Joys NP

  1. Sensitivity Vs Specificity
    Sensitivity: True Positives; the degree to which those who have a disease screen/test positive

     

    Specificity: True Negative; the degree to which those who do not have a disease screen/test negative


    Sensitivity vs specificity… sensitivity is positive and specificity is negative. Know this backwards and forwards—like what would a high sensitivity say versus a low sensitivity, in about 3-4 of Phil’s questions. [SENSITIVITY: TRUE POSITIVES, THOSE WHO HAVE A DISEASE SCREEN/TEST POSITIVE. SPECIFICITY: TRUE NEGATIVES, THOSE WHO DO NOT HAVE A DISEASE SCREEN/TEST NEGATIVE]

    There was a question where a patient had a multinodular goiter and wanted to know why the NP was not going to do periodic U/S and Fine needle biopsy in monitoring for some kind of cancer or complication. The answer I picked was that these tests were not very specific to detect the cancer. Another option was specificity.

    [Initial screening should include TSH. Given the sensitive third-generation assays in the absence of symptoms of hyper or hypothyroidism further testing is not required. A study by Kelly et al indicated that in some patients with multinodular goiter, the risk of neoplasia can be effectively assessed with ultrasonography rather than with fine-needle aspiration biopsy.]
  2. Top 5 Killers of adults in the United States
    • Heart Disease (CAD)
    • Colorectal Cancer
    • Lower Respiratory disease
    • Unintentional accident
    • CVA stroke
  3. Cancer in women
    Responsible for the highest mortality?
    Leading GYN-associated cancer killer
    Highest incidence other than skin cancer?
    • Lung cancer
    • Ovarian cancer
    • Breast cancer
  4. Cancer in Men
    Responsible for the highest mortality
    Other than skin cancer, 2nd most common cancer in men and #2 cancer killer
    • Lung Cancer
    • Prostate cancer
  5. Combining cancer in men and women
    1 Leading cancer killer
    2 Second leading cancer killer
    • 1 Lung cancer
    • 2 Colorectal cancer
  6. What is the best way to advocate for change concerning disparities in your area as an ACNP

     
    Participate at a high state or national level
    Join a non-profit advocacy group
    Consider lobbying the government
    Start at your facility
    • Start at your facility
    • When initiating change, you always begin at the most local level and then progress upward and outward
    • Begin at hospital level, then community level, then the region, then the state, then national

    In treating patients, which comes first
  7. In most states, the NP must notify the Department of Health of the following 5 diagnosis:
    • Gonorrhea
    • Chlamydia
    • Syphilis
    • HIV
    • TB
  8. What are the key ethical principles?
    • Nonmaleficence: the duty to do no harm
    • Utilitarianism: the right act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number
    • Beneficence: The duty to prevent harm and promote good
    • Justice: The duty to be fair
    • Fidelity: the duty to be faithful
    • Veracity: the duty to be truthful
    • Autonomy: the duty to respect an individual’s thoughts and actions
  9. Which of the following is most important to evaluate statistical significance when reviewing the literature?

     
    a Consider the sample size
    b Make sure the confidence interval is tight
    c See if the p-value is less than the a-coefficient
    d Determine the error of state
    Consider the sample size

     

     

     

    •  
    • Level of significance: the probability level of which the results of statistical analyses are judged to indicate a statistically significant difference between groups
    • A small confidence interval implies a very precise range of values

    look at sample size & p value.
  10. Define Quality Assurance:
    1 Define Quality improvement/2 Define Continuous Process Improvement
    • 1 QA- A process for evaluating the care of patients using established standards of care to ensure quality
    • 2 CQI- quality can be improved by Continually monitoring structure, process, and outcome
  11. Continuous Process Improvement measures what three measures to improve nursing
    • Structure: inputs into care such as resources, equipment, or numbers and qualifications of staff
    • Processes of care: Include assessments, planning, performing treatments and managing complications
    • Outcomes: include complications, adverse events, short term results of treatment and long term results of patient health and functioning
  12. Goals set forth in Healthy people 2020 by the US department of health and human services include?
    • -Increase the quality and years of healthy life
    • -Eliminate health disparities among Americans
  13. Who is not required to follow HIPPA?
    • Law enforcement
    • Municipal offices
    • CPS/Schools
    • Employers/Workman’s comp
    • Life insurance

     

    • -Doc calls from another center asking if you can tell him what kind of orders he should give for maintenance of patient… HIPPA.
    • -Pt in ER not doing well, primary md calls: Give him info
    • -NP working on ESRD research project. A colleague renal specialist asks for pt info on your patients: HIPPA breach.
    • -Who enforces HIPPA- Office of Civil Rights / Health and Human Services
    • -Who ISN'T required to follow HIPPA? Law enforcement/Municipal Offices, CPS/Schools, Employers/Workman’s Comp, Life insurance
    • -Question about an insurance company calling to verify some patient appointments. You have to pick out that there is already a medical release signed by the patient. The answer is to give the requested information to them.
  14. An insurance company is calling to verify some patient appointments. What is the first thing to look for or ask before disclosing information?
    • Is there a medical release form signed by the patient?
    • If so, then give the requested information to them
  15. Define root cause analysis
    A tool for identifying prevention strategies to ensure safety… Why why why

