Perfection

  1. Pertaining to the context of WPB policy ___________ means the duty of all members truthfully acknowledge and explain their actions and decisions w/o deception or subterfuge when requested to do so (SOP I-1 Page 1of 6).

    A) Integrity
    B) Courage
    C) Accountability
    D) Loyalty
    Accountability
  2. Members are accountable for their actions through the chain of command to the agencies:(SOP I-1 Page 2 of 6)

    A) Command Staff
    B) Assistant Chief
    C) Chief Executive Officer
    D) IAU Commander
    Chief Executive Officer
  3. Officers powers and duties are conferred by:(SOP I-1 Page 3 of 6)

    A) Statute
    B) Government
    C) Law
    D) Federal Guidelines
    Statute
  4. What is it when members will not engage in acts of corruption or bribery, nor will a member condone such acts by other members (SOP I-1 Page 5 of 6)?

    A) Honesty
    B) Integrity
    C) Cooperation
    D) Confidence
    Integrity
  5. The acquisition of _________ is a never-ending process of personal and professional development and should be pursued constantly.

    A) Intelligence
    B) Power
    C) Strength
    D) Knowledge
    Knowledge
  6. The public demands the integrity of all members of the police department is: (SOP I-1 Page 5 of 6)

    A) Courteous
    B) Respectful
    C) Good character
    D) Above reproach
    Above reproach
  7. It is the right and privilege of the ________ to change or modify the order of precedence of command to assure the efficiency and effectiveness of police operations unless otherwise dictated by a higher, competent authority.

    A) City Commission
    B) Mayor
    C) City Manager
    D) Chief of Police
    Chief of Police
  8. During a Chief of Police vacancy, the ______ will have the highest command authority to include issuing final discipline.

    A) City Manager
    B) City Commission
    C) Assistant Chief
    D) Mayor or his/her designee
    Mayor or his/her designee
  9. Reasonable suspicion is more than a mere hunch, but is set on a set of articulable acts and circumstances that would warrant a person of reasonable caution to believe an infraction of law has been committed, about to be committed or is in the process; this is also known as:

    A) Probable cause
    B) Consensual Encounter
    C) Articulable Suspicion
    D) Reliable Source
    Articulable Suspicion
  10. The appropriate enforcement action will be completed in the form of Citation, Arrest or:

    A) Warning
    B) NTA
    C) Summons
    D) City Ordinance Citation
    Warning
  11. An employee assigned to duties during hurricane conditions should be prepared to be self-sufficient for ___ hours.

    A) 72
    B) 48
    C) 24
    D) 96
    72
  12. What does E.L.V.I.S. stand for?

    A) Electronic License and Vehicle Information Sound
    B) Electronic Learning and Vehicle Information System
    C) Electronic License and Vehicle Information System
    D) Electronic Learning and Vehicle Intro System
    Electronic License and Vehicle Information System
  13. Exigency is based on the officers’ obligation to protect:

    A) Property and people
    B) Life and property
    C) Children and Animals
    D) Life and Businesses
    Life and property
  14. A warrantless entry is justified under this doctrine when a subject is known to be violent inside a residence.

    A) Good faith
    B) Emergency Aid
    C) Edwards Rule
    D) Exigent Circumstances
    Emergency Aid
  15. A defendant will be released on the ___day and with a showing of good faith cause by the state order release on the ___ day.

    A) 36, 45
    B) 27, 35
    C) 40, 50
    D) 33, 40
    • 33, 40
  16. A defendant may not be detained for more than ___ days prior to trial unless a trial delay is requested by the defendant.

    A) 60
    B) 75
    C) 90
    D) 120
    90
  17. A defendant in custody who is charged with an offense, shall have a non-advisory PC hearing within ___ hours of their arrest.

    A) 48
    B) 72
    C) 24
    D) 96
    48
  18. The 5 levels of Leadership define “Leading” as a verb not a noun, it also states that leadership is a ___________ not a position (Page 4).

    A) Procedure
    B) Action
    C) Task
    D) Process
    Process
  19. The 5 Levels of Leadership aligns Leadership, practices _________________ and values (Page 5).

    A) Principles
    B) Honor
    C) Determination
    D) Integrity
    Principles
  20. The 5 Levels of Leadership would consider the phrase “Harsh words fall on deaf ears” a ___________ (Page 5).


