chapter 39 incident management

  1. mass cassualty incident refers to to any calls that involve how many patients?
    • 3 or more 
    • -or any call that demands more equipment or personnel than what is available
  2. MCI stands for what
    mass casualty incident
  3. what does NIMS stand for?
    national incident management system
  4. what was NIMS developed to do?
    to promote coordination of emergency incidents at regional, state and national levels
  5. National Incident Management System:

    who implemented NIMS in 2004?
    department of homeland security
  6. National Incident Management System:

    NIMS organiztional structure had to be ___ enough to be rapidly _____
    • flexible 
    • adaptable
  7. what provides standardization in:
    -terminology
    -resource classification
    -personnel training
    -certification
    NIMS
  8. the following are major components of what?
    -preparedness
    -communications and info management
    -resource management
    -command and management
    -on going management and maintenance
    NIMS
  9. Incident Command System:

    incident command system is also know as the
    incident management system
  10. the following are the main purpose of what?
    -ensure responder and public safety
    -achieve incident management goals
    -ensure the efficient use of resources
    ICS
  11. Incident Command System:

    what is the building block for good patient care?
    communication
  12. Incident Command System:

    who is in control of the overall incident?
    incident commander (IC)
  13. Incident Command System:

    what part of ICS is responsible for documenting all expenditures at the incident for rembursement
    finance
  14. Incident Command System:

    what part of ICS is responsible for communications equipment,facilities,food and water,fuel,lighting, and medical supplies
    logistics
  15. Incident Command System:

    what part of ICS is responsible for managing tactical opertations usually handled by the IC during very complex incidents
    operations
  16. Incident Command System:

    what part of ICS solves problems as they arise and develops an action plan
    planning
  17. Incident Command System:

    ICS command staff:
    who monitors the scene for conditions or operations that may present a hazard to responders and patients
    safety officers
  18. Incident Command System:

    ICS command staff:
    who provides the public and media with clear and understandable information
    public information officer(PIO)
  19. Incident Command System:

    ICS command staff:
    who relays information and concerns among command, the general staff, and other agencies
    liason officer
  20. Communications and Information Management:

    what has historically been the weak point  at most major incidents
    communication
  21. Mobilization and Deployment:

    upon arriving to an incident, who should you check in with?
    incident commander(IC)
  22. Mobilization and Deployment:

    after checiking in with the IC report to your supervisor for an ____ ____
    initial briefing
  23. Mobilization and Deployment:

    ____ keeping allows for tracking of time spent on the actual incident for reimbursement purposes
    record
  24. Mobilization and Deployment:

    once the incident has been stabilized and all of the hazards mitigated, the IC will determine which resources are needed or not needed and when to begin ____
    demobilization
  25. EMS Response Within the Incident Command System:

    you EMS agency should have have a written ____ plan that you are regularly trained to carry out
    disaster
  26. EMS Response Within the Incident Command System:

    what is a open incident?
    an incident that is not secure and is producing more patients
  27. EMS Response Within the Incident Command System:

    what is a closed incident?
    an incident that is secure and all patients are accounted for
  28. EMS Response Within the Incident Command System:

    who should establish command?
    established by the most senior official
  29. EMS Response Within the Incident Command System:

    if possible you should use ___ to ___ communications to limit radio traffic
    face to face
  30. EMS Response Within the Incident Command System:

    medical incident command is alos know as the ___ branch of ICS
    EMS branch of ICS
  31. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    who is incharge of counting and prioritizing patients and ensures all patients receives an initial assessment
    triage supervisor
  32. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    who locates and sets up a treatment area with a tier for each priority patient and ensures secondary triage is performed
    treatment supervisor
  33. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    who coordinates transportation of patients to appropriate hospitals
    transprotation supervisor
  34. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    who is assigned to multivehicle or multi agency response and gives permission for EMS vehicles to enter the scene
    staging supervisor
  35. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    who makes difficult triage decisions and provide EMS with on scene medical direction
    physicians on scene
  36. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    who establishes an EMS rest area and monitors EMS providers stress levels
    rehabilitation supervisor
  37. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    who determines type of equipment and resources needed for an incident
    extrication and special rescue
  38. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    who works with medical examiners and coroners to coordinate removal of the bodies and body parts
    morgue supervisor
  39. The Medical Branch of Incident Command:

    the morgue supervisor should attempt to leave bodies in the location found until a plan is determined 
    true/false
    true
  40. Mass-Casualty Incidents:

    what should you never do when there are still sick or injured patients on scene
    you should never leave
  41. Triage:

    what category of patients are first priority and usually have problems with ABCs
    immediate (red)
  42. Triage:

    what category patients are 2nd priority and who need treatment and transportation but can be wait a bit
    delayed(yellow)
  43. Triage:

    what category of patients are 3rd priority and may only require field treatment
    minor or minimal(green; hold)
  44. Triage:

    what category of patients are last priority and are likely to die or are dead
    expectant(black)
  45. Triage:

    doing what to patients early can help track them and keep record of their condition
    tagging patients
  46. Triage:

    triage tags are not water prrof so you should keep them covered
    true/false
    false
  47. Triage:

    START stands for what?
    simple triage and rapid treatment
  48. Triage:

    what stepin SIMPLE triage is when you call out the patients to group up at a landmark and what category of triage are they placed in?
    • first step
    • minimal priority, 3rd priority patients(green)
  49. Triage:

    2nd step in SIMPLE triage is to move to the first nonambulatory patient and assess breathing
    true/false
    true
  50. Triage:

    if a nonambulatory patient who doesnt start breathing after opening an airway what should you tag them as?
    expectant to die(black)
  51. Triage:

    if a non ambulatory patient begins to breath after opening airway, what should you tag them as?
    immediate, first priority(red)
  52. Triage:

    after tagging a nonamublatory patient as immediate(red) what position should you place them before moving onto the next patient?
    recovery
  53. Triage:

    in the 2nd step in SIMPLE triage what 3 things should you assess before moving to next patient
    • estimated respiratory rate
    • bilateral pulses
    • neurologic status(ability to follow commands)
  54. Triage:

    in jumpSTART for a pediatric who is not breathing and no pulse what should you tag them as?
    expectant(black)
  55. Triage:

    in jumpSTART in a pediatric who has a pulse but not breathing how mnay rescue breaths should you give
    5 rescue breaths
  56. Triage:

    in jumpSTART a pediatric who doesnt start breathing after given rescue breath what should you tag them as?
    expectant(black)
  57. the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children is ______ arrest
    respirator
  58. Triage:

    in jumpSTART you should what should you check before moving onto the next patient?
    • respirator rate
    • pulse
  59. Triage:

    in jumpSTART in absence on a distal pulse in a pediatric what should to tag the patient as?
    immediate(red)
  60. Triage:

    special considerations for triage:
    -patients who are hysterical or are distrubtive to rescue effort 
    -responder who become sick or injured
    -who have been contaminated by HAZMAT

    these patients should be tagged as what?
    immediate(red)
  61. Triage:

    what category patients should be transported by ground or air?
    • immediate(red)
    • delayed(yellow)
  62. Triage:

    when may a bus be used to transport? and who may the transport?
    • bus used in extremely large situations 
    • and may transport walking wounded
  63. Triage:

    how many immediate priorty patients should you transport at a time?
    two immediate priority patents at a time
  64. Triage:

    how many delayed patients can be transported at a time?
    3 delayed patients at a time
  65. Triage:

    who should be transported after delayed priority patients?
    minimum, 3rd priority (walking wounded/green)
  66. Triage:

    who would be transported last?
    expectant(black) if they are still alive
  67. Triage:

    dead patients are handled according to what?
    local SOP(standard operating procedures)
  68. disaster management:

    who decalares a disater?
    an elected official
  69. Introduction to Hazardous Materials:

    what does HAZWOPER stand for?
    hazardous waste operations and emergency response
  70. Recognizing a Hazardous Material:

    you should stay down hill and down wind of a hazardous incident
    true/false
    • false
    • stay uphill and upwind from an incident
  71. ____ is any container or vessel that holds material
    container
  72. you can divide container into what two categories?
    bulk and nonbulk
  73. Containers:

    in general what kind of containers are
    -found in buildings that rely on and need to store large quantities on a particular chemical
    -often have a secondary containment system
    -can hold a few hundred gallons of the chemical
    bulk storage container
  74. Containers:

    what has
    -storage capacities of 119 to 703 gallons
    -have no secondary containment
    totes
  75. Containers:

    what container are 
    -both storage and shipping vessel
    -hold between 5k-6k gallons of product
    -can be pressurized or non pressurized
    intermodal tanks
  76. Containers:

    nonbulk containers hold commonly used commercial and industrial chemicals
    true/false
    true
  77. Containers:

    drums are considered 
    bulk or nonbulk?
    nonbulk
  78. Containers:

    what is commonly used to store solids and powders?
    bags
  79. Containers:

    what transports and store corrosives and other types of chemicals?
    carboys
  80. Containers:

    what is a glass,plastic, or steel container that holds 5-15 gallons of product
    carboys
  81. Containers:

    carboys are often placed in a protective wood, foam, fiberglass, or steel box
    true/false
    true
  82. Department of Transportation Marking System:

    what shape are placards?
    diamond shaped
  83. Department of Transportation Marking System:

    where are placards and haz labels placed on a container
    all four sides
  84. Department of Transportation Marking System:

    DOT requires all chemicals shippments be marked
    true/false
    • false
    • not all shippments need to be marked
  85. Department of Transportation Marking System:

    how often is the emergency response guidebook updated?
    3-4 years
  86. Department of Transportation Marking System:

    appox. how many chemicals are in the emergency response guidebook
    4000+
  87. references:

    what does MSDS stand for?
    material data safety sheet
  88. references:

    what paper work usually accompanies the chemical being shipped
    shipping papers(hazderous declarations paperwork)
  89. references:

    what serves as an invaluable technical information resource for first responders of all disciplines who are called upon to respond to chemical incidents`
    chemical transportation emergency center(CHEMTREK)
  90. HazMat Scene Operations:

    you should alert near by individuals using the abumlance public address system and secure the incident zone
    true/false
    true
  91. HazMat Scene Operations:

    what area is the most contaiminated area
    hot zone
  92. HazMat Scene Operations:

    there is not need to decontaiminate personnel and equipment when leaving the hot zone
    true/false
    false
  93. HazMat Scene Operations:

    in which zone....
    -personnel transition in and out of the hot zone
    -has control points in and out of the hot zone
    -has a decontamination area
    warm zone
  94. HazMat Scene Operations:

    what is the process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of haz materials
    decontamination
  95. HazMat Scene Operations:

    which zone is 
    -the safe area
    -no need for protective clothing
    -has command post
    -area for medical monitoring and treatment after decontamination
    cold zone
  96. Classification of Hazardous Materials:

    what classifies materials based on
    -health hazards/toxicity levels
    -fire hazards
    -chemical reactive hazard
    -special hazards
    national fire protection association 704(NFPA)
  97. Classification of Hazardous Materials:

    what toxicity level would cause little, if any, health hazard of you came in contact with it
    toxicity level 0
  98. Classification of Hazardous Materials:

    what toxicity level would cause irritaion on contact but only mild residual  injury
    level 1
  99. Classification of Hazardous Materials:

    what toxicity level could cause temporary damage or residual injury unless prompt medical treatment is provided
    toxicity level 2
  100. Classification of Hazardous Materials:

    what toxicity level is extremely hazardous to health
    toxicity level 3
  101. Classification of Hazardous Materials:

    what toxicity level is so hazardous that minimal contact would cause death
    toxicity level 4
  102. Classification of Hazardous Materials:

    all toxicity levels require specialized  training and respiratory and chemical protective gear that is not standard on most ambulances except which toxicity level?
    toxicity level 0
  103. Personal Protective Equipment Level:

    what PPE level requires you to be fully encapsulated and wear a SCBA
    level A
  104. Personal Protective Equipment Level:

    what level of PPE doesnt require you to be encapsulated but still requires an SCBA and to wear nonpermeableclothing
    level B
  105. Personal Protective Equipment Level:

    what level of PPE requires the use of nonpermeable clothing and eye protection and a face mask that filters outside air
    Level C
  106. Personal Protective Equipment Level:

    what level of PPE only requires a work uniform such as a coverall
    level D
  107. Personal Protective Equipment Level:

    all levels of PPE require what?
    gloves
  108. caring for patients:

    if patients are found before the decontamination zone is established you may need to transport and do a rapid ___
    rapid wash
Author
daniel.ramos702
ID
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Card Set
chapter 39 incident management
Description
emergency care and transportation of the sick and injured 11th edition
Updated