Pharmacology Exam 1

  1. In the equation: 
    D+R <-- (K1/K2)--> DR --(K3)--> Effect

    what does K1/K2 and K3 stand for?
    • K1/K2= affinity 
    • K3= efficacy
  2. the ____ of a drug for a receptor is the propensity of the DR complex to form (K1) divided by the propensity of it to dissociate (K2)
    affinity
  3. ____ possess both affinity and efficacy
    agonists (full agonist)
  4. ___ ____ possess affinity, but a lower efficacy than a full agonist that binds to the same receptor
    Partial agonist
  5. partial agonists have a ___ Emax than a full agonist
    lower
  6. ____ possess affinity but lack efficacy
    antagonists
  7. aspirin is an example of an _____ because it elicits no response (inhibits the formation of prostaglandins
    antagonist
  8. morphine is an example of a ___ ___ because it elicits a full response
    full agonist

    **opioids can be full agonists, partial agonist or antagonists
  9. propranolol decreases HR and blood pressure but blocking NE receptors in the heart making it an
    antagonist
  10. valium binds to benzodiazepine receptors in the brain on the GABA complex to produced sedation and decrease anxiety making it an
    agonist
  11. the intensity of a drug response is related to the number of ?
    drug-receptor complexes formed

    which in turn is related to the amount of drug in the body
  12. the range of a blood pressure decrease someone experiences when given a drug is example of a
    graded log dose-response

    graded= continous
  13. whether or not a person's BP decreases when given a drug (yes or no) is an example of an
    quantal log dose-response

    quantal= all or nothing, yes/no
  14. the lower the ED50 is,
    the more potent the drug


    because less drug needed to get 50% of the maximum response
  15. binds to target and complex and elicits full response
    agonist
  16. binding elicits only a portion of response, Emax is lower vs a full agonist
    partial agonist
  17. binds with high affinity to a receptor and no response is elicited
    Antagonist
  18. binding elicits a response that is in the opposite direction of an agonist
    inverse agonist
  19. effects of drugs on the body (drug-receptor interactions; dose-response curves)
    Pharmacodynamics
  20. effects of the body on drugs (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion)
    pharmacokinetics
  21. relationship which describes both drug potency and efficacy; usually either hyperbolic (linear) or sigmoidal (log) in shape
    dose-response curve
  22. describes the maximum effect, or how efficacious a drug is with respect to the target response
    Emax
  23. the dose at which 50% effect is elicited; describes potency of a drug
    ED50
  24. dose at which 50% of the lethal effect is elicited
    LD50
  25. competitive inhibitors do what to E50 and Emax?
    it increases E50 but DOES NOT CHANGE Emax
  26. if a drug has a high therapeutic index that means it is a
    safe drug
  27. an ideal drug is _____ soluble
    lipid and aqueous soluble
  28. If a drug is dosed ___ and ____ it does NOT have to be absorbed it is immediately in the blood stream
    IV and Intraarterially
  29. in acidic conditions, a weak acid is ____ and a weak base is ____
    • deionized 
    • ionized
  30. In basic conditions, a weak acid is ____ and a weak base is _____
    • ionized
    • deionized
  31. what are the two main plasma proteins that free drugs bind to?
    • albumin
    • alpha-1 acid glycoprotein
  32. what types of reactions are phase 1 reactions
    oxidation-reducation hydrolysis via CYP450
  33. the products of phase 1 reactions are more ___ and ___, ___, or _____
    polar

    active, reactive, or inactive
  34. what occurs in phase 2 reactions
    conjugation
  35. the products of phase 2 reactions are 3 things
    • highly ionized
    • rapidly excreted 
    • inactive
  36. T/F: distribution is the same between the different body compartments
    FALSE

    it is different between the different compartments
  37. T/F: phase 2 always phase 1
    FALSE

    usually occurs this way but not always
  38. what is most common phase 2 conjugation in humans? Followed by?
    glucaronidation 

    sulfonation
  39. where are CYP450's located
    in the smooth ER of the hepatocytes (membrane bound NOT in the cytosol)
  40. the oxidation of a drug involves
    the splitting of molecular oxygen

    with one atom appearing in the metabolite and one undergoing reduction to water
  41. accelerates metabolism of other drugs metabolized by the same CYP because it works with DNA to increase the amount of CYP present

    increases the amount of enzyme but not the enzyme activity
    induction
  42. if this occurs metabolism of drugs by this CYP will decrease and blood levels may rise (bc less is being metabolized ad this may result in increased therapeutic effect of toxicity)
    inhibition
  43. 5 organs of excretion
    • kidneys
    • liver (bile)
    • lungs (volatile compounds)
    • sweat glands
    • salivary glands
  44. if alkalinize urine:

    weak acids, such as phenobarbital), are
    more highly ionized and rapidly excreted
  45. if alkalinize urine:

    weak bases , such as amphetamine, are
    more highly unionized and rapidly reabsorbed
  46. what increases filtration fraction and why
    displacement of drug from plasma proteins

    because only free drug is filtered and the drug is free when it is not bound to plasma proteins
  47. first order elimination is described as what?
    a constant percentage eliminated over a unit of time
  48. zero order elimination is described as what?
    a constant amount eliminated over a unit of time
  49. with an arithemetic scale, if the elimination is a straight line it is ___
    zero order
  50. with a log scale, if the elimination is a straight line it is ____
    first order
  51. what is faster, first or zero order?
    first
  52. for most drugs, the elimination phase is ____ except for some drugs such as ____ which is zero order
    first order

    ethanol
  53. the half life of a zero order processes depends on
    the drug level at the given time and is NOT constant
  54. drug elimination, since it is essential a first order process can be defined for a given drug by its
    half-life
  55. the minimum effective drug level to the toxic drug level is known as the
    "therapeutic window"
  56. Because of first order drug elimination, doubling the dose of a drug
    doesn't always double the benefit or effect
  57. if the daily dose replaces an identical amount of drug lost through metabolism or excretion each day, the average daily blood concentration and the resulting effect will be constant
    steady-state blood levels


    the amount in=the amount out and occurs when someone is taking a chronic dose
  58. states that it takes about four to five half-lives for the average blood concentration and related intensity of response to reach a steady level
    plateau principle
  59. 5 organs of biotransformation
    • liver
    • lung
    • kidney
    • blood
    • intestine
  60. during chronic drug administration at a fixed dose and dosing interval, the mean steady state level reached is primarily determined by
    drug dose
  61. during chronic drug administration at a fixed dose and dosing interval, the time until a steady state is reached is primarily determined by
    drug half-life
  62. during chronic drug administration at a fixed dose and dosing interval, the difference between peak and trough levels is primarily determined by
    dosing interval
  63. T/F: if a drug is more lipid soluble,the likelihood of it crossing the blood brain barrier increases
    TRUE
Author
arikell
ID
342354
Card Set
Pharmacology Exam 1
Description
Exam 1 Material
Updated