    A) Practice
    B) Principle
    C) Value
    D) Wise Quote
    Principle
  21. Which one of the Levels of Leadership states “People follow because of who you are and what you represent” (Page 6)?

    A) Position
    B) Pinnacle
    C) People Development
    D) Permission
    Pinnacle
  22. Which one of the Levels of Leadership states “People follow because of what you have done for the organization” (Page 6)?

    A) Position
    B) Pinnacle
    C) Production
    D) Pinnacle
    Production
  23. Which one of the Levels of Leadership states “People follow you because they want to” (Page 6)?

    A) Permission
    B) People Development
    C) Position
    D) Pinnacle
    Permission
  24. Which one of the Levels of Leadership states “People follow you because they have to” (Page 6)?

    A) Pinnacle
    B) Production
    C) People Development
    D) Position
    Position
  25. Which Level of Leadership is based on the rights granted by the ______ (Page 7)?

    A) Production
    B) Pinnacle
    C) Permission
    D) Position
    Position
  26. Which Level of Leadership is based entirely on relationship and states “You can like people without leading them, but you cannot lead people well without liking them” (Page 8)?

    A) Production
    B) People Development
    C) Permission
    D) Pinnacle
    Permission
  27. What level of Leadership is it when legendary former NFL quarterback, Joe Namath said “When you’re winning, nothing hurts” (Page 8)?

    A) Production
    B) Permission
    C) People Development
    D) Pinnacle
    Production
  28. On Level 3 Leadership, Leaders can become _______ ________ and tackle tough problems and face thorny issues (Page 9).

    A) Freedom Fighters
    B) Change Agents
    C) Optimal Enforcers
    D) Effective Supervisors
    Change Agents
  29. In Level 4 (People Development). Leaders become great, not because of their power, but their ability to _________ others (Page 9)

    A) Motivate
    B) Exemplify
    C) Empower
    D) Unify
    Empower
  30. Level 5 Leadership is the most difficult level to climb, Pinnacle Leadership not only requires effort, skill and intentionality, but also requires a high level of _______ (Page 9).

    A) Intellect
    B) Wisdom
    C) Talent
    D) Faith
    Talent
  31. When an officer makes a “Lawful stop”, he or she can detain a suspect for a brief time to investigate criminal activity, this is also known as:

    A) Terry Stop
    B) Detainment
    C) Temporary Investigative Detention
    D) Arrest
    Temporary Investigative Detention
  32. If a L.E.O. has information amounting to PC, he or she can communicate that PC to an officer who lacks the knowledge for purposes of the second officer making the arrest, this is known as:

    A) Edwards Rule
    B) Good Faith Doctrine
    C) Emergency Aid Doctrine
    D) Fellow Officers Rule
    Fellow Officers Rule
  33. If the accused indicates in any manner during an interrogation that he or she wishes to consult an attorney or does not want to be interrogated anymore is known as:

    A) Edwards Rule
    B) Miranda Warning
    C) Cease all contact
    D) Waiver of Rights
    Edwards Rule
  34. The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that when a suspect who has requested an attorney is re-released from pretrial custody, how many days must go by before the Edwards Rule no longer applies?

    A) 21
    B) 30
    C) 7
    D) 14
    14
  35. The officer seeking a search warrant (informant’s info) should also show that the informants information is credible’ this is also known as:

    A) Basis of consent
    B) Basis of knowledge
    C) Basis of credibility
    D) Basis of reliability
    Basis of knowledge
  36. When it comes searches W/O a search warrant Florida State Statute allows LEO’s to conduct warrantless searches for, discover the fruits of the crime, prevent the person from escaping and;

    A) Protect citizens
    B) Protect life and property
    C) Protect the officer from attack
    D) Protect our way of life
    Protect the officer from attack
  37. An officer must execute a search warrant within ___ days of issuance.

    A) 7
    B) 21
    C) 10
    D) 14
    10
  38. Warrantless ______ or any other physical manipulation by police of luggage in the overhead compartment of a vehicle or other publicly accessible violates the fourth amendment.

    A) Grabbing
    B) Poking
    C) Squeezing
    D) Prodding
    Squeezing
  39. What department maintains centralized control of department requisitions, processed, pending and completed forms?

    A) Fiscal Service Section
    B) Logistics and Quartermaster
    C) Human Resources
    D) Support Services Division
    Support Services Division
  40. The Department prohibits establishing an informant who is less than ___ years of age.

