WAPOL _ Babcock IFR QUIZ Apr 18

  1. How do you calculate LSALT for IFR vs Night VFR with RNP 2?
    • RNP 2: 5nm from any point along nominal track inc dep/dest.
    • Night VFR: 10nm either side of track. Where no obstacles exist 360ft add 1000'. Round up to nearest 100ft.
    • GEN 3.3 Para 4.4, 4.7 and 4.9
  2. Validity of Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC)?
    • Valid from when flight test was passed until the 12th month after the month it was passed on.
    • CASR 61.880
  3. How do you calculate a LSALT for IFR flight?
    • Draw area - NAVAID use 10.3 deg splay. DR use 15 deg splay. Max width either side of track 50NM. Always add 5NM buffer. If no aid at destination scribe a circle on it at current LSALT width. Find height - Any Obs >360ft add 1000ft. Obs all 1800m he is airborne and 1800m ahead
    • 4. Landing AC has vacated and taxied away
    • 5. Another AC has stopped short or crossed.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  4. What do you say to centre when you are told to contact them?
    "Climbing or Descending or Maintaining. ""ML CEN RSCU 51 maintaining 6000"""
  5. When can you descend below MDA (circling approach)?
    • 5 things.
    • 1 - In circling area.
    • 2 - Visibility along intended flightpath as specified.
    • 3 - Visual contact with landing runway environment. AND either
    • 4 - Intercept posn on DW / base / final leg at alt NB MDA and complete cont descent to landing threshold using NML RoD and maintain obs clearance until aligned with RWY.
    • 5 - By day maintain min obs clearance until aligned with RWY.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.6
  6. When can you do an IFR visual approach by night?
    • - NB LSALT/MSA or DME/GPS step or the MDA for procedure flown, and are
    • - Clear of Cloud +
    • - In sight of ground or water +
    • - 5km (800m by day) vis -
    • - AND within 1. Circling area OR
    • - 2. within 5nm of AD aligned with RWY centreline and NB ""on slope"" TVASIS / PAPI (7nm ILS RWY) OR
    • - 3. within 10nm est NB ILS glidepath and less than full scale LLZ deflection."
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.15
  7. What is the tolerance to enter a reversal procedure?
    • You must be +- 30 deg of outbound track. Note: Base turns where the reciprocal of the inbound track is outside this 30 deg sector the sector is expanded to include it.
    • ENR 1.5 para 2.7.3
  8. When does the clock start on a holding pattern? How long is the outbound leg?
    • Wings level or abeam the fix - whichever comes later.
    • Max time 1 min or time or distance specified on plate.
    • ENR 1.5 para 3.2.1
  9. When can you request a frequency change?
    • Descent from CTA or Form or SAR or police mission.
    • ENR 1.1 para + 3
  10. Give an example of calls to approach when identified and when not radar identified?
    • Not ID: RSCU 52. 20DME on the 205 Radial. Maintaining 8000'. In cloud / visual. Received ATIS (App type reqd). Request Clearance. ID: RSCU 52. Maintaining 8000'. In cloud / visual. Received ATIS.(App type Reqd). Request Clearance.
    • GPA GEN 3.4 para 5.6 and 5.10
  11. How does the spacing and colour of runway lights work?
    • Runway edge lights are White Spacing = 60m for Instrument runways or max 90m for non-instrument or non-precision runways. Precision app CAT1 / 2 last 600m = Yellow. Centreline lights: White ( first 900m) then Red + White and finally Red (last 300m).
    • AD1 para 4.4 and 4.6
  12. When can you commence descent during the outbound leg on a reversal procedure?
    • You have crossed the fix or facility and Established on outbound leg or on a heading to intercept. Further descent inbound cannot being commenced until established.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.21.2
  13. What does established mean?
    • Half full scale deflection for the ILS/VOR/GNSS. Within 5 degrees of NDB bearing. Within 2nm of the DME arc.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.21.2 note.
