Sensitivity: True Positives; the degree to which those who have a disease screen/test positive
Specificity: True Negative; the degree to which those who do not have a disease screen/test negative
Sensitivity vs specificity… sensitivity is positive and specificity is negative. Know this backwards and forwards—like what would a high sensitivity say versus a low sensitivity, in about 3-4 of Phil’s questions. [SENSITIVITY: TRUE POSITIVES, THOSE WHO HAVE A DISEASE SCREEN/TEST POSITIVE. SPECIFICITY: TRUE NEGATIVES, THOSE WHO DO NOT HAVE A DISEASE SCREEN/TEST NEGATIVE]
There was a question where a patient had a multinodular goiter and wanted to know why the NP was not going to do periodic U/S and Fine needle biopsy in monitoring for some kind of cancer or complication. The answer I picked was that these tests were not very specific to detect the cancer. Another option was specificity.
[Initial screening should include TSH. Given the sensitive third-generation assays in the absence of symptoms of hyper or hypothyroidism further testing is not required. A study by Kelly et al indicated that in some patients with multinodular goiter, the risk of neoplasia can be effectively assessed with ultrasonography rather than with fine-needle aspiration biopsy.]
Top 5 Killers of adults in the United States
Heart Disease (CAD)
Colorectal Cancer
Lower Respiratory disease
Unintentional accident
CVA stroke
Cancer in women
Responsible for the highest mortality?
Leading GYN-associated cancer killer
Highest incidence other than skin cancer?
Lung cancer
Ovarian cancer
Breast cancer
Cancer in Men
Responsible for the highest mortality
Other than skin cancer, 2nd most common cancer in men and #2 cancer killer
Lung Cancer
Prostate cancer
Combining cancer in men and women
1 Leading cancer killer
2 Second leading cancer killer
1 Lung cancer
2 Colorectal cancer
What is the best way to advocate for change concerning disparities in your area as an ACNP
Participate at a high state or national level
Join a non-profit advocacy group
Consider lobbying the government
Start at your facility
Start at your facility
When initiating change, you always begin at the most local level and then progress upward and outward
Begin at hospital level, then community level, then the region, then the state, then national
In treating patients, which comes first
In most states, the NP must notify the Department of Health of the following 5 diagnosis:
Gonorrhea
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HIV
TB
What are the key ethical principles?
Nonmaleficence: the duty to do no harm
Utilitarianism: the right act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number
Beneficence: The duty to prevent harm and promote good
Justice: The duty to be fair
Fidelity: the duty to be faithful
Veracity: the duty to be truthful
Autonomy: the duty to respect an individual’s thoughts and actions
Which of the following is most important to evaluate statistical significance when reviewing the literature?
a Consider the sample size
b Make sure the confidence interval is tight
c See if the p-value is less than the a-coefficient
d Determine the error of state
Consider the sample size
Level of significance: the probability level of which the results of statistical analyses are judged to indicate a statistically significant difference between groups
A small confidence interval implies a very precise range of values
1 QA- A process for evaluating the care of patients using established standards of care to ensure quality
2 CQI- quality can be improved by Continually monitoring structure, process, and outcome
Continuous Process Improvement measures what three measures to improve nursing
Structure: inputs into care such as resources, equipment, or numbers and qualifications of staff
Processes of care: Include assessments, planning, performing treatments and managing complications
Outcomes: include complications, adverse events, short term results of treatment and long term results of patient health and functioning
Goals set forth in Healthy people 2020 by the US department of health and human services include?
-Increase the quality and years of healthy life
-Eliminate health disparities among Americans
Who is not required to follow HIPPA?
Law enforcement
Municipal offices
CPS/Schools
Employers/Workman’s comp
Life insurance
-Doc calls from another center asking if you can tell him what kind of orders he should give for maintenance of patient… HIPPA.