     

    • very basic question where RCA is the answer and the question is the definition
    • RCA: tool for identifying prevention strategies to ensure safety, process to build a culture of safety & move beyond the culture of blame.
  16. There is a 60-year-old patient with a new diagnosis of cancer. To appropriately plan for discharge, what should the NP do?
    a Consult CM
    b Consult SW
    c Refer to oncology
    d Refer to hospice
    Consult case management

    •  
    • Case management- mobilize, monitor, and control resources that a patient uses during course of an illness while balancing quality and cost
    • (moves patient through the system appropriately)
  17. What does Medicare A cover?
    • -covers inpatient/hospitalization
    • -skilled nursing facility services
    • -home health services associated with inpatient event
    • -hospice associated with inpatient event
    • -Most individuals qualify to receive benefits at 65 years of age
  18. What does Medicare B cover?
    • -Covers physician services
    • -Outpatient hospital services
    • -Laboratory and diagnostic procedures
    • -Medical equipment
    • -Some home health services

    •  
    • -Medicare pays 80% of the patient’s bill for physician services and the patient pays 20%
    • -NPs and CNS receive 85% of physician reimbursement for services provided in collaboration with a physician
  19. What does Medicare C cover?
    • -A+B=C
    • -Medicare Advantage
    • -Patients entitled to Part A and enrolled in Part B, are eligible to receive all of their health care services through one of the provider organizations under part C (HMOs, PPOs, etc)
    • (no fee)
  20. Medicare D
    (MONTLY PREMIUM) Limited prescription DRUG coverage, with co-pay
  21. You notice there have been less favorable outcomes and satisfaction surveys in patients treated for sickle cell anemia. How do you approach this problem?
    a Ask the patients treated how care can be improved
    b Look back at prior treatment given to see how outcomes can be improved
    c Form a standardized Tx plans for all pts that can be used by all healthcare staff
    d Form individualized Tx plans that can be used by all healthcare staff
    • Form a standardized Tx plans for all pts that can be used by all healthcare staff

    •  
    • Think quality assurance – standards of care 
  22. You have transferred a pt to the SNF. The MD in charge at that facility calls for info about the pt’s medical care. What do you do?



    D

    Share the information he requests
  23. Your patient has refused human blood products based on religious beliefs. He is now rapidly destabilizing. What do you do?



    • C
    • Continue to research alternative treatments
  24. Discharge planning is underway for a pt who has been very debilitated after treatment for end-stage liver cancer. His wife is also debilitated and the children live out of state. What is the best choice?
    a Hospice
    b Home Health care
    c SNF
    d Private Duty RN
    C- SNF- Subacute nursing facility
  25. The medical resident obtained consent for an operative procedure. On your visit, the pt is confused/refusing the procedure.
    a Cancel the surgery
    b Have the wife sign another consent
    c Call the resident to clarify the patient was not confused when he signed the first consent
    d Consult neurology


    • - Call the resident to clarify the patient was not confused when he signed the first consent
    • Was the patient able to:
    • Communicate, understand, reason, differentiate
    • Remember CURD
  26. A code you are in does not go well, and staff members afterwards are criticizing each other. How do you deal with the situation?
    -Schedule an in-service to discuss common code mistakes
    -Meet with each team member individually
    set up exercises to increase collaboration during a code
    -Meet with all who participated in the code and have a one-time briefing
    Meet with all who participated in the code and have a one-time briefing

    •  
    • Risk management
    • Action taking initiatives
    • Correction and education
  27. Your patient is not doing well and family/wife is at bedside crying. You are preparing to talk to the family. What do you do first?
    -Place a social work consult
    -Explicitly explain the situation, the outcomes, and care involved.
    -Ask if the patient has an advanced directive
    -Set up a family meeting in a room with a specific time and date
    Ask if the patient has an advanced directive
  28. Appropriate level of physical exam documentation
    Problem focused
    Expanded problem focused
    • Problem focused: A limited examination of the affected body area or organ system
    • Expanded problem focused: A limited examination of the affected body area or organ system and any other symptomatic or related body areas or organ systems
  29. Appropriate level of physical exam documentation
    -Detailed
    -Comprehensive
    • Detailed: An extended examination of the affected body areas or organ system and any other symptomatic or related body area or organ system
    • Comprehensive: A general multi-system examination, or complete examination of a single organ system and other symptomatic or related body area or organ system
  30. What is the normal range for serum osmolality?

     

    What is the Normal Urine Sodium?
    And why do you check for it?

     

    What is the normal Urine specific gravity?
    Serum osmolality (usually2X NA) (275-295mosm/kg)

    •  
    • Urine Sodium (10 to 20mEq/L)

    •  
    • Distinguish renal from non-renal causes

    •  
    • Urine specific gravity (1.010 to 1.030)
  31. Urine sodium >20 suggest?