  14. How much clearance is provided by MSAs?
    • MSAs provide 1000' obstacle clearance from all obstructions within 5nm of the aircraft.
    • ENR 1.5 para 2.2.1
  15. What are the three types of reversal procedure? Are there any additional restrictions for CAT A + B?
    • 1 - 45/180; Max time from start of 45 deg turn for CAT A + B is 1 min.
    • 2 - 80/260.
    • 3 - Base turn.
    • ENR 1.5 para 2.7.2
  16. How much clearance is provided by a RTCC? Where is it referenced from?
    • 1000' and 3nm from all known obstacles. RTCC distances and bearings are measured from the radar head unless otherwise stated.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.4.1 Note 1
  17. What is 'Special VFR'?
    • By day when VMC does not exist.
    • For the purpose of entering or leaving CTR.
    • May operate Clear of Cloud.
    • 800m vis.
    • At a speed to see and avoid.
    • ENR 1.2 para 1.2
  18. How long before operating in CTA should you submit details?
    • At least 30 mins before EOBT (Est Off Block Time) is recommended.
    • ENR 1.10 para 2.16
  19. Can you descend below DA/MDA when weather is continuously less than that needed?
    • Only in an emergency.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.6
  20. When ATC issue you a restriction or requirement can that be amended?
    • "If a subsequent restriction/requirement is imposed it will cancel all previous restrictions/requirements unless:
    • 1. all are restated or
    • 2. the subsequent instruction is prefixed ""further requirement"".
    • ENR 1.1 para 3.14"
  21. What is Vat and how do you calculate it?
    • Vat is Velocity at the threshold either - Vso (Stalling speed) x 1.3 or Vs1g (Stalling speed) x 1.23. Both are in landing config and at max cert landing weight.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.2.1
  22. What do runway code numbers represent? What is a STODA?
    • Code Numbers represent the obstacle survey area size for the RWY. STODA is a shorter take-off distance for a set gradient of 1.6% - 1.9% - 2.2% - 2.5% and 3.3%.
    • ERSA INTRO para 1.3.3
  23. When can you request a visual departure?
    • Wx allows VMC climb to MSA/LSALT or VMC cruise at less than LSALT/MSA. During departure a pilot must 1. Track + HDG IAW ATC; 2. >500' above LL CTA; and 3. Vis Obs Clearance.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  24. How much aircraft tracking deviation in CTA for all the different NAV systems?
    • VOR/TACAN: Half scale deflection. NDB/Locator: +- 5 deg. DME: +-2nm. RNAV: +- 2nm. Visual Nav: +-1nm. You must notify ATC if you go outside these tolerances and make corrective action.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  25. How's much must you avoid controlled airspace by?
    • OLD -
    • NDB: 6.9 deg.
    • VOR/TACAN: 5.2 deg.
    • DR: 12 deg (9 deg if initially tracking by navaid).
    • RNAV: 14nm. Visual: 0-2000'AGL = 1nm. 2001'-5000'AGL = 2nm. 5001'-10000'AGL = 4nm.
    • ENR 1.1 para 19.12

    • NEW -
    • If leaving VFR you mustn't allow the aircraft to enter CTA if ATC clearance required or restricted area.
    • ENR 1.1 para 4.1.12
  26. Why are SIDs named weird names like BOGEY THREE?
    • Named by the first enroute WP or a WP within the SID and the amendment status.
    • ENR 1.5 para 8.2.1
  27. What are the approved sources of actual QNH? How long is it valid for?
    • ATC. ATIS. AWIS. and CASA approved met observer.
    • Valid for 15 mins.
    • ENR 1.5 para 5.3.2
  28. When do you need an alternate due lighting?
    • Portable Lgt - Need responsible person.
    • No Stby Pwr - Need responsible person to put out portable lights.
    • PAL + Stby Pwr - Need responsible person to manually switch on stby pwr.
    • PAL at Alt Aerodrome - No responsible person req if dual VHF or single VHF + HF + 30min holding.
