etiology and management of dentinal hypersensitivity are most likely related to changes in:
C. dentinal tubule fluid movement
A delta nociceptors are characterized by:
E. All the above
The morphological specialization of peripheral terminals of C polymodal nociceptors is characterized by:
C. Dentinal tubule innervation
Which of the following parameters provides the most information to the CNS about the intensity of a noxious stimulus?
E. All of the above
Which of the following peripheral neurons is most likely to remain functional in an inflamed, hypoxic dental pulp?
D. C fibers
Which of the following pulpal fibers is activated during an electrical pulp test?
A. A delta fibers
Which of the following pulpal fibers is thought to be primarily responsible for mediating dentinal hypersensitivity?
B. A delta fibers
Which of the following pulpal fibers is thought to be primarily responsible for mediating pulpal inflammatory pain?
C. C fibers
Which of the following pathways transmits pain information from the nucleus caudal to the thalmus?
C. spinothalamic pathway
The mechanism for referred pain is most probably due to:
B. convergence
Endogenous analgesic systems may modulate pain perception by:
E. all of the above
Hyperalgesia is characterized by:
C. increased pain responsiveness
Which of the following inflammatory mediators does NOT activate primary afferent fibers?
E. hydrogen
Proposed mechanisms of hyperalgesia include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. trigeminal peristalsis
Which author(s) introduced milk as a possible storage media for the avulsed tooth?
D. Blomlof (1981)
Which of the following luxation injuries has the poorest prognosis?
C. intrusive luxation
The time period during which traumatized teeth may not be response to pulp testing is:
B. 8-12 weeks
The probability of needing endodontic treatment after a subluxation injury is about:
A. 10%
According to Andreasen (1985) the probability of transient apical breakdown occurring as a sequella of luxation injuries is:
D. likely (50-75%)
The type of resorption seen typically on a radiograph in the first several weeks after an avulsed tooth has been replanted is:
C. surface resorption
The usual splinting period for an avulsed tooth is:
C. 7-10 days
Which storage medium is the least desirable?
C. tap water
Most avulsed teeth will:
B. will demonstrate some form of internal resorption
What is the etiology of inflammatory resorption?
D. A, B, and C
According to the AAE Guidelines for Avulsed Permanent Teeth (1995) to determine the outcome of therapy, the minimum follow-up period should be:
C. 5 years
With respect to horizontal root fractures, the:
A. coronal and the apical segments usually stay vital
The best treatment for active replacement resorption is:
E. None of the Above
The ideal treatment for internal root resorption is:
C. conventional root canal therapy
Which of the following fascial spaces lies below the zygomatic arch and is bounded medially by the lateral pterygoid plate, posteriorly by the mandibular condyle and laterally by the coronoid process?
B. infratemporal space
Which one of the following fascial spaces can be involved when the source of the infection is a mandibular incisor whose root apex lies below the attachment of the mentalist muscle, and the purulent exudate perforate the labial cortical plate?
E. mental space
Which of the following fascial spaces is NOT involved in Ludwig's Angina?
C. buccal
What space does the injection needle enter when giving a mandibular block?
A. pterygomandibular
The canine space lies deep to which one of the following muscles?
B. levator anguli oris
Which of the following techniques is preferred when obtaining an intramural specimen for culture?
B. trans mucosal aspiration
Which one of the following cannot be determined from a gram stain?
B. spacies of bacteria
When prescribing this antibiotic the patient should be instructed to avoid drinking any alcoholic beverages.
E. metronidazole
Which one of the following statements is false for infections involving anaerobic bacteria?
B. the time required to grow most anaerobic bacteria in the laboratory is longer than for most aerobic bacteria
Which one of the following signs if not associated with Ludwig's Angina?
C. swelling of the eyelids
A 22 y/o female patient with a diagnosed canine fascial space infection continues to have swelling and systemic symptoms. She had an incision and drainage performed two days ago and was started on PCN VK 500 mg orally. Which of the following antibiotics would you consider switching the patient to?
C. clindamycin
Which of the following fascial spaces lies deep to the orbiculares oculi muscle?
C. periorybital space
Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with a submasseteric fascial space infection?
B. trismus
Which of the following bacteria associated with an odontogenic infection is an obligate anaerobic gram negative cocci?
D. prevotella nigrescens
Which of the following bacteria is associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis?
E. Clostridium difficile
Which of the following antibiotics is indicated for the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis?
E. IV vancomycin
Mediastinitis is most commonly associated with spread of infection from which one of the following fascial spaces?
D. danger space
Which of the following antibiotics can be associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis?