     

    Urine Sodium <10 suggest?
    • Urine NA >20 = renal salt wasting (problem with the kidneys
    • Urine NA<10 = renal retention of sodium to compensate for extra renal fluid losses (problem other than the kidneys)
  32. What is Hypotonic Hyponatremia

     
    Hypovolemic w/urine NA <10 mEq/L

     
    Hypovolemic w/urine NA>20 mEq/L
    • 1 water excess- results in low plasma osmolality, the extracellular fluid volume states may be low volume, normal volume, or high volume
    • 2 Hypovolemic w/urine NA <10 mEq/L
    • Dehydration, Diarrhea, vomiting

    • 3.Hypovolemic w/urine NA>20 mEq/L
    • Low volume and kidneys cannot conserve Na
    • Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, Mineralocorticoid deficiency
  33. 1 Hypervolemic, hypotonic hyponatremia

     
    2 Hypertonic Hyponatremia
    • 1.Hypervolemic, hypotonic hyponatremia
    • Need to restrict water
    • Edematous states, CHF, Liver disease, Advance renal failure

    • 2.Hypertonic Hyponatremia
    • Serum osmolality >290 mosm/kg
    • Hyperglycemia: Usually from HHNK
    • Osmolality is high and the Na is low
  34. What is the management of Hyponatremia?
    • Treat based on cause
    • Treat underlying condition
    • If hypovolemic, give NS IV
    • If urine sodium>20, treat cause
    • If hypervolemic, implement water restriction
    • If the patient is symptomatic, give NS IV with a loop diuretic
    • If CNS symptoms are present, consider 3% NS IV with loop diuretics
  35. Causes of hypernatremia

     

    What is the management of hypernatremia?
    • Usually due to excess water loss; always indicates hyperosmolality (ie water deficit of water). Excess sodium intake is rare
    • Severe hypernatremia with hypovolemia should be treated with NS IV followed by ½ NS
    • Hypernatremia with euvolemia should be treated with free water (D5W)
    • Hypernatremia with hypervolemia should be treated with free water and loop diuretics, may need dialysis
  36. Hypokalemia
    Causes of Hypokalemia

     
    Related signs and symptoms

     
    Laboratory/diagnosis
    • Causes
    • chronic use of diuretics,
    • GI loss, excess renal loss and alkalosis.
    • Elevated serum epi in trauma pts may contribute to hypokalemia
    • Signs/symptoms
    • Muscular weakness, fatigue and muscle cramps, constipation or ileus due to smooth muscle involvement
    • If sever (K<2.5mEq/L), may see flaccid paralysis, tetany, hyperreflexia and rhabdomyolysis (check cK)
    • Laboratory/Diagnosis

    Decreased amplitude on ECG, broad T waves, Prominent U waves, PVCs, V-tach, or V-fib
  37. Management of Hypokalemia
    • Oral replacement if >2.5 mEq and no ECG abnormalities
    • IV replacement at 10 mEq/hr if cannot take p.o.
    • If <2.5mEq or severe signs/symptoms are present, give 40mEq/L/hr IV-check q3hrs and institute continuous ECG monitoring
    •     Mg++ deficiency frequently impairs K+ correction
  38. Hyperkalemia
    Causes

     
    Related signs and symptoms

     
    Laboratory/diagnosis
    • Causes include excess intake, renal failure, drugs (ie NSAIDs) hypoaldosteronism, and cell death. Shifts of intracellular K+ to the extracellular space occure with acidosis
    • K+ increases 0.7mEq/L with each 0.1 drop in pH
    • Signs/symptoms :
    • Weakness, flaccid paralysis, abd distention, diarrhea
    • Laboratory/diagnosis :– Tall Peaked waves
  39. Management of Hyperkalemia
    • Exchange resins (Kayexalate)
    • As the resin passes through the gastrointestinal tract, the resin removes the potassium ions by exchanging it for sodium ions.
    • If K+>6.5mEq/L or cardiac toxicity or muscle paralysis is present, consider:
    • Insulin 10 U with one amp D50 (pushes K+ into the cell)
  40. What is the normal total calcium?
    What is the normal Ionized calcium?
    • Total calcium= 2.2-2.6mmol/L (8.5-10.5mg/dl)
    • ionized calcium= 1.1-1.4mmol/L (4.5-5.5mg/dl)
  41. What is the relationship between Ionized calcium and albumin levels?
    • it is useful to measure the ionized calcium level when the serum albumin is not within normal range
    • The amt of total calcium varies with the level of serum albumin
    • 50% of calcium is bound to albumin, a normal calcium level in the presence of a low albumin level suggest the patient it hypercalcemic
    • Corrected calcium (mg/dl) =measured total Ca (mg/dl) + 0.8
    •     Or 4.0 – serum albumin
    •         0 represents the avg albumin level
  42. Hypocalcemia
    Causes

     
    Related signs and symptoms

     
    Laboratory/diagnosis
    • causes include hypoparathyrodism, hypomagnesemia, pancreatitis, renal failure, severe trauma, and multiple blood transfusion
    • signs and symptoms – think overdrive. Increased DTRs, muscle/abd cramps, Trousseau’s/chvostek’s sign, convulsion,
    • 3. Laboratory/diagnosis: prolonged QT interval
  43. Management of Hypocalcemia
    • Check pH – look for alkalosis
    • Check PTH and mg levels
    • If acute, IV calcium gluconate
    • If chronic, oral supplements, vit D, aluminum hydroxide
  44. Hypercalcemia
    Causes