-Pt in ER not doing well, primary md calls: Give him info
-NP working on ESRD research project. A colleague renal specialist asks for pt info on your patients: HIPPA breach.
-Who enforces HIPPA- Office of Civil Rights / Health and Human Services
-Who ISN'T required to follow HIPPA? Law enforcement/Municipal Offices, CPS/Schools, Employers/Workman’s Comp, Life insurance
-Question about an insurance company calling to verify some patient appointments. You have to pick out that there is already a medical release signed by the patient. The answer is to give the requested information to them.
An insurance company is calling to verify some patient appointments. What is the first thing to look for or ask before disclosing information?
Is there a medical release form signed by the patient?
If so, then give the requested information to them
Define root cause analysis
A tool for identifying prevention strategies to ensure safety… Why why why
very basic question where RCA is the answer and the question is the definition
RCA: tool for identifying prevention strategies to ensure safety, process to build a culture of safety & move beyond the culture of blame.
There is a 60-year-old patient with a new diagnosis of cancer. To appropriately plan for discharge, what should the NP do?
a Consult CM
b Consult SW
c Refer to oncology
d Refer to hospice
Consult case management
Case management- mobilize, monitor, and control resources that a patient uses during course of an illness while balancing quality and cost
(moves patient through the system appropriately)
What does Medicare A cover?
-covers inpatient/hospitalization
-skilled nursing facility services
-home health services associated with inpatient event
-hospice associated with inpatient event
-Most individuals qualify to receive benefits at 65 years of age
What does Medicare B cover?
-Covers physician services
-Outpatient hospital services
-Laboratory and diagnostic procedures
-Medical equipment
-Some home health services
-Medicare pays 80% of the patient’s bill for physician services and the patient pays 20%
-NPs and CNS receive 85% of physician reimbursement for services provided in collaboration with a physician
What does Medicare C cover?
-A+B=C
-Medicare Advantage
-Patients entitled to Part A and enrolled in Part B, are eligible to receive all of their health care services through one of the provider organizations under part C (HMOs, PPOs, etc)
(no fee)
Medicare D
(MONTLY PREMIUM) Limited prescription DRUG coverage, with co-pay
You notice there have been less favorable outcomes and satisfaction surveys in patients treated for sickle cell anemia. How do you approach this problem?
a Ask the patients treated how care can be improved
b Look back at prior treatment given to see how outcomes can be improved
c Form a standardized Tx plans for all pts that can be used by all healthcare staff
d Form individualized Tx plans that can be used by all healthcare staff
c
Form a standardized Tx plans for all pts that can be used by all healthcare staff
Think quality assurance – standards of care
You have transferred a pt to the SNF. The MD in charge at that facility calls for info about the pt’s medical care. What do you do?
D
Share the information he requests
Your patient has refused human blood products based on religious beliefs. He is now rapidly destabilizing. What do you do?
C
Continue to research alternative treatments
Discharge planning is underway for a pt who has been very debilitated after treatment for end-stage liver cancer. His wife is also debilitated and the children live out of state. What is the best choice?
a Hospice
b Home Health care
c SNF
d Private Duty RN
C- SNF- Subacute nursing facility
The medical resident obtained consent for an operative procedure. On your visit, the pt is confused/refusing the procedure.
a Cancel the surgery
b Have the wife sign another consent
c Call the resident to clarify the patient was not confused when he signed the first consent
d Consult neurology
c
- Call the resident to clarify the patient was not confused when he signed the first consent
Was the patient able to:
Communicate, understand, reason, differentiate
Remember CURD
A code you are in does not go well, and staff members afterwards are criticizing each other. How do you deal with the situation?
-Schedule an in-service to discuss common code mistakes
-Meet with each team member individually
set up exercises to increase collaboration during a code
-Meet with all who participated in the code and have a one-time briefing
Meet with all who participated in the code and have a one-time briefing
Risk management
Action taking initiatives
Correction and education
Your patient is not doing well and family/wife is at bedside crying. You are preparing to talk to the family. What do you do first?
