Which cranial nerve will be affected first in a patient with a cavernous sinus thrombosis?
C. Abducens
Which one of the following fascial space infections will present with the greatest amount of trismus?
A. pterygomandibular
Which of the following fascial spaces is bounded inferiorly by the mylohyoid muscle?
C. sublingual
What is another name for an infection involving the peritonsillar space?
A. quincy
Which of the following lesions is treated by simple curettage?
D. periapical granuloma
A periapical radiolucency persists after root canal therapy. After apicoectomy the tissue is submitted for histopathologic examination. Which of the following diagnoses would likely necessitate further surgical treatment?
A. OKC
The most common location in the jaws for metastatic cancer is:
C. posterior mandible
Multiple Myeloma affecting the jaws is a tumor of which cell?
B. plasma cells
Eosinophilic granuloma (histiocytosis X) is caused by a proliferation of which cell?
E. Langerhans cells
What is often an ill-defined, vague radiolucency in the mandible at the site of previous extraction and is composed of hematopoietic and fatty marrow?
B. osteoporotic bone marrow defect
A periapical radiolucency persists after root canal therapy of tooth #30. After apicoectomy the tissue is submitted for histopathologic examination. Which of the following histopathologic diagnoses would not be possible in this location?
E. All of the above diagnoses are possible in that location
Tooth #19 has a large and deep class II amalgam and a somewhat ill-defined unilocular radiolucency associated with the mesial root and furcation. Vitality testing is equivocal. Radiographically you also observe that the PDL of all roots of tooth #19 and the root of tooth #20 are uniformly widened. You should be suspicious of:
A. metastatic carcinoma
Tooth #19 has a large and deep class II amalgam and a somewhat ill-defined unilocular radiolucency associated with the mesial root and furcation. Vitality testing is equivocal. On the radiograph you observe that the radiolucency is well corticated and appears to represent expansion of the mandibular canal. You should be highly suspicious of:
B. schwannoma
Conventional ameloblastoma is treated by:
A. block resection with 1-2cm margin
One cartridge of 4% Articaine contains what dose of local anesthetic?
D. 68mg
When combined with lidocaine, the dose/response for epinephrine with regards to hemostasis in the oral cavity is up to:
E. 1:50,000
Patients with a history of severe hepatic disease may experience greater toxicity of the ___ class of local anesthetics due to reduced metabolism.
B. amide
The NSAID that is most selective for blocking COX-1 is:
B. ketorolac
At therapeutic doses which of the following analgesics lack anti platelet activity:
B. acetaminophen and rofecoxib
Which one of the following statements concerning epinephrine is false?
D. its action is greatly enhanced in patients taking MAO inhibitors
Typical side effects of hydrocodone include:
D. sedation, nausea
Toll-like receptors are for:
A. bacterial cell wall molecules
The following immune cells have been identified in periradicular lesions except:
A. Kupfer cells
IL-12
A. is a pro-inflammatory cytokine
NK kappa B
C. is a critical transcription factor
The following belong to the host adhesion molecules except:
E. adhesins on fimbriae
Microbial virulence factors include all of the following except:
A. TLR-4
The following are molecular methods of microbial detection that have been reported for Endodontic specimens except:
B. DNA microarray analysis
Black pigmented Gram-negative anaerobes have been shown repeatedly in classic culturing studies to be associated with Endodontic symptoms. PCR-based studies have corroborated these findings.
D. the first statement is correct and the second is incorrect.
The presence of microbial biofilms in the root canal environment has been demonstrated in studies examining primary and therapy-resistant endodontics infections. Microorganisms populating a biofilm are harder to eradicate than those that exist in a planktonic form.
B. Both statements are correct and the second statement explains the first statement
Bacterial presence in chronic periradicular lesions has been examined using the following techniques except:
B. Dark-field microscopy
In addition to high cholesterol, which of the following factors is (are) considered a risk factor for CAD?
D. all of the above are correct
The goal(s) of prevention and management of hypertension is (are) to:
D. all of the above are correct
Clue(s) in the medical history that may help identify high-risk hypertensive patients include:
D. all of the above
The blood pressure should be recorded on all new patients at the time of initial appointment and at all subsequent appointments on all patients with a history of:
B. diabetes mellitus, thyroid disorders and adrenal dysfunction
The provision of non-stressful urgent care such as the alleviation of pain or simple incision and drainage of an intramural abscess, and then immediate referral to a physician is the appropriate protocol when the patient's blood pressure is:
B. 160/100 to 179/109 mm Hg
Angioedema of the lips and gingival is most likely seen when antihypertensive treatment is initiated with:
D. an ACE inhibitor
The average pulse rate in normal adults is:
A. 60 to 90 beats per minute
Pulsus trades (rate less than 60 per minute) and a regular rhythm which may accelerate with exercise is suggestive of
B. sinus bradycardia
Which of the following conditions may be associated with a pulse rate of more than 100 per minute and a regular rhythm?
D. all of the above are correct
Which of the following statements about premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) is (are) correct?
D. all of the above are correct
Which of the following statements about syncope is correct?
D. All of the above are correct
Which of the following agents is most likely to cause severe hypotension (coronary steal syndrome) and exacerbate angina pectoris?
A. Calcium channel blocking agents
The treatment of a patient experiencing an acute attack of angina pectoris should include all of the following except:
A. administration of atropine intravenously or sublingually
Patients at high risk of MI include:
D. all of the above are correct
Asthma is susceptible patients may be provoked in a dental setting by
D. All of the above are correct
Which of the following suggests the first sign of early asthma?