     Related signs and symptoms
    • Causes include hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, Vit D intoxication, prolonged immobilization,
    • Signs and symptoms – think sluggish
    • Fatigue, muscle weakness, depression, anorexia, N/V, constipation
    • Severe hypercalcemia can cause coma and death
    • Serum Ca++ >12 is considered a medical emergency
  45. pH< 7.35 with pCO2>45 indicates?
    And what are the causes?
    S/S
    Laboratory/diagnostics
    • Respiratory acidosis
    • Causes: Results from decreased alveolar ventilation – decrease RR
    • Signs and symptoms
    • Somnolence and confusion, coma, hand tremors with contraction/jerking of muscles, increased ICP
    • Lab
    • pH<7.35, pCO2>45mmHg, Serum HCO>26mEq/L
    • low serum chloride(<93) in chronic patients
  46. Management of Respiratory Acidosis
    • Narcan – 0.04 to 2mg
    • Improve ventilation, intubate if necessary (GCS<8)
    • Increase rate on ventilator
  47. pH> 7.45 with pCO2<35 indicates?
    And what are the causes?
    S/S
    Laboratory/diagnostics
    • Respiratory Alkalosis
    • Causes: Hyperventilation decreases arterial pCO2 and increase pH.
    • Signs/symptoms
    • Decreased cerebral blood flow ->decrease ICP
    • Light-headedness, anxiety, paresthesia, stoking glove tingling, tetany if very severe
    • Lab
    • pH>7.45, pCO2<35, HCO3 low if chronic
  48. Management of Respiratory Alkalosis
    • Manage underlying cause
    • If acute hyperventilation syndrome, have patient breath into a paper bag
    • Decrease rate of ventilator as needed
    • Sedation may be necessary
    • Rapid correction of chronic alkalosis may result in metabolic acidosis
  49. Hallmark sign of metabolic acidosis?

    How do you evaluate the cause for tx of metabolic acidosis
    • Hallmark sign is low serum HCO3
    • Measurement of anion gap lends some clues toward evaluating the cause and considering treatments
  50. How do you measure the Anion gap?

    And how do you determine if Metabolic acidosis is acute?
    Anion gap = [(Na+) + (K+)] – (HCO3 + Cl-)

    •  
    • If the anion gap increased, the clinical situation is generally more acute
  51. Increased Anion gap indicates
    Normal Anion gap indicates
    • Increased Anion gap
    • DKA
    • Alcoholic KA
    • Lactic acidosis
    • Drug or chemical anion
    • Normal Anion gap
    • Diarrhea
    • Ileostomy
    • Renal tubular acidosis
    • Recovery from DKA
  52. Management/Treatment for increased and normal Anion gap
    • Increased gap
    • Underlying disorder must be treated
    • Fluid resuscitation
    • HCO3 generally not indicated if acidosis is due to hypoxia or DKA
    • HCO3 is indicated if significant hyperkalemia is present
    • Normal gap
    • Bicitra 10-30cc with meals and h.s.
    • This is citric acid/sodium citrate used to make urine less acidic to prevent metabolic acidosis
  53. Metabolic Alkalosis is characterized by?
    Causes?
    Signs and symptoms
    Lab/diagnostics
    • Characterized by high plasma HCO3 and compensatory pCO2 rarely exceeds 55mmHg
    • If pCO2 is >55mmHg, superimposed resp acidosis is likely
    • Causes- post hypercapnia alkalosis, NG suction, vomiting, diuretics
    • S/S- weakness and hyporeflexia may be present if K+ is very low
    • Labs – pH >7.45, HCO3>26, pCO2>45
    • Serum K+ and Cl is decreased
    • May see increased anion gap
  54. Management of Metabolic Alkalosis
    • Correct volume deficit with NaCl and KCL
    • Discontinue diuretics
    • H2 blockers in patients with GI loss
    • Acetazolamide 250-500mg IV q4-6hrs if volume replacement is contraindicated
    •     Diamox is a water pill the helps patient pee out bicarbonate
  55. What is the Adult Rule of Nine for measuring extent of burn injury?
    • Each arm = 9%
    • Each leg = 18%
    • Thorax – 18%
    • Back = 18%
    • Head = 9%
    • Perineum/genitals = 1%
  56. What are the categories of burns?
    • First degree= Dry, red, no blisters, epidermis only
    • 2nd degree (partial thickness) = moist, blisters beyond epidermis
    • 3rd degree (full thickness) = dry, leathery, black, pearly, waxy; extends from epidermis to dermis to underlining tissues, fat, muscle and/or bone
  57. What is the management of burns?
    • prophylactic intubation if there are:
    • burns to face,
    • singed nares or eyebrows
    • dark soot/mucous from nares and/or mouth
    • Fluid resuscitation 4ml/kg X TBSA (total body surface area) during first 24hrs
    • General rule ½ of all the fluid requirement needed during the first 24 hrs are administered with the first 8hrs of injury
    • Maintain normal temp (37-37.5C)
  58. A 42 yr old F is brought to ED after spilling a pot of boiling water on her arms and chest. On exam you see that burned skin is broken, swollen with edema, and covered in blisters. She rates pain as “extremely painful.” You determine that the pt has burns over 20% of her TBSA. Which of the following most accurately describes the pts burn?