    • Responsible person attendance - 30min before ETA until taxi complete. 10min before ETD until T/O + 30min.
    • NB/ Our CASA permit allows us to descend below LSALT so if visual do we need alternate for lightingjQuery112408257295023433324_1535286332911? I think yes because regardless of being visual rules still need alt.
    • ENR 1.1 para 8.8.4
  29. At a CTA will ATC issue a clearance to fly into an adjoining CTR?
    When T/O in a CTA ATC will issue a clearance to operate in adjoining controlled airspace. ENR 1.1 para 2.2.16
  30. If OCTA close to CTA when should you obtain clearance?
    • Before entering the runway for take-off or after take-off provided the aircraft does not enter controlled area until cleared.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.2.17
  31. Does a control instruction amend a clearance? When will a clearance be re-issued?
    • A control instruction issued after a clearance amends the appropriate item in the clearance. A complete clearance will be re-issued when there is any change in the clearance limit or route specified.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.2.13
  32. Who can go into Class E airspace?
    • IFR need clearance. VFR does not require a clearance. But - VFR should avoid IFR routes and holding points & monitor Class E freq to avoid conflict.
    • ENR 1.1 para 3.1 and 3.2
  33. When operating below MDA what is the mimimum obstacle clearance?
    • Pilots should maintain maximum practical obstacle clearance.
    • Mins are - Cat A & B: 300'.
    • Cat C & D: 400'.
    • Cat E: 500'.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.6 note 2
  34. How big is the circling area?
    • Arcs centred on the thresholds of useable RWYs and joined by tangents.
    • A: 1.68nm
    • B: 2.66nm
    • C: 4.20nm
    • D: 5.28nm
    • E: 6.94nm.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.6 note 3
  35. Give an example of a departure report to approach?
    • """ADL APP - RSCU 51 - turning left 200 - Passing 1200 - Climbing 8000"".
    • Dir of turn & hdg - alt passing - assigned level.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.7
  36. What are the handling speeds for a Cat A aircraft?
    • Vat = sct below final rte LSALT +500ft and 8km vis.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  37. What should you note about the spot-heights on IAL charts?
    • Spot-heights must be treated with caution. They do not indicate the highest terrain or all obstacles in the circling area. You should study a topo map.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.5
  38. How long before a flight should you re-check the weather?
    • You should re-check the weather no earlier than 60 mins before departure. However you can depart and get weather within 30 min of departure time.
    • ENR 1.10 para 1.2.8
  39. What are the mandatory read-backs?
    • ATC route clearances
    • En route holding instruction
    • Route and holding pt instructions in taxi clearance
    • Hold short /enter/ line up/ wait/ takeoff from/ cross/ taxi/ backtrack on any rwy or HLS
    • Approach clearance
    • Assigned rwy/HLS
    • Altimeter settings /nab aid freq settings
    • SSR code
    • Level/ dirn of turn/ hdg/ speed
    • GEN 3.4 para 4.4.1
  40. How do distance-to-run markers work on a runway?
    • Single digit indicates thousands of feet to run till end of runway.
    • AD1 para 3.8.2
  41. If told to 'Maintain RWY Heading' should you compensate for wind?
    • No - pilots assigned a HDG must not compensate for wind.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  42. If heading instructions are given on departure what must you read-back?
    • You must read-back HDG and direction of turn also. In a RADAR SID if the assigned HDG is close to RWY heading they will not tell you direction of turn.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  43. What are the emergency transponder codes?
    • MAYDAY - 7700. COMMS - 7600. HIJACK - 7500.
    • ENR 1.6 para 6.4
  44. When can u commence an IFR visual approach by Day?
    • You must be within 30NM
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.15
  45. Can you ever circle in a No-Circling area?
    • You can when DAY VMC.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.2
  46. When circling you must maintain Visual-Contact. What does that mean?
    • You can see 'RWY Threshold OR approach lights OR other markings identifiable with the runway.