A. coughing and shortness of breath
When an asthmatic patient is experiencing respiratory distress in the dental setting, the clinician may administer
D. all of the above are correct, in proper sequence, as dictated by clinical circumstances
Which of the following statements relative to chronic bronchitis is correct?
D. All of the above statements are correct
In clinical situations with COPD patients, when respiration is depressed, shallow, or irregular, ventilation may be required with 100% oxygen at a rate of
D. 1 to 2 L/min
An Addisonian crisis may be associated with all of the following except
B. decreased synthesis of beta-MSII
Corticosteroid deficiency is manifested by all of the following except
C. weight gain
Supraphysiologic doses of glucocorticoids may lead to
B. a,b,c
A male patient taking an estrogen preparation is most likely being treated for
D. prostate carcinoma
Tamoxifen modifies or inhibits the action of estrogen and is able to arrest the growth of
B. some breast cancers
Nitroglycerin administered sublingually induces vasodilation in arteries in
B. 1 to 2 min
During physical and emotional stress a patient experiences minimal to moderate substernal pain that appears quickly and radiates to the neck, left shoulder, down the arm and in to the left side of the jaw. This history is suggestive of
A. angina pectoris
Clinical heart failure is usually the result of a relatively slow, progressive condition secondary to
D. all of the above are correct
Which of the following agents is most likely to mask the clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia in a patient with diabetes mellitus?
C. beta-adrenergic blocking agents
Which of the following agents may precipitate severe bronchospasm?
D. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
Which of the following is not a sign or symptom associated with GERD?
C. Severe attrition of the dentition
Prostaglandins enhance the mycosis's resistance to injury by all of the following mechanisms except:
D. Irreversibly inactivating pepsin
Most cases of PUD are thought to be associated with
D. infection of the gastric mucosa by H. pylori
Which one of the following statements relative to hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection is false?
B. 5 to 10% of infected patients becomes long-term carriers of the virus
Which of the following statements about the immune response to HBV infection is false?
B. In general, patients with acute HBV infection produce a vigorous B-cell response against multiple HBV antigenic determinants
Complete the following sentence. There is a slow progression from acute HCV infection to --
D. All of the above
The hepatitis D virus (a unique RNA virus) requires a helper function provided by the
B. HBV
Which of the following statements is (are) true about N-acetyl-benzoquinoneimine?
E. All of the above statements are true
Loss of hepatocyte function may affect
D. All of the above
Which one of the following statements is false regarding the assessment of the patient with signs and symptoms suggestive of anxiety?
C. Evaluation directed towards the patient's "somatic locus" of anxiety provides little information to the clinician investigating the etiology of anxiety
Which one of the following seizure disorders causes the patient to lose mental consciousness of his/her surroundings and sometimes to just stare into space?
D. petit mal or absence seizure
Unconsciousness and tonic-clonic convulsions characterize
D. grand mal seizure
If seizure activity is prolonged (status epilepticus), generalized tonic-clonic seizures can lead to
E. all of the above
In general, which one of the following antidepressants is less likely to cause orthostatic hypotension and much less likely to produce anticholinergic effects (e.g. xerostomia)?
A. SSRIs
In older patients, organic brain syndrome is often associated with
A. Alzheimer's syndrome
Most neoplastic diseases develop from
D. a combination of all of the above factors
Which one of the following statements concerning head and neck malignancies is false?
C. Of the newly diagnosed cases of cancer each year, 1,250,000 are malignancies of the head and neck
A tumor less than 2 cm in diameter with no nodes and no metastasis if a
A. Stage I tumor and has a 90% 5-year survival rate
Which one of the following statements about radiotherapy is false?
A. Direct damage to DNA by radiation is common and results in the death of most malignant cells
The unit of absorbed dose used by radiation oncologists to measure the radiation dosage delivered to tissue and the energy absorbed by that tissue is (are)
E. Gray (Gy)
Which one of the following statement concerning the sensitivity of cells to radiation is false?
C. Cells with high sensitivity to radiation include muscle and nerve
Which of the following statements is true relative to the extraction of non-restorable teeth prior to the initiation of head and neck radiotherapy?
D. All of the statements are true
Which one of the following statements about bacterial infections of the oral cavity associated with chemotherapy is false?
C. The presence of the classic signs of inflammation is pathognomonic of bacterial infections in the myeloimmunosuppressed patient
Which of the following statements related to the prevention or treatment of odontogenic infections in myeloimmunosuppressed patients is (are) true?
E. All of the above statements are true
Which one of the following drugs alters the distribution and number of circulating lymphocytes, blocks the differentiation of monocytes to macrophages, suppresses antigen-induced IL-1 production by APCs and inhibits B lymphocytes function?
A. alkylating agents
Which of the following statements is (are) true relative to the mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides?
B. Digitalis inhibits the enzyme adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) in the membrane of cardiac muscle cells
Which of the following diuretics is the most effective for the treatment of congestive heart failure?
A. Loop diuretics (furosemide, bumetadine)
Fibrinogen and von Willebrand factor are the principle adhesive proteins that link adjacent platelets together by binding to
A. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
The result of daily administration of low doses of aspirin and other COX-1 inhibitors is the inhibition of
B. thromboxane A2 biosynthesis
Which of the prothrombin group coagulation factors are depressed by coumarin therapy?
E. All of the above
Oral anticoagulant therapy for patients with prosthetic heart valves is optimal when the INR is between
B. 2.5 and 3.5
Bleeding complications that occur when the INR is below 3.0 are frequently associated with concomitant