    1st degree burn
    Full thickness burn
    Partial thickness burn
    3rd degree burn
    Partial thickness
  59. When do you need to transfer burns?
    • facial involvement
    • 2nd degree burn/partial thickness >10% TBSA
    • face, hands, feet genitalia, perineum, or major burns
    • 3rd degree
    • electric, inhalation, and chemical
  60. How do you treat bulls eye rash?
    • Lyme disease rash
    • Caused by a bite of a tick
    • Usually identified by Erythema Margins and Bullseye rash
    • Treatment
    •      Doxycycline or Oral amoxicillin
    •      Typically resolves in about 1-2weeks with tx
  61. 58yo Japanese M with CP 4/10 for 3 hours, reluctant to answer questions. Which of the following in the ED warrant admission?
    Age
    Gender
    Pain level
    Ethnicity
    Ethnicity (underestimates pain, taught to be stoic. Pain is probably much more severe)
  62. The patient has been in a bar fight and has a human bite on his hand. What should you do next?
    Order PO abx
    Order wound culture
    Order IV abx
    Measure the wound depth and width
    Order PO Abx
  63. Your pt has been taking Thorazine and now has fever, sweating, lethargy, and a temp of 39.4 (102.92):
    Give IVF
    Antipyretic
    Abx
    Ice packs to groin and axilla
    Give IVF (flush it out. This is neuroleptic malignant syndrome)
  64. Your patient has a fever 3 days post op, WBC are 15,000, Blood Cx (-), and Eos 9%. What is the dx?
    Viral infxn
    Bacterial infxn
    Malignant hyperthermia
    Drug fever
    Drug fever (eos – allergic rxn. Normal is 1-4%)

    Eosinophils are a type of disease-fighting white blood cell. This condition most often indicates a parasitic infection, an allergic reaction or cancer. You can have high levels of eosinophils in your blood (blood eosinophilia) or in tissues at the site of an infection or inflammation
  65. Dietary protein intake recommended for critically ill patients receiving TF/TPN is based on nitrogen balance. What does this mean?
    • The concept of nitrogen balance is the difference btw nitrogen intake and loss reflects gain or loss of total body protein.
    • If more nitrogen (protein) is given to the patient than lost, the patient is considered to be anabolic or “in positive nitrogen balance”. If more nitrogen is lost than given, the patient is considered to be catabolic or “in negative nitrogen balance”.
    • A nitrogen balance within −4 or −5 g/day to +4 or +5 g/day is usually considered “nitrogen equilibrium”.
    • Maintain nitrogen balance along with metabolic needs
  66. Which electrolyte are you most concerned about monitoring in a cachexic patient?
    Mag
    Ca
    Na
    K+
    K+ (refeeding syndrome. hypokalemia. also hypophosphatemia)

    Refeeding syndrome is clinical complications from fluid and electrolyte shifts during aggressive nutritional rehab of malnourished patients:  hypophos, hypokal, vitamin def., CHF, peripheral edema, rhabdo, seizures, hemolysis
  67. Which electrolyte do you monitor in Refeeding Syndrome?
    Mag
    Ca
    Na
    Phos
    • Phos (refeeding syndrome. hypokalemia. also hypophosphatemia)
    • Hypophosphatemia more relevant during refeeding
  68. Which lab do you monitor daily in a patient on nutritional supplements?
    BMP
    CBC
    ABG
    Blood Cx
    BMP (And monitor LFTs weekly)
  69. What two types of headaches can be treated with triptans
    Migraines and cluster headaches

    sumatriptan, almotriptan, zolmitriptan...
  70. Best alternative therapy to decrease pain in clavicle fracture
    Therapeutic touch/reiki
  71. The patient has had a dog bite and 3 doses of Tetanus in the past. The NP knows the recommendation for tetanus is that the:
    patient gets a booster if they have a dirty wound and haven’t had a tetanus shot in five years.
  72. The most common cause of hyponatremic hyperosmolality?
    Hyperglycemia
    Hyperthyroidism
    Adrenal insufficiency
    K-sparing diuretics
    Hyperglycemia (usually from HHNK

    Serum osmolality >290
  73. Your patient has a serum osmolality of 268 mOsm/kg and a serum sodium of 134 mEq/L. His urine has Na+ less than 10 mEq/L. You know that all of the following are possible explanations except:
    Diarrhea
    Diuretics (Na<10 is nonrenal cause. Diuretics are associated with renal cause, Urine Na >20)
    Dehydration
    Vomiting
    Diuretics

    (Na<10 is nonrenal cause. Diuretics are associated with renal cause, Urine Na >20)
  74. A 61 yr old F c/o fatigue, muscle weakness, and constipation. She adds that she had felt her heart beating “abnormally” and she has been experiencing muscle spasms on occasion. You order and EKG and find decreased amplitude and broad T waves. Occasionally you also note prominent U waves. Of the following, which is the most likely Dx?
    Hypokalemia
    Hyperkalemia
    Hypocalcemia
    Hypermagnesemia
    • Hypokalemia
    • \