    • ENR 1.5 para 1.7.6 c
  47. Your route clearance has a small part OCTA. Do you need clearance to re-enter CTA?
    • Yes.
    • A clearance only clears the flight on the assigned route to the point that it leaves CTA. You must get another clearance if you intend to re-enter CTA.
    • If you remain in CTA then clearance is to first landing point.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.2.7
  48. How do you do 'VFR climb and descent' when IFR?
    • You must request it. VMC + See and Avoid + No Wake Turb seperation + Visual Obs clearance. Tracking. Nav and Reporting as per IFR.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.8.2
  49. IFR and operating 'VFR On-Top' of cloud will you get traffic separation service?What levels?
    • No - You will get traffic information only. Operate at VFR levels.
    • ENR 1.1 para 2.9.1
  50. How accurate must a position estimate be when IFR?
    • Must be within 2 mins or advise ATC.
    • ENR 1.1 para
  51. How low can you go over cities/towns and people?
    • NB 1000ft within 600m radius of the aircraft.
    • FIHA ENR 1.1 para 1.1.1

    • NB 700ft within 350m radius if the aircraft if required per permit
    • Ops Man
  52. What should you be careful of using T-VASIS at night?
    • At night the visible splay is increased from 7.5deg to 30deg either side. This is so you can see it on base. CAUTION - obstacle clearance is not gauranteed till aligned with RWY.
    • AD1 para 5.1.1 Note 1
  53. What side are the red lights on when ON-SLOPE on a PAPI?
    • On slope is 3deg on PAPI. Red lights will always be closest to the RWY when on slope.
    • AD1 para 5.1.2
  54. Are IFR tracks on charts Great Cirles or Rhumblines?
    • IFR chart tracks are Great Circles. This means on long routes the mag track will change as you go along. A Rhumbline has the same magnetic track the whole way.
    • GEN 3.2 para 2.3.1
  55. What is the difference between a METAR and a SPECI?
    • METAR is a routine observation (hourly or half-hourly). SPECI is a special observation where WX is below criteria or has had a significant change.
    • GEN 3.5 para 12.1.1
  56. When MUST you make your departure report to center at a CTAF?
    • When established on the departure track and clear of CCT traffic. If done before established you must advise that you are manoeuvring for track.
    • ENR 1.1 para and 7.4.4
  57. When ATC direct a 'Standard' climb or descent what does that mean?
    • Not less than 500ft/min & last 1000ft shall be at 500ft/min.
    • ENR 1.7 para 4.1.9
  58. When can a pilot be an 'approved met observer'?
    • Aircraft captain when observing vis for take-off or landing.
    • GEN 3.5 para 4.5.2
  59. What are the dry and saturated lapse rates? Why are they different?
    Dry 3deg/1000ft. Saturated 1.5deg/1000ft. In the saturated case when water condenses latent heat is released. This warms the air and reduces the cooling rate.
  60. What is the difference between a SIGMET and an AIRMET?
    • SIGMET is weather which may affect aircraft safety. AIRMET is issued when specified weather has not been included on the GAF.
    • GEN 3.5 para 5.1.1 and 5.3.1
  61. When will a forecast be deemed PROV?
    • When the forecast is issued by a MET office outside its area of authority.
    • GEN 3.5 para 3.5.1
  62. What area does a TAF actually cover?
    • Valid for 5NM from the ARP.
    • GEN 3.5 para 3.4.1
  63. What are the Privileges of instrument rating?
    • The holder of an instrument rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft:
    • (a) under the IFR; or
    • (b) at night under the VFR.
    • And per 61.880
    • CASR 61.855
  64. What is the turb penetration speed?
    Aircraft specific but usually between Vy and Vne IMC
  65. What icing conditions can you fly into in Bell 412?
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WAPOL _ Babcock IFR QUIZ Apr 18
IFR Quiz based on Australian AIP Rules and Regulations as at Apr 2018. Most question\/answers abbreviated.