-Place a social work consult
-Explicitly explain the situation, the outcomes, and care involved.
-Ask if the patient has an advanced directive
-Set up a family meeting in a room with a specific time and date
Ask if the patient has an advanced directive
Appropriate level of physical exam documentation
Problem focused
Expanded problem focused
Problem focused: A limited examination of the affected body area or organ system
Expanded problem focused: A limited examination of the affected body area or organ system and any other symptomatic or related body areas or organ systems
Appropriate level of physical exam documentation
-Detailed
-Comprehensive
Detailed: An extended examination of the affected body areas or organ system and any other symptomatic or related body area or organ system
Comprehensive: A general multi-system examination, or complete examination of a single organ system and other symptomatic or related body area or organ system
What is the normal range for serum osmolality?
What is the Normal Urine Sodium?
And why do you check for it?
What is the normal Urine specific gravity?
Serum osmolality (usually2X NA) (275-295mosm/kg)
Urine Sodium (10 to 20mEq/L)
Distinguish renal from non-renal causes
Urine specific gravity (1.010 to 1.030)
Urine sodium >20 suggest?
Urine Sodium <10 suggest?
Urine NA >20 = renal salt wasting (problem with the kidneys
Urine NA<10 = renal retention of sodium to compensate for extra renal fluid losses (problem other than the kidneys)
What is Hypotonic Hyponatremia
Hypovolemic w/urine NA <10 mEq/L
Hypovolemic w/urine NA>20 mEq/L
1 water excess- results in low plasma osmolality, the extracellular fluid volume states may be low volume, normal volume, or high volume
If the patient is symptomatic, give NS IV with a loop diuretic
If CNS symptoms are present, consider 3% NS IV with loop diuretics
Causes of hypernatremia
What is the management of hypernatremia?
Usually due to excess water loss; always indicates hyperosmolality (ie water deficit of water). Excess sodium intake is rare
Severe hypernatremia with hypovolemia should be treated with NS IV followed by ½ NS
Hypernatremia with euvolemia should be treated with free water (D5W)
Hypernatremia with hypervolemia should be treated with free water and loop diuretics, may need dialysis
Hypokalemia
Causes of Hypokalemia
Related signs and symptoms
Laboratory/diagnosis
Causes
chronic use of diuretics,
GI loss, excess renal loss and alkalosis.
Elevated serum epi in trauma pts may contribute to hypokalemia
Signs/symptoms
Muscular weakness, fatigue and muscle cramps, constipation or ileus due to smooth muscle involvement
If sever (K<2.5mEq/L), may see flaccid paralysis, tetany, hyperreflexia and rhabdomyolysis (check cK)
Laboratory/Diagnosis
Decreased amplitude on ECG, broad T waves, Prominent U waves, PVCs, V-tach, or V-fib
Management of Hypokalemia
Oral replacement if >2.5 mEq and no ECG abnormalities
IV replacement at 10 mEq/hr if cannot take p.o.
If <2.5mEq or severe signs/symptoms are present, give 40mEq/L/hr IV-check q3hrs and institute continuous ECG monitoring
Mg++ deficiency frequently impairs K+ correction
Hyperkalemia
Causes
Related signs and symptoms
Laboratory/diagnosis
Causes include excess intake, renal failure, drugs (ie NSAIDs) hypoaldosteronism, and cell death. Shifts of intracellular K+ to the extracellular space occure with acidosis
K+ increases 0.7mEq/L with each 0.1 drop in pH
Signs/symptoms :
Weakness, flaccid paralysis, abd distention, diarrhea
Laboratory/diagnosis :– Tall Peaked waves
Management of Hyperkalemia
Exchange resins (Kayexalate)
As the resin passes through the gastrointestinal tract, the resin removes the potassium ions by exchanging it for sodium ions.