    • Lab/diagnostics
    • Decreased amplitude on ECG
    • Broad T waves
    • Prominent U waves
    • PVCa, V-tach, or V-fib
  75. Type 1 DM patho
    Signs and symptoms
    Labs
    Management
    • Insulin dependent/juvenile diabetes.
    •     Ketone development usually occurs
    • Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
    • FBG >126 on 2 separate occasions, Hgb A1c >7, elevated BUN/Creatinine, Ketonemia, Ketonuria
    • Ketones = insulin therapy 0.5 u/kg/day
  76. Type 2 DM patho
    Signs and symptoms
    Labs
    Management
    • Adult onset, circulating insulin exists enough to prevent ketoacidosis, but is inadequate to meet pt insulin needs
    •     Associated with metabolic syndrome
    • Polyuria, polydipsia, recurrent vaginitis in women
    • No ketones in blood/urine
    • Oral antidiabetic medication- glipizide
  77. What is the somogyi effect

     

    How do you treat it?
    Happens when the patient is hypoglycemic at 0300 but rebounds with an elevated blood glucose at 0700

     

    Tx: reduce or omit the at bedtime dose of insulin
  78. What is the Dawn Phenomenon?

     

    How do you treat it?
    Results when tissue becomes desensitized to insulin nocturnally. The blood glucose becomes progressively elevated throughout the night, resulting in elevated glucose levels at 0700

     

     

    Add or increase the at bedtime dose of insulin
  79. DKA patho
    Signs and symptoms
    Labs
    Management
    • State of intracellular dehydration as a result of elevated blood glucose levels. Acute complication of type 1 DM
    • Kussmaul breathing, Altered LOC, fruity breath
    • Serum glucose >250, acidosis <7.30, low HCO3, pCO2, hyperkalemia,
    • NS at least 1L, ½ NS, then D5 ½ NS, IV insulin 0.1u/Kg/hr
  80. HHNK patho
    Signs and symptoms
    Labs
    Management
    • Usually occurs as a complication of type 2 DM, pts cannot produce enough insulin to prevent severe hyperglycemia, osmotic diuresis and extracellular fluid depletion
    • Polyuria, changes in LOC, hypotension, tachycardia
    • Serum glucose >600, Osmo>310, elevated Hgb A1c, normal pH
    • NS IV for massive fluid replacement (6-10L), then ½ NS, followed by D5 ½ NS
  81. Hyperthyroidism cause/etiology
    Signs and symptoms
    Lab
    Management
    • Onset most commonly btw 20-40 yrs of age, Grave’s disease is the most common presentation
    • Everything is increased-weight loss, heat intolerance
    • Low TSH, elevated T3, T4
    • Propranolol for symptomatic relief, radioactive iodine used to destroy goiters
  82. Hypothyroidism cause/etiology
    Signs and symptoms
    Lab
    Management
    • Cause/Etiology: Pituitary deficiency of TSH- known as hashimoto’s thyroiditis
    • S/S: Everything slows down-weight gain, cold intolerance
    • Labs: High TSH, Low T3 and T4 (T4 can be normal)
    • Mgmt: Levothyroxine 50-100 mcg qday 1-2 weeks until symptoms stabilize; > 60 years of age decrease dosage
  83. What is the treatment of thyroid crisis?
    Thyroid crisis/storm is a result of untreated hyperthyroidism

     

    Tx- is anti-thyroid It works by decreasing the amount of thyroid hormone produced by the thyroid gland and blocking the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3).

     

    Propylhiouracil 150-250mg q6hrs OR Methimazole 15-25mg q6 with other instructions

                                    -i.e propranolol 0.5-2gm IV q4 or PO 20-120mg q6
  84. What is the treatment for Myxedema Coma?
    Myxedema Coma is a state of decompensated hypothyroidism

    •  
    • Protect airway: Mechanical vent as needed
    • Fluid replacement, as needed
    • Levothyroxine 400mcg IV X1, then 100 mcg qday
    • Support hypotension
    • Slow rewarming with blankets (not hyperthermia blankets): avoid circulatory collapse
    • Symptomatic care
  85. Cushing’s syndrome cause/etiology
    Signs and symptoms
    Lab
    Management
    • Cause: ACTH hypersecretion by the pituritary or chronic administration of glucocorticoids
    • SS: Moon face with buffalo hump
    • Labs: Hyperglycemia, Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, Leukocytosis, elevated plasma cortisol in the a.m.
    • Tx: Depends on the cause
    •    D/C medication inducing symptoms
    •    Transphenoidal resection of a pituritary adenoma
    •    Surgical removal of adrenal tumors
    •    Resection of ACTH secreting tumors
    •    Manage electrolyte balance
  86. Addison’s disease cause/etiology
    Signs and symptoms
    Lab
    Management
    • Causes/itiology: Deficient cortisol, androgens and aldosterone, pituitary failure resulting in decreased ACTH
    • S/S: Hyperpigmentation in buccal mucosa and skin creases (especially knuckles, nail beds, nipples, palmar creases, and posterior neck)
    • Labs: Hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, plasma cortisol <5mcg/dl @0800, cosyntropin
    • Mgmt: Glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement
    •     Inpatient- Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100-300 mg IV initially with NS; replace volume with D5NS at 500cc/hr X4 hrs and then taper per condition
  87. SIADH cause/etiology
    Signs and symptoms
    Lab
    • Cause: Release of ADH occurs independent of osmolality or volume dependent stimulation
    •     Inappropriate Water retention, Tumor production of ADH, Skull fractures/head trauma
    • S/S: Neurologic changes from hyponatremia, hypothermia, headache, seizures, decreased DTRs
    • Labs: Hyponatremia-yet euvolemic, decreased serum osmolality <280, increased urine osmolality >100, urine NA >20
  88. Management of SIADH
    Treat underlying cause

