Barkley Notes

  1. Difference between IgG and IgM reponse
    IgG- Secondary response.  Creates larger titers, is faster and more effective than primary.

    IgM:  Primary reponse, low titers, slow response and short lasting.
  2. What is an ELISA test?
    An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, also called ELISA or EIA, is a test that detects and measures antibodies in your blood. This test can be used to determine if you have antibodies related to certain infectious conditions.
  3. For management of HIT, what class of drugs should be substituted as alternative forms of anticoagulation?
    Direct thrombin inhibitors

    • Danaparoid
    • Argatroban 2mcg/kg/min (PTT 1.5-3)
    • Bivalirudin (Angiomax)
    • Fondaparinus

    • Transition to warfarin when:
    • overlap with warfarin for INR goal
    • Plt is over 150
    • start 5 mg and target 2.0-3.0 INR
  4. Main cause of DIC?
    Infection - 10-20% Gram negative sepsis
  5. What is the most sensitive lab test for DIC?
    • D- dimer
    • sensitivity: is the ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive rate)
    • i.e. the percentage of sick people who are correctly identified as having the condition
  6. Which leukemia is known for pancytopenia with circulating blasts?  Constitutes 80% of child leukemias
    Acute lymphocytic leukemia
  7. The hallmark of this leukemia is pancytopenia with circulating blasts but granules are visible and there is the presensce of Auer rods. Bone tenderness to sternum and tibia.
    Acute myeloid leukemia
  8. Abnormal B lymphocyte and generalized lymphadenopathy characterize this leukemia.  It is the most common in older adults.
    Chronic lymphocytic leukemia


    • *lymphocytosis
    • *hypogammaglobulinemia
    • *watchful waiting
  9. This leukemia is characterized by myeloid cell overproduction and distiguished by the presnce of Philadelphia chromosome and fusion gene BCR/ABL protein.
    Chronic myelogenous leukemia

    • *ionizing radiation exposure risk
    • *WBC elevation
    • *increased LDH and uric acid
  10. What class is imatinib in?
    What toxicities does it have?
    tyrosine kinase inhibitor

    increased lfts, fluid retention, muscle cramping, skin rash, prolong QT, pulmonary HTN, or diarrhea
  11. This is classified from 90% of cases having painless, nontender cervical lymphadenopathy.
    Hodgkin Lymphoma
  12. Anergic skin reactions such as one being + TB test no - can happen with this disease
    Hodgkin lymph
  13. What are the most important prognostic factors in Hodgkin lymphoma?
    tumor bulk and stage
  14. What are the signs of superior vena caval obstruction/syndrome?
    • cyanosis
    • engorgement of neck veins
    • lack of lulsations
    • enlarged neck circumference
    • pericardial disease
    • tamponade
  15. Squamous cell carcinoma lesions of the lung is found:
    • Central lesions
    • cavitation
  16. Small cell carcinoma (SCC) lesions of the lung only are found
    central
  17. Peripheral lung cancer lesions are from:
    • adenocarcinoma
    • large cell carcinoma
    • bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma
  18. Chemo agents used for small cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lungs in limited stage.
    Extensive stage?
    cisplatin or carboplatin regimen with etoposide or irinotecan

    carboplatin or cisplatin and etoposide
  19. Screening tests beginning at age 50 for colorectal cancer:
    • Fecal occult blood testing (FOBT)
    • digital rectal examination (DRE)
    • flexible sigmoidoscopy
    • colonoscopy
    • double contrast barium enema
  20. Genetic mutations associated with breast CA are?
    • BRCA1
    • BRCA2
  21. Which herbs or medications can alter prostate-specific antigen, making it lower and giving false neg?
    • finasteride (Proscar)
    • androgen-receptor blocker
    • saw palmetto
    • PC-SPES
  22. What is the age specific ranges for normal PSA?
    • 40s- <2.5 ng/ml
    • 50s- <3.5
    • 60s- <4.5
    • 70s- <6.5
  23. What is the first line therapy for regional or metastatic prostate cancer?
    • Chemo- docetaxel
    • abiraterone acetate with prednisone or enzalutamid
  24. Reduced levels of serum carotene and serume retional are seen in patients with what form of cancer?
    Bladder
  25. common opportunistic infections with AIDS
    • Pneumocystis jiroveci
    • cryptosporidium parvum
    • candida albicans
  26. After exposure to the HIV virus, how long will it take before it is detected in an ELISA test?
    3 weeks to 6 months
  27. If ELISA is positive for HIV, what is the next confirmatory test?
    • Western blot
    • screens for antibodies against HIV

    HIV DNA may be checked by polymerase chair reaction
  28. What is the combination regimen for PrEP and who should take it?
    Tenofovir 300mg and Emtricitabine 200 mg/day

    sexually active men, adult injection drug users, partners of HIV
  29. Prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jiroveci with CD4 counts <200 with HIV?
    • Trimethobrim-sulfamethoxazole Bactrim DS 
    • or
    • aerosolized pentamidine 200 neb
    • >300 Cd4 counts for over 3 months you can stop ppx
  30. Fo mycobacterium avium prophylaxis in HIV with CD4 counts <50 give
    azithromycin 1200 mg weekly
  31. Giant cell
Author
courtneymarie
ID
342748
Card Set
Barkley Notes
Description
my notes from barkley
Updated