    A) 17
    B) 18
    C) 16
    D) 21
    16
  41. The department discourages establishing any informants less than ____ years of age

    A) 17
    B) 21
    C) 16
    D) 18
    18
  42. When an informant has been deactivated the SID commander will type a memo and scan the memo into the:

    A) RMS data base
    B) NCIC/FCIC
    C) PALMS
    D) Intel Module
    Intel Module
  43. Who is responsible for the investigative funds in SID?

    A) IA Commander
    B) A/C
    C) Investigative Services Bureau Commander
    D) SID Sergeant
    Investigative Services Bureau Commander
  44. What is amount that will not be exceeded in SID unless otherwise designated by the Chief of Police (SOP IV-8 Page 4 of 11)?

    A) $60,000
    B) $75,000
    C) $50,000
    D) $100,000
    $50,000
  45. If the amount of expenditure exceeds $_____ approval of the SID commander is required on the IFE form (SOP IV-8 Page 10 of 11).

    A) $1000
    B) $500
    C) $750
    D) $1200
    $500
  46. What unit will conduct an audit and expenditure of funds quarterly and at the any other time an audit is requested by the Chief of Police.

    A) IA unit
    B) Human Resources
    C) Fiscal Services
    D) Staff Inspection
    Staff Inspection
  47. Officers will utilize the ______ to draft the search warrant application and affidavit.

    A) County Clerks form
    B) IA forms
    C) E-warrant system
    D) SAO
    E-warrant system
  48. Upon completion of a _______ search, all search team members will meet at a predetermined location too account for every members’ safety and critique the search.

    A) Consent to
    B) Low Risk
    C) E-Warrant
    D) High Risk
    High Risk
  49. The CIT Team Supervisors provide a “Notification List for Critical Incidents” which is kept on file with:

    A) Dispatch Operations
    B) IA Office
    C) Shift Commanders office
    D) Captains office
    Dispatch Operations
  50. Which one is NOT notified when a Critical Incident occurs?

    A) PIO
    B) Crime Scene Supervisor
    C) IA Commander
    D) Mayor
    Mayor
  51. When a subject refuses to sign or is violent (Miranda Card) and cannot be uncuffed the officer will write: (SOP III-1 Page 3)

    A) Refused and or Combative
    B) Combative and or Unconscious
    C) Refused and or Violent
    D) Refused and or non-Compliant
    Refused and or Violent
  52. Discretion may be used when an arrest would not be in the best interest of justice, _______ or the welfare of the public: (SOP III-1 Page 3).

    A) Equality
    B) Decency
    C) Honesty
    D) Fairness
    Fairness
  53. A strip search will be performed by an officer of the same gender as the arrested person pursuant to FSS (SOP III-1 Page 4).

    A) 211
    B) 316
    C) 324
    D) 853
    211
  54. When an officer makes an arrest based on another officers PC, the arresting officer will submit a supplemental report within ______ days: (SOP III-1 Page 7).

    A) 3
    B) 5
    C) 4
    D) 2
    4
  55. If an arrest has not been made within 10 days of a signed PC Affidavit, The PC will remain in the “Wanted Folder” for an additional _________ days:  (SOP III-1 Page 8).

    A) 25
    B) 30
    C) 40
    D) 35
    35
  56. Should the wanted subject/suspect to be taken into custody by one of our officers (arresting officers). The arresting officer will complete a ___________ to cancel the warrant and attach it to a copy of the completed NTA and PC: (SOP III-1 Page 8).

    A) Felony Intake Memorandum
    B) Memo
    C) Supplement
    D) Cancelation Warrant Memorandum
    Felony Intake Memorandum
  57. What department issues identification document to foreign government personnel who are entitled to immunity ____: (SOP III-1 Page 9).

    A) DOJ
    B) The United States department of State, Office of Protocol
    C) State Department
    D) FBI
    The United States department of State, Office of Protocol
  58. Warrant information from agencies outside Palm Beach County will be verified by _____: (SOP III-1 Page 9).

    A) Dispatch
    B) Shift Supervisor
    C) NCIC/FCIC
    D) Teletype
    Teletype
  59. An effort will be made by officers to issue a Notice to Appear to persons who are permanent residents of Palm Beach, Broward, Martin and ____ county: (Sop III-1 Page 11).

    A) Hendry
    B) Miami Dade
    C) Hillsborough
    D) Lee
    Hendry
  60. Diplomats are immune from arrests and may only be detained only for the time necessary to confirm their status with ______:  (SOP III-1 Page 14).