    - If serum Na >120 restrict total fluids to 1000ml/24

    - If serum Na 110-120 without neuro symptoms, restrict 500ml/24h

    - If serum Na <110 or neuro symptoms present, replace with isotonic or hypertonic saline and Lasix at 1-2mEq/h, monitor NA, K+ losses hourly and replace
  89. Diabetes Insipidus cause/etiology
    Can be related to Central or Nephrogenic

    • Central: related to pituritary or hypothalamus damage resulting in ADH deficiency
    • Nephrogenic: due to defect in the renal tubules resulting in renal insensitivity to ADH
  90. Diabetes Insipidus

     
    Signs and symptoms
    Lab
    Management
    • S/S: Thirst/cravings for water (fluid intake 5-20L/day), polyuria (2-20L/day), weight loss, fatigue, changes in LOC
    • Labs: Hypernatremia, Elevated BUN/Cr, serum osmo>290, Urin Osmo<100, urine specific gravity low <1.005.
    •     -Vasopressin challenge test is positive in central DI and negative in Nephrogenic DI
    • Mgmt: If serum Na>150 give D5W IV to replace ½ volume deficit in 12-24hrs – rapid lowering can cause cerebral edema
    • When Na <150 substitute ½ or .9NS
    • DDAVP 1-4ug IV or SQ q12-24hrs for acute situations
    • Maintenance dose of DDAVP is 10 q12-24hrs intra nasally
  91. What is pheochromocytoma

     

    What are the signs and symptoms?
    Is a rare but serious disease resulting from excess catecholamine release characterized by paroxysmal or sustained hypertension; almost always due to a tumor of the adrenal medulla

     

    S/S- labile Hypertension, diaphoresis, hyperglycemia, severe headaches, palpitations, tremor, tachycardia, weight loss, postural hypotension
  92. Pheochromocytoma

     
    Lab/diagnostics
    Management
    • Lab/ Diagnostics: Plasma free metanephrienes –used to help detect or rule out tumor – (fastest test)
    • TSH is normal, CT of adrenals used to confirm and localize tumor
    • Assay of urine 24hr collection-
    • Mgmt: Surgical removal of tumor is treatment of choice
    • Treat symptoms
  93. Heart Sounds and Anatomical Location
    S1
    S2
    Systole
    Diastole
    • S1-closure of Mitral/tricuspid (AV)valves, opening of aortic/pulmonic (similumar) valves
    • S2-closure of aortic/pulmonic valves, opening of mitral/tricuspid valves
    • Systole-is period between S1 and S2
    • Diastole- is period between S2 and S1
  94. When do you hear S3?
    When do you hear S4?
    • S3: “Ken-Tuck-y” this happen with increased fluid status
    • e CHF or pregnancy
    • S4: “Ten-ne-ssee” this happens with there are stiff ventricular walls
    • e MI, left ventricular hypertrophy, chronic hypertension


  95. What are the stages of Murmurs?
    1/6=Barely audible

    2/6=Audible but faint

    3/6=Moderately loud; easily heard

    4/6=Loud; associated with a thrill

    5/6=Very loud; heard with one corner of stethoscope off the chest wall

    6/6=Loudest
  96. list location and sound of Mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation
    • Mitral stenosis:
    • Mid-diastolic; apical “crescendo” rumble
    • Loud S1 murmur
    • Low pitched
    • Mitral regurgitation:
    • S3 with systolic murmur at 5th ICS MCL(apex)
    • May radiate to the base or left axilla
    • Musical, blowing, or high pitched
  97. list location and sound of Aortic stenosis and Aortic regurgitation
    • Aortic Stenosis
    • Systolic, blowing harsh murmur at 2nd right ICS
    • Usually radiating to the neck
    • Aortic regurgitation
    • Diastolic, blowing murmur at 2nd left ICS
  98. What are the different types of heart failure
    • Systolic HF: inability to contract results in decreased CO
    • Diastolic HF: inability to relax and fill results in decreased CO
    • Acute HF: abrupt onset usually follows acute MI or valve rupture
    • Chronic HF: develops as a result of inadequate compensatory mechanisms that have been employed over time to improve CO
  99. What are the signs and symptoms of Acute HF
    • Acute HF is Left sided HF
    •    Dyspnea at rest
    •    Coarse rales over all lung fields
    •    Wheezing frothy cough
    •    Appears generally healthy except for the acute event
    •    S3 gallop
    •    Murmur of mitral regurgitation (systolic murmur loudest at the apex)
  100. What are the signs and symptoms of Chronic HF?
    • Chronic HF is right sided HF
    • JVD
    • Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
    • Dependent edema: as a result of increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
    • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
    • Appears chronically ill
    • Abd fullness
    • Displaced PMI
    • Fatigue on exertion
    • S3 and/or S4
  101. List HF classification and Manifestations per New York Heart Association (NYHA)
    Class 1: No limitation of physical activity

    Class 2: slight limits of physical activity but comfortable at rest (fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or angina)