If K+>6.5mEq/L or cardiac toxicity or muscle paralysis is present, consider:
Insulin 10 U with one amp D50 (pushes K+ into the cell)
What is the normal total calcium?
What is the normal Ionized calcium?
Total calcium= 2.2-2.6mmol/L (8.5-10.5mg/dl)
ionized calcium= 1.1-1.4mmol/L (4.5-5.5mg/dl)
What is the relationship between Ionized calcium and albumin levels?
it is useful to measure the ionized calcium level when the serum albumin is not within normal range
The amt of total calcium varies with the level of serum albumin
50% of calcium is bound to albumin, a normal calcium level in the presence of a low albumin level suggest the patient it hypercalcemic
Corrected calcium (mg/dl) =measured total Ca (mg/dl) + 0.8
Or 4.0 – serum albumin
0 represents the avg albumin level
Hypocalcemia
Causes
Related signs and symptoms
Laboratory/diagnosis
causes include hypoparathyrodism, hypomagnesemia, pancreatitis, renal failure, severe trauma, and multiple blood transfusion
3rd degree (full thickness) = dry, leathery, black, pearly, waxy; extends from epidermis to dermis to underlining tissues, fat, muscle and/or bone
What is the management of burns?
prophylactic intubation if there are:
burns to face,
singed nares or eyebrows
dark soot/mucous from nares and/or mouth
Fluid resuscitation 4ml/kg X TBSA (total body surface area) during first 24hrs
General rule ½ of all the fluid requirement needed during the first 24 hrs are administered with the first 8hrs of injury
Maintain normal temp (37-37.5C)
A 42 yr old F is brought to ED after spilling a pot of boiling water on her arms and chest. On exam you see that burned skin is broken, swollen with edema, and covered in blisters. She rates pain as “extremely painful.” You determine that the pt has burns over 20% of her TBSA. Which of the following most accurately describes the pts burn?
face, hands, feet genitalia, perineum, or major burns
3rd degree
electric, inhalation, and chemical
How do you treat bulls eye rash?
Lyme disease rash
Caused by a bite of a tick
Usually identified by Erythema Margins and Bullseye rash
Treatment
Doxycycline or Oral amoxicillin
Typically resolves in about 1-2weeks with tx
58yo Japanese M with CP 4/10 for 3 hours, reluctant to answer questions. Which of the following in the ED warrant admission?
Age
Gender
Pain level
Ethnicity
Ethnicity (underestimates pain, taught to be stoic. Pain is probably much more severe)
The patient has been in a bar fight and has a human bite on his hand. What should you do next?
Order PO abx
Order wound culture
Order IV abx
Measure the wound depth and width
Order PO Abx
Your pt has been taking Thorazine and now has fever, sweating, lethargy, and a temp of 39.4 (102.92):
Give IVF
Antipyretic
Abx
Ice packs to groin and axilla
Give IVF (flush it out. This is neuroleptic malignant syndrome)
Your patient has a fever 3 days post op, WBC are 15,000, Blood Cx (-), and Eos 9%. What is the dx?
Viral infxn
Bacterial infxn
Malignant hyperthermia
Drug fever
Drug fever (eos – allergic rxn. Normal is 1-4%)
Eosinophils are a type of disease-fighting white blood cell. This condition most often indicates a parasitic infection, an allergic reaction or cancer. You can have high levels of eosinophils in your blood (blood eosinophilia) or in tissues at the site of an infection or inflammation
Dietary protein intake recommended for critically ill patients receiving TF/TPN is based on nitrogen balance. What does this mean?
The concept of nitrogen balance is the difference btw nitrogen intake and loss reflects gain or loss of total body protein.
If more nitrogen (protein) is given to the patient than lost, the patient is considered to be anabolic or “in positive nitrogen balance”. If more nitrogen is lost than given, the patient is considered to be catabolic or “in negative nitrogen balance”.