    A) DOJ
    B) Secretary of State
    C) State Department
    D) Office of Protocol
    Office of Protocol
  61. Which one of the following DOES have immunity _______ for diplomats: (SOP III-1 Page 15).

    A) Prevention of serious criminal acts
    B) Possession of Cocaine
    C) Public Safety
    D) Self-Defense.
    Possession of Cocaine
  62. Which one of the following factors is NOT one of the following that may permit or preclude the return of property: (SOP III-2 Page 10).

    A) Proof of Ownership
    B) Whether the property is being held as evidence or investigation is ongoing
    C) Whether the property is being held through a court order or injunction
    D) None of the Above
    None of the Above
  63. When a juvenile has been ordered by the court to a DJJ facility this is also known as: (SOP III-8 Page 1).

    A) Involuntary Placement
    B) Committed
    C) Court Ordered
    D) Amber Plan
    Committed
  64. When a juvenile has been ordered by the court to a facility other than DJJ, this is also known as: (SOP III-8 Page 2).

    A) Court Ordered
    B) Committed
    C) Involuntary Placement
    D) Juvenile Absconder
    Court Ordered
  65. The West Palm Beach Police Department mission statement states the department “Provides a safe place to live, visit and _______ (Mission Statement).

    A) Admire
    B) Vacation
    C) Stay
    D) Work
    Work
  66. When prisoners are in holding rooms, the officer must check on their well-being at intervals of no more than ______.

    A) 15 minutes
    B) 20 minutes
    C) 10 minutes
    D) 25 minutes
    15 minutes
  67. Who is responsible for retention of the juvenile and adult log-in books and the holding room log sheets?

    A) Accreditation
    B) Records Section
    C) FDLE
    D) Human Resources
    Records Section
  68. Every effort will be made to release or transport he prisoner within ____ hours.

    A) 6
    B) 8
    C) 4
    D) 5
    4
  69. Under no circumstances will a prisoner be held longer than ____ hours.

    A) 8
    B) 12
    C) 10
    D) 6
    6
  70. Who has the authority to order the release of a prisoner when the person is injured and charged with a misdemeanor crime (s) that meets the NTA criteria?

    A) Field Sergeant
    B) Shift Commander
    C) Captain
    D) Sergeant on scene
    Shift Commander
  71. The 6-hour start time limit of a juvenile in secure custody DOES not include which one of the followings (SOP III-3 Page 10).

    A) Locked booking area
    B) Locked back seat of a police car
    C) Locked office
    D) Locked holding room
    Locked back seat of a police car
  72. When Juveniles are arrested for felonies and certain misdemeanors will processed, fingerprinted and _______ according to FSS 985.11 (Hint: this is a verbatim answer)

    A) Photographed
    B) Imaged
    C) Scanned
    D) Held secure
    Imaged
  73. When a juvenile commits a crime that adult would commit that would be a felony or the crime involves the use of violence, during school hours, who will be notified immediately?

    A) School Board police
    B) The parent of the juvenile
    C) The appropriate school principal
    D) The JAC
    The appropriate school principal
  74. Any equipment or devices damaged will be reported to the building Facilities Supervisor or designee and to the on-duty Shift Commander who will notify the ________ for the inclusion on the daily check list.

    A) Division II daytime Shift Commander
    B) Division I daytime Shift Commander
    C) North Captain
    D) South Captain
    Division II daytime Shift Commander
  75. Court held that an anonymous tip may permit reasonable suspicion stop but only after the tip has been ______________ (FL Guide).

    A) Independently Corroborated
    B) Investigated thoroughly
    C) Checked through an informant
    D) Corroborated by a supervisor
    Independently Corroborated
  76. Frisk can be used to feel for any weapons and it essentially is a “______” of the suspect (FL Guide).

    A) Search
    B) Pat down
    C) Manipulation
    D) Squeezing
    Pat down
  77. Which one of these is sufficient to establish reasonable suspicion justifying a pat down search for weapons (FL Guide)?

    A) Not answering questions (Consensual encounter)
    B) Furtive Movements
    C) Standing in a high crime area
    D) Disrespecting an officer
    Furtive Movements
  78. When does an officer not need any reasonable suspicion to frisk a person other than giving consent (FL Guide, Williams V. State 1981)?