B. clindamycin
According to the recently revised antibiotic prophylaxis guidelines, all of the following patients require prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental procedures which induce mucosal bleeding EXCEPT:
C. patient with mitral valve prolapse and valvular regurgitation
Drug most likely to reduce blood levels of other drugs a patient may be taking:
A. phenobarbital
Blood levels of terfenadine and other drugs have increased to toxic levels by the concomitant administration of:
A. erythromycin
Drug most likely to cause a hypertensive reaction if epinephrine is concomitantly administered:
D. propranolol
Local anesthetic contraindicated in a patient with hereditary methemaglobinemia:
C. prilocaine
What is the maximum recommended dose of lidocaine for a 30 lb child?
A. 120-150 mg
How many carpules of a 2% solution does the answer to the previous question translate to?
B. 3-4.5
Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated in an aspirin sensitive asthmatic?
D. ibuprofen and ketorolac
For a severe periodical infection the best combination of antibiotics to employ is:
C. metronidazole + pen VK
In peripheral tissues serotonin is stored in the granules of
B. blood platelets
Activation of Hageman factor gives rise to which one of the following mediators?
B. bradykinin
The enzyme myeloperoxidase is involved in the conversion of hydrogen peroxide to:
A. hypochlorous acid
This combination of drugs is associated with an increased risk of cardiac arrhythmias
A. clarithromycin and cisapride
The alleged interaction between antibiotic and oral contraceptives is based on
D. case reports only
Which of the following is not considered to be an etiological factor in inflammatory resorption?
B. a compromised immune system
What is the most important factor in obtaining an excellent prognosis for avulsed teeth?
C. the prognosis for an avulsed tooth is never excellent
Which of the following NSAIDs is considered a COX-2 specific blocker?
A. rofecoxib
Which of the following statements is false concerning tramadol:
B. often produces sedation
Which property of a local anesthetic most influences its onset time?
B. pKa
Common side effects of oxycodone include all of the following except:
A. diarrhea
A drug which selectively blocks COX-2 without blocking COX-1 should produce all of the following except:
C. anti platelet effects
In post surgical dental pain studies the analgesic efficacy of ibuprofen 400 mg is approximately equivalent to:
C. acetaminophen 650 mg
The earliest infiltrating cells in periapical lesions are:
B. PMNs, monocytes
Deficiencies of which of the following are associated with increased periapical lesion size?
A. T cells
Osteoclastic bone resorption involves:
D. all of the above
The 'coupling' of bone resorption and bone formation refers to:
C. the control of osteoclastic resorption by osteoblasts
Which of the following cytokines stimulate bone resorption?
A. IL1, IL6, TNFa, IL11
The vasoconstrictive effect of epinephrine is best explained by its ability to stimulate:
A. alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
Osteoclast formation is directly induced by:
B. IL1
Which of the following antibiotics has been shown to have a definitive interaction with oral contraceptives?
C. rifampin
Which of the following fascial spaces lies between the alar and prevertebral fasciae?
A. danger space
Which of the following is not surrounded by the carotid sheath?
B. superior ophthalmic vein
According to Sunqvist (1998), what bacteria are the most common isolate from the root canals of teeth with persisting periradicular lesions after unsuccessful endodontic treatment?
B. Enterococcus faecalis
Which of the following is an inhibitory protein produced by one strain of bacteria that inhibits another strain?
A. bacteriocin
Which antimicrobial agent has the property of "substantivity"?
C. chlorhexidine
Which antibiotic is recommended for use only in combination with another antibiotic?
A. metronidazole
Which of the following statements about endotoxin (LPS) is FALSE?
A. Lipid A component determines endotoxic properties
Which of the following is most critical with respect to an avulsed tooth?
C. proper handling of the root
The two most important aspects that should be known before treatment of the avulsed tooth are:
C. maturity of the root and extra oral dry time
When is the optimum time for replanting the avulsed tooth?
C. immediately
Sequelae of luxation injuries do not usually include
C. internal resorption
Rigid splinting or long-term splinting causes additional root resorption.
A. true
B. false
A. true
Which of the following disease processes is least likely to be confused with a periapical granuloma radiographically?
D. late stage periapical cemental dysplasia
Angiotensinogen I is concerted to angiotensinogen II in the:
D. kidney
Which of the following statements concerning calcium channel blockers are true?
D. side effects include edema, headache, and gingival enlargement
What virus is strongly implicated with oral hairy leukoplakia?
A. EBV
Author
ucsfendo
ID
342842
Card Set
Board Prep
Description
Academic Review of Endodontology September 23-25, 2005