A nitrogen balance within −4 or −5 g/day to +4 or +5 g/day is usually considered “nitrogen equilibrium”.
Maintain nitrogen balance along with metabolic needs
Which electrolyte are you most concerned about monitoring in a cachexic patient?
Mag
Ca
Na
K+
K+ (refeeding syndrome. hypokalemia. also hypophosphatemia)
Refeeding syndrome is clinical complications from fluid and electrolyte shifts during aggressive nutritional rehab of malnourished patients: hypophos, hypokal, vitamin def., CHF, peripheral edema, rhabdo, seizures, hemolysis
Which electrolyte do you monitor in Refeeding Syndrome?
Mag
Ca
Na
Phos
Phos (refeeding syndrome. hypokalemia. also hypophosphatemia)
Hypophosphatemia more relevant during refeeding
Which lab do you monitor daily in a patient on nutritional supplements?
BMP
CBC
ABG
Blood Cx
BMP (And monitor LFTs weekly)
What two types of headaches can be treated with triptans
Migraines and cluster headaches
sumatriptan, almotriptan, zolmitriptan...
Best alternative therapy to decrease pain in clavicle fracture
Therapeutic touch/reiki
The patient has had a dog bite and 3 doses of Tetanus in the past. The NP knows the recommendation for tetanus is that the:
patient gets a booster if they have a dirty wound and haven’t had a tetanus shot in five years.
The most common cause of hyponatremic hyperosmolality?
Hyperglycemia
Hyperthyroidism
Adrenal insufficiency
K-sparing diuretics
Hyperglycemia (usually from HHNK
Serum osmolality >290
Your patient has a serum osmolality of 268 mOsm/kg and a serum sodium of 134 mEq/L. His urine has Na+ less than 10 mEq/L. You know that all of the following are possible explanations except:
Diarrhea
Diuretics (Na<10 is nonrenal cause. Diuretics are associated with renal cause, Urine Na >20)
Dehydration
Vomiting
Diuretics
(Na<10 is nonrenal cause. Diuretics are associated with renal cause, Urine Na >20)
A 61 yr old F c/o fatigue, muscle weakness, and constipation. She adds that she had felt her heart beating “abnormally” and she has been experiencing muscle spasms on occasion. You order and EKG and find decreased amplitude and broad T waves. Occasionally you also note prominent U waves. Of the following, which is the most likely Dx?
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hypokalemia
\
Lab/diagnostics
Decreased amplitude on ECG
Broad T waves
Prominent U waves
PVCa, V-tach, or V-fib
Type 1 DM patho
Signs and symptoms
Labs
Management
Insulin dependent/juvenile diabetes.
Ketone development usually occurs
Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
FBG >126 on 2 separate occasions, Hgb A1c >7, elevated BUN/Creatinine, Ketonemia, Ketonuria
Ketones = insulin therapy 0.5 u/kg/day
Type 2 DM patho
Signs and symptoms
Labs
Management
Adult onset, circulating insulin exists enough to prevent ketoacidosis, but is inadequate to meet pt insulin needs
Associated with metabolic syndrome
Polyuria, polydipsia, recurrent vaginitis in women
No ketones in blood/urine
Oral antidiabetic medication- glipizide
What is the somogyi effect
How do you treat it?
Happens when the patient is hypoglycemic at 0300 but rebounds with an elevated blood glucose at 0700
Tx: reduce or omit the at bedtime dose of insulin
What is the Dawn Phenomenon?
How do you treat it?