    A) When a subject is part of an investigation
    B) When a subject is standing in a crowd where a homicide occurred
    C) When the person becomes a voluntary passenger in the officer’s vehicle
    D) When subjects yell out profanity
    When the person becomes a voluntary passenger in the officer’s vehicle
  79. Be aware that there is no ________ right to frisk a suspect during an investigating stop as matter of routine (FL Guide).

    A) Justifiable
    B) Exigent
    C) PC
    D) Automatic
    Automatic
  80. Based on current manpower allocations, each platoon should consist of a minimum of ____ officers, ____ Sergeants and ____ Lieutenants.

    A) 21, 4 and 2
    B) 23, 4 and 2
    C) 24, 4 and 2
    D) 20, 4 and 2
    24, 4 and 2
  81. Alarm calls canceled prior to arrival shall be cleared with a disposition of “____” cancel per complainant and a CAD entry will be completed.

    A) “PER”
    B) “A”
    C) “Z”
    D) “WEA”
    “PER”
  82. Alarm calls canceled at the discretion of a supervisor shall be cleared with a disposition of “____” other and a CAD entry will be completed.

    A) “WEA”
    B) “Z”
    C) “A”
    D) “PER”
    “Z”
  83. The CID supervisor will determine if using the “Amber Plan” is warranted, but _____ will make the final decision to utilize the Amber Alert System.

    A) DCF
    B) Chief of Police
    C) FDLE
    D) FBI
    FDLE
  84. Which one of these DO NOT fit the endangered person criteria for an Amber Alert Plan?

    A) There must be a clear indication of abduction
    B) Preliminary Investigation must conclude the child’s life is in danger
    C) Clear description of the child, abductor and/or vehicle to broadcast to the public
    D) Habitual runaways
    Habitual runaways
  85. Dating violence between individuals who have or have had a continuing and significant relationship of romantic or intimate nature that has existed within the past ______ months.

    A) 6 months
    B) 9 months
    C) 3 months
    D) 12 months
    6 months
  86. When complaints (domestic) are received from ____ or more parties, the officer will evaluate each complaint separately and determine the primary aggressor.

    A) 1
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 2
    2
  87. Whether an arrest or not has been made in a domestic violence case a copy of the report will be sent to the Victim Services Center within _____ hours by Records Administration pursuant FSS 741.29.

    A) 12
    B) 48
    C) 24
    D) 72
    24
  88. When the respondent is charged solely with committing an act in violation of an injunction for protection against domestic violence which has created a threat of significant danger to the petitioner, the respondent should be charged with “_______- violation of Domestic Violence Injunction” per FSS 900.04.

    A) Protection Injunction violation
    B) Contempt of Court
    C) Protective Order
    D) No contact order
    Contempt of Court
  89. How many days will a “Proof of Service” document expire once the document has been issued to the respondent (defendant) when it comes to Civil Service (Serving the injunction for protection against domestic violence, SOP III-9 Pg. 18)?

    A) 15
    B) 20
    C) 30
    D) 45
    15
  90. What is the ACTUAL issue date of the protection order when it comes to Civil Service (SOP III-9 Pg. 18)?

    A) When the clerk of the courts stamps the order
    B) When the officer issues the order
    C) When the judge signs the order
    D) The date and time officer writes the report
    When the judge signs the order
  91. Any WPBPD Officer who has been served with an injunction for protection against domestic violence within _____ hours will provide written notification to the appropriate Bureau Commander.

    A) 12
    B) 36
    C) 48
    D) 24
    24
  92. Who maintains a supply of extra body armor for the new hires until their personal body armor is delivered?

    A) Range master
    B) Quartermaster
    C) Training Sergeant
    D) Training Commander
    Quartermaster
  93. All sworn personnel may wear a ______ or a ______ shirt next to the body armor and the uniform shirt.

    A) Blue crew neck; White tee shirt
    B) Dark blue crew neck; White V-neck tee shirt
    C) Blue dry fit shirt; Black dry fit shirt
    D) Dark blue dry fit; Black dry fit shirt
    Dark blue crew neck; White V-neck tee shirt
  94. Who will be notified any time a weapon is discharged by sworn personnel of the department, excluding training or recreational activities?

    A) CIT commander
    B) SID commander
    C) IAU commander
    D) CID commander
    IAU commander
  95. What is the retention period (BWC) for a complaint (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 90 days
    B) 120 days
    C) 180 days
    D) Open-manual deletion
    Open-manual deletion
  96. What is the retention period (BWC) for an ECD firing log(SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 7 years
    B) 10 years
    C) 15 years
    D) 20 years
    20 years
  97. What is the retention period (BWC) for a City Attorney(SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 4 years
    B) 7 years
    C) 10 years
    D) 20 years
    10 years
  98. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Citation(SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 90 days
    B) 120 days
    C) 4 years
    D) 7 years
    120 days
  99. Who will redact exempt footage, pursuant to state statute, prior to release (BWC footage)?

    A) CSI
    B) Quartermaster
    C) Police Record Specialists
    D) IA
    Police Record Specialists
  100. Which location is NOT a highly sensitive personal location when BWC are recording and would not be redacted upon request?

    A) Schools after hours
    B) Healthcare facilities
    C) Mental facilities
    D) Inside private residence
    Schools after hours
  101. Each due paying member shall contribute ____ hours of annual leave to the association time pool.  This time will be deducted in the ________pay period of October (PBA Page 9).

    A) 2, First
    B) 4, Second
    C) 3, First
    D) 5, Second
    4, Second
  102. All formal interrogation shall be audio recorded or preserved in such a manner as to allow a transcript to be prepared, and there shall be no unrecorded questions or statements.  A copy of the recording must be made available within ___ hours exclusive of holidays and weekends (PBA page ).

    A) 24
    B) 48
    C) 72
    D) 96
    72
  103. When an officer is on paid administrative leave in excess of _____ days and is subsequently returned to duty as a result of being exonerated or if all charges against him are unfounded or unsubstantiated that officer will be reimbursed for missed over time (PBA Page 17).

    A) 30
    B) 45
    C) 60
    D) 90
    30
  104. Who does the union file their appeal of disciplinary action with?

    A) City Manager
    B) Human Resources
    C) Employee Relations Manager
    D)Senior Employee Relations Representative
    Senior Employee Relations Representative
  105. How soon must the Senior Employee Relations Representative respond to an appeal of disciplinary action?

    A) 5 Days
    B) 10 days
    C) 20 days
    D) 30 days
    10 days
  106. Which one of these actions IS NOT governed by the PBA when it comes to seniority (PBA Page 21)?

    A) Layoffs
    B) Choosing a Patrol Vehicle
    C) Shift Vacancy
    D) Vacation Preference
    Choosing a Patrol Vehicle
  107. No person shall be passed over for a promotion by selecting a lower ranked employee on more than _______ occasions.

    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    4
  108. In the event that travel of ______ miles or more one way is required, additional _____ days of bereavement leave will be granted by the Police Chief (PBA Page 28).

    A) 300, 3
    B) 400, 4
    C) 400, 2
    D) 500, 3
    400, 2
  109. How long does an employee have to provide proof of the deceased family member?

    A) 20 days upon returning back to work
    B) 45 days upon returning back to work
    C) 60 days upon returning back to work
    D) 30 days upon returning back to work
    30 days upon returning back to work
  110. An employee on Worker’s Comp for an on duty, job-related injury is authorized to be absent from work until he or she reached maximum medical improvement or ____ weeks, whichever comes first.

    A) 110
    B) 104
    C) 92
    D) 96
    104
  111. No more than _____ patrol officers per shift will be allowed to take annual/vacation leave at any given time.

    A) 2
    B) 4
    C) 3
    D) 5
    3
  112. If an employee is released to return to work (from injury) and refuses, after how many days’ absence will the employee be deemed to have resigned?

    A) 3
    B) 5
    C) 7
    D) 10
    3
  113. In regard to drug testing after an at-fault motor vehicle accident: A ________ or higher ranking employee is authorized to make the determination after consultation with one of the following: Chief of Police, Risk Management, Human Resources Director, City Attorney, Assistant City Administrator, and City Administrator.

    A) Sergeant on scene
    B) Shift Commander
    C) Highest ranking officer
    D) THI Sergeant
    Shift Commander
  114. What is the hazardous duty pay for the motor unit?

    A) $60.00 per paycheck
    B) $70.00 per paycheck
    C) $75.00 Per paycheck
    D) $80.00 per paycheck
    $75.00 Per paycheck
  115. Aggrieved employee presents a written signed grievance or dispute to their immediate supervisor within ____ calendar days of occurrence or knowledge of the matter giving rise to the grievance.  The supervisor will attempt to remedy the matter and respond within ____ working days.

    A) 7, 5
    B) 5, 5
    C) 10, 5
    D) 7, 3
    5, 5
  116. If the grievance or dispute process is not resolved by your immediate supervisor the grievance or dispute may be appealed to their Division Commander, which must be signed and in writing, within _____ working days after the supervisor’s response is due.  The Division Commander shall respond within ____ working days

    A) 5, 5
    B) 7, 5
    C) 10, 5
    D) 7, 10
    5, 5
  117. If the grievance or dispute is not resolved by the Division Commander the grievance or dispute may be appealed to the Police Chief, signed and in writing, within_____ days.  The Police Chief shall respond within _____ working days.

    A) 10, 7
    B) 5, 10
    C) 5, 7
    D) 10, 5
    5, 10
  118. If the grievance or dispute has not been resolved by the Chief of Police, a signed written appeal may be presented to the Senior Employee Relations Representative within _____ working days after the Police Chief’s response is due.  The Senior Employee Relations Representative shall respond in writing within _____ working days.

    A) 10, 15
    B) 7, 10
    C) 10, 7
    D) 7, 5
    7, 10
  119. If a grievance is not resolved through the Grievance Procedure or the appeal of a disciplinary action is upheld, how many days does the Association have to file for arbitration with the Senior Employee Relations Representative?

    A) 7 working days
    B) 10 working days
    C) 5 working days
    D) 14 working days
    5 working days
  120. The requesting party, within ten (10) working days after timely submission for arbitration, shall submit the grievance in writing to the Federal Mediation Conciliation Service (FMCS), with a copy to the non-requesting party. How many arbitrators should be on the request list with the grievance?

    A) 5 which (1) shall be selected by alternate striking
    B) 7 which (1) shall be selected by alternate striking
    C) 9 which (1) shall be selected by alternate striking
    D) 10 which (1) shall be selected by alternate striking
    7 which (1) shall be selected by alternate striking
  121. If the requesting party fails to move forward within _____ days after the selection of the arbitrator, then the arbitration shall be deemed withdrawn.

    A) 14
    B) 21
    C) 30
    D) 35
    30
  122. How long does the arbitrator have to render his award?

    A) No later than fourteen (14) calendar days from the date of the closing of the hearing
    B) No later than twenty (20) calendar days from the date of the closing of the hearing
    C) No later than twenty-five (25) calendar days from the date of the closing of the hearing
    D) No later than thirty (30) calendar days from the date of the closing of the hearing
    No later than twenty (20) calendar days from the date of the closing of the hearing
  123. The association agrees to remit the City the amount of ______ annually for the administrative and data processing cost of providing a roster (bargaining unit, names, address, DOB, SS# and current pay) to the PBA.

    A) $40.00
    B) $35.00
    C) $30.00
    D) $25.00
    $25.00
  124. A complaint review board shall be composed of three members, unless the agencies or units have more than _____ law enforcement officers, then he board shall utilize a _______.

    A) 200, Five-member board
    B) 300, Ten-member board
    C) 100, Five-member board
    D) 200, Seven-member board,
    100, Five-member board
  125. A treadmill stress test will be given at age’s ____ and ______.

    A) 35 and 40
    B) 40 and 45
    C) 35 and 38
    D) 45 and 48
    35 and 38
  126. The most intrusive actions a police officer can take is (FLG Page LG 2).

    A) Arrest
    B) Temporary Detainment
    C) Custodial Custody
    D) Consensual encounter
    Arrest
  127. An anonymous 911 call is received of a subject lifting door handles to vehicles on the street. When the police arrived, they observed the subject standing next a vehicle but took flight upon seeing the officers patrol vehicle. While the subject ran he threw down two small baggies of cocaine and ran inside of house which turned out to be his actual residence. What are the officer’s options: (FLG-LG 3 Payton V New York 1980)?

    A) The officers can make a warrantless arrest due to the fact the subject committed a felony by throwing down the baggies of cocaine
    B) The officers gained consent by the only adult home which was the babysitter and can enter the home to effect an arrest.
    C) The officer must make an ID and obtain an arrest warrant before entering the residence.
    D) The officer can enter the residence and covered by the Good Faith Doctrine.
    The officer must make an ID and obtain an arrest warrant before entering the residence.
  128. What case law applies to the reasonableness standard in determining whether excessive force is used (FLG).

    A) Tennessee Vs Garner
    