    Class 3: Marked limits of physical activity but comfortable at rest – 3 pillows

    Class 4: Severe; inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort (signs and symptoms while at rest)
  102. Lab/diagnostics for Heart Failure
    • Hypoxemia and hypocapnia on ABG
    • BMP usually normal unless chronic failure is present
    • U/A
    • CXR=pulmonary edema, kerley B lines, effusion
    • ECHO=will show contractile/relaxation, valve fx, EF
    • ECG=my show underlying Problem-Acute MI, dysrhythmia
    • PFT for wheezing during exercise
  103. Management of Heart Failure
    • Non-Pharmacologic
    • Na restriction
    • Rest/activity balance
    • Weight reduction

    • Pharmacologic
    • ACE inhibitors
    • Diuretics: Thiazide, loop
    • Anticoagulation therapy for A-fib
  104. In-patient management of Acute Pulmonary Edema
    • 02 at 1-2L while awaiting ABG
    • place in sitting position
    • Morphine 2-4mg IVP PRN
    • Lasix 40mg IVP repeat 10 mins if no response
    • If severe bronchospasm present give inhaled bronchodilator
    • If severe, afterload and preload reduction with nipride and hydralazine
    • If CI remains low, dobutamine 2.5-20ug/kg/min;
    •     if SBP<100 dopamine 5-20ug/kg/min is preferred
  105. What are the JNC7 classification Guidelines for HTN

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  106. JNC8 emphasizes thresholds, what are they
    Image Upload 4

  107. HTN treatment recommendation for non-African-American
    HTN tx rec for African American
    HTN tx rec for Adults>18 with CKD with or without diabetes
    • Non-African-American
    •    Thiazide Diuretics (screen for sulfa allergy, monitor lytes)
    •    Calcium channel blockers (monitor HR, may cause HA, flushing, or bradycardia)
    •     ACE1 (avoid ARB, avoid with K+>5.5)
    •     ARB (avoid ACE, contraindicated in pregnancy, avoid K+>5.5)
    • African American
    •     Thiazide diuretics (increases excretion of Na & H2O)
    •     CCB
    • Adult>18 with CKD with or without diabetes
    •     ACE (causes vasodilation, blocks Na and water retention)
    •     ARB
    •     Regardless of race or other medical condition
  108. What is the recommended treatment Goals for HTN?
    • Treatment goal for initial treatment is 1 month:
    • Increase dose or add second drug
    • Continue to assess monthly until goal is reached
    • Do not use an ACE1 and ARB together
    • Refer to hypertensive specialist if 3 or more drugs are needed
  109. What is Hypertensive Urgency?

    What is the management?
    • BP > 180/110 without progressive target organ dysfunction
    •     -May or may not be associated with severe HA, SOB, nose bleed, or severe anxiety

    • Management –oral therapies
    • Clonidine (catapress)- preprevents vasoconstriction, causes vasodilation, and slow HR. Do not D/C abruptly=rebound HTN
    • Captopril (Capoten)-
    • Nifedipine (Procardia)
    • Loop diuretics
  110. What is Hypertensive Emergency?

    What is the management?
    • BP >180/120 with target organ dysfunction
    • May occur at a lower BP if complicated by evidence of impending or progressive target organ dysfunction

    • Management- IV agents, critical care, art line needed
    • BP should be lowered to 160-180 systolic or to less than 105 diastolic (no more than 25% within minutes to 1-2hrs) and then gradually lowered over several days with oral therapy
    • Common agents- Nicardipine, Nipride
  111. List examples that could cause Hypertensive Emergency
    • Malignant Hypertension
    • Hypertensive encephalopathy
    • Intracranial hemorrhage
    • Unstable angina
    • Acute MI
    • Acute LV failure with pulmonary edema
    • Dissecting aortic aneurysm
    • Eclampsia
  112. What is Angina?

    What are the different types?
    Angina- decreased blood flow through the vessel that leads to tissue ischemia

     

    • Types:
    •    Stable (classic or chronic) occurs with physical activity
    • Prinzmetal’s (variant) occurs at various times, even rest
    • Unstable (pre-infarction, rest or crescendo, coronary syndrome)
    • Microvascular (metabolic syndrome)
  113. What is metabolic syndrome
    • Metabolic syndrome
    • is a cluster of conditions — increased blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol or triglyceride levels — that occur together, increasing your risk of heart disease, stroke and diabetes.
  114. What are the physical exam findings of Angina?

    Signs and symptoms of Angina
    • Physical Exam Findings
    •     May see signs of peripheral arterial disease
    •     Levine’s sign= Clenched fist sign
    •     Transient S4 not uncommon during angina

    • Signs and symptoms
    •     Characteristic chest discomfort lasting several min
    •     Exertional is usually precipitated by physical activity; subsides with rest
    •     Nitroglycerin shortens or prevents attacks
  115. Lab and diagnostic findings for Angina
    • ECG may be normal- with down sloping or ST segment, or T-wave peak or inversion
    • Exercise ECG
    • Serum lipid levels should be elevated
    • Coronary angiography is the definitive diagnostic procedure but not indicated solely for diagnosis
  116. What are the normal Serum lipid levels?
    Total
Author
courtneymarie
ID
342734
Card Set
Joys NP
Description
joys np
Updated