Results when tissue becomes desensitized to insulin nocturnally. The blood glucose becomes progressively elevated throughout the night, resulting in elevated glucose levels at 0700
Add or increase the at bedtime dose of insulin
DKA patho
Signs and symptoms
Labs
Management
State of intracellular dehydration as a result of elevated blood glucose levels. Acute complication of type 1 DM
NS at least 1L, ½ NS, then D5 ½ NS, IV insulin 0.1u/Kg/hr
HHNK patho
Signs and symptoms
Labs
Management
Usually occurs as a complication of type 2 DM, pts cannot produce enough insulin to prevent severe hyperglycemia, osmotic diuresis and extracellular fluid depletion
Polyuria, changes in LOC, hypotension, tachycardia
Serum glucose >600, Osmo>310, elevated Hgb A1c, normal pH
NS IV for massive fluid replacement (6-10L), then ½ NS, followed by D5 ½ NS
Hyperthyroidism cause/etiology
Signs and symptoms
Lab
Management
Onset most commonly btw 20-40 yrs of age, Grave’s disease is the most common presentation
Everything is increased-weight loss, heat intolerance
Low TSH, elevated T3, T4
Propranolol for symptomatic relief, radioactive iodine used to destroy goiters
Hypothyroidism cause/etiology
Signs and symptoms
Lab
Management
Cause/Etiology: Pituitary deficiency of TSH- known as hashimoto’s thyroiditis
S/S: Everything slows down-weight gain, cold intolerance
Labs: High TSH, Low T3 and T4 (T4 can be normal)
Mgmt: Levothyroxine 50-100 mcg qday 1-2 weeks until symptoms stabilize; > 60 years of age decrease dosage
What is the treatment of thyroid crisis?
Thyroid crisis/storm is a result of untreated hyperthyroidism
Tx- is anti-thyroid It works by decreasing the amount of thyroid hormone produced by the thyroid gland and blocking the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3).
Propylhiouracil 150-250mg q6hrs OR Methimazole 15-25mg q6 with other instructions
-i.e propranolol 0.5-2gm IV q4 or PO 20-120mg q6
What is the treatment for Myxedema Coma?
Myxedema Coma is a state of decompensated hypothyroidism
Protect airway: Mechanical vent as needed
Fluid replacement, as needed
Levothyroxine 400mcg IV X1, then 100 mcg qday
Support hypotension
Slow rewarming with blankets (not hyperthermia blankets): avoid circulatory collapse
Symptomatic care
Cushing’s syndrome cause/etiology
Signs and symptoms
Lab
Management
Cause: ACTH hypersecretion by the pituritary or chronic administration of glucocorticoids
SS: Moon face with buffalo hump
Labs: Hyperglycemia, Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, Leukocytosis, elevated plasma cortisol in the a.m.
Tx: Depends on the cause
D/C medication inducing symptoms
Transphenoidal resection of a pituritary adenoma
Surgical removal of adrenal tumors
Resection of ACTH secreting tumors
Manage electrolyte balance
Addison’s disease cause/etiology
Signs and symptoms
Lab
Management
Causes/itiology: Deficient cortisol, androgens and aldosterone, pituitary failure resulting in decreased ACTH
S/S: Hyperpigmentation in buccal mucosa and skin creases (especially knuckles, nail beds, nipples, palmar creases, and posterior neck)
- If serum Na >120 restrict total fluids to 1000ml/24
- If serum Na 110-120 without neuro symptoms, restrict 500ml/24h
- If serum Na <110 or neuro symptoms present, replace with isotonic or hypertonic saline and Lasix at 1-2mEq/h, monitor NA, K+ losses hourly and replace
Diabetes Insipidus cause/etiology
Can be related to Central or Nephrogenic
Central: related to pituritary or hypothalamus damage resulting in ADH deficiency
Nephrogenic: due to defect in the renal tubules resulting in renal insensitivity to ADH
Diabetes Insipidus
Signs and symptoms
Lab
Management
S/S: Thirst/cravings for water (fluid intake 5-20L/day), polyuria (2-20L/day), weight loss, fatigue, changes in LOC
Labs: Hypernatremia, Elevated BUN/Cr, serum osmo>290, Urin Osmo<100, urine specific gravity low <1.005.
-Vasopressin challenge test is positive in central DI and negative in Nephrogenic DI
Mgmt: If serum Na>150 give D5W IV to replace ½ volume deficit in 12-24hrs – rapid lowering can cause cerebral edema
When Na <150 substitute ½ or .9NS
DDAVP 1-4ug IV or SQ q12-24hrs for acute situations
Maintenance dose of DDAVP is 10 q12-24hrs intra nasally
What is pheochromocytoma
What are the signs and symptoms?
Is a rare but serious disease resulting from excess catecholamine release characterized by paroxysmal or sustained hypertension; almost always due to a tumor of the adrenal medulla
Lab/ Diagnostics: Plasma free metanephrienes –used to help detect or rule out tumor – (fastest test)
TSH is normal, CT of adrenals used to confirm and localize tumor
Assay of urine 24hr collection-
Mgmt: Surgical removal of tumor is treatment of choice
Treat symptoms
Heart Sounds and Anatomical Location
S1
S2
Systole
Diastole
S1-closure of Mitral/tricuspid (AV)valves, opening of aortic/pulmonic (similumar) valves
S2-closure of aortic/pulmonic valves, opening of mitral/tricuspid valves
Systole-is period between S1 and S2
Diastole- is period between S2 and S1
When do you hear S3?
When do you hear S4?
S3: “Ken-Tuck-y” this happen with increased fluid status
e CHF or pregnancy
S4: “Ten-ne-ssee” this happens with there are stiff ventricular walls
e MI, left ventricular hypertrophy, chronic hypertension
What are the stages of Murmurs?
1/6=Barely audible
2/6=Audible but faint
3/6=Moderately loud; easily heard
4/6=Loud; associated with a thrill
5/6=Very loud; heard with one corner of stethoscope off the chest wall
6/6=Loudest
list location and sound of Mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis:
Mid-diastolic; apical “crescendo” rumble
Loud S1 murmur
Low pitched
Mitral regurgitation:
S3 with systolic murmur at 5th ICS MCL(apex)
May radiate to the base or left axilla
Musical, blowing, or high pitched
list location and sound of Aortic stenosis and Aortic regurgitation
Aortic Stenosis
Systolic, blowing harsh murmur at 2nd right ICS
Usually radiating to the neck
Aortic regurgitation
Diastolic, blowing murmur at 2nd left ICS
What are the different types of heart failure
Systolic HF: inability to contract results in decreased CO
Diastolic HF: inability to relax and fill results in decreased CO
Acute HF: abrupt onset usually follows acute MI or valve rupture
Chronic HF: develops as a result of inadequate compensatory mechanisms that have been employed over time to improve CO
What are the signs and symptoms of Acute HF
Acute HF is Left sided HF
Dyspnea at rest
Coarse rales over all lung fields
Wheezing frothy cough
Appears generally healthy except for the acute event
S3 gallop
Murmur of mitral regurgitation (systolic murmur loudest at the apex)
What are the signs and symptoms of Chronic HF?
Chronic HF is right sided HF
JVD
Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
Dependent edema: as a result of increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Appears chronically ill
Abd fullness
Displaced PMI
Fatigue on exertion
S3 and/or S4
List HF classification and Manifestations per New York Heart Association (NYHA)
Class 1: No limitation of physical activity
Class 2: slight limits of physical activity but comfortable at rest (fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or angina)
Class 3: Marked limits of physical activity but comfortable at rest – 3 pillows
Class 4: Severe; inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort (signs and symptoms while at rest)
Lab/diagnostics for Heart Failure
Hypoxemia and hypocapnia on ABG
BMP usually normal unless chronic failure is present
U/A
CXR=pulmonary edema, kerley B lines, effusion
ECHO=will show contractile/relaxation, valve fx, EF
ECG=my show underlying Problem-Acute MI, dysrhythmia
PFT for wheezing during exercise
Management of Heart Failure
Non-Pharmacologic
Na restriction
Rest/activity balance
Weight reduction
Pharmacologic
ACE inhibitors
Diuretics: Thiazide, loop
Anticoagulation therapy for A-fib
In-patient management of Acute Pulmonary Edema
02 at 1-2L while awaiting ABG
place in sitting position
Morphine 2-4mg IVP PRN
Lasix 40mg IVP repeat 10 mins if no response
If severe bronchospasm present give inhaled bronchodilator
If severe, afterload and preload reduction with nipride and hydralazine
If CI remains low, dobutamine 2.5-20ug/kg/min;
if SBP<100 dopamine 5-20ug/kg/min is preferred
What are the JNC7 classification Guidelines for HTN
JNC8 emphasizes thresholds, what are they
HTN treatment recommendation for non-African-American
HTN tx rec for African American
HTN tx rec for Adults>18 with CKD with or without diabetes
Non-African-American
Thiazide Diuretics (screen for sulfa allergy, monitor lytes)
Calcium channel blockers (monitor HR, may cause HA, flushing, or bradycardia)
ACE1 (avoid ARB, avoid with K+>5.5)
ARB (avoid ACE, contraindicated in pregnancy, avoid K+>5.5)
African American
Thiazide diuretics (increases excretion of Na & H2O)
CCB
Adult>18 with CKD with or without diabetes
ACE (causes vasodilation, blocks Na and water retention)
ARB
Regardless of race or other medical condition
What is the recommended treatment Goals for HTN?
Treatment goal for initial treatment is 1 month:
Increase dose or add second drug
Continue to assess monthly until goal is reached
Do not use an ACE1 and ARB together
Refer to hypertensive specialist if 3 or more drugs are needed
What is Hypertensive Urgency?
What is the management?
BP > 180/110 without progressive target organ dysfunction
-May or may not be associated with severe HA, SOB, nose bleed, or severe anxiety
Management –oral therapies
Clonidine (catapress)- preprevents vasoconstriction, causes vasodilation, and slow HR. Do not D/C abruptly=rebound HTN
Captopril (Capoten)-
Nifedipine (Procardia)
Loop diuretics
What is Hypertensive Emergency?
What is the management?
BP >180/120 with target organ dysfunction
May occur at a lower BP if complicated by evidence of impending or progressive target organ dysfunction
Management- IV agents, critical care, art line needed
BP should be lowered to 160-180 systolic or to less than 105 diastolic (no more than 25% within minutes to 1-2hrs) and then gradually lowered over several days with oral therapy
Common agents- Nicardipine, Nipride
List examples that could cause Hypertensive Emergency
Malignant Hypertension
Hypertensive encephalopathy
Intracranial hemorrhage
Unstable angina
Acute MI
Acute LV failure with pulmonary edema
Dissecting aortic aneurysm
Eclampsia
What is Angina?
What are the different types?
Angina- decreased blood flow through the vessel that leads to tissue ischemia
Types:
Stable (classic or chronic) occurs with physical activity
Prinzmetal’s (variant) occurs at various times, even rest
Unstable (pre-infarction, rest or crescendo, coronary syndrome)
Microvascular (metabolic syndrome)
What is metabolic syndrome
Metabolic syndrome
is a cluster of conditions — increased blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol or triglyceride levels — that occur together, increasing your risk of heart disease, stroke and diabetes.
What are the physical exam findings of Angina?
Signs and symptoms of Angina
Physical Exam Findings
May see signs of peripheral arterial disease
Levine’s sign= Clenched fist sign
Transient S4 not uncommon during angina
Signs and symptoms
Characteristic chest discomfort lasting several min
Exertional is usually precipitated by physical activity; subsides with rest
Nitroglycerin shortens or prevents attacks
Lab and diagnostic findings for Angina
ECG may be normal- with down sloping or ST segment, or T-wave peak or inversion
Exercise ECG
Serum lipid levels should be elevated
Coronary angiography is the definitive diagnostic procedure but not indicated solely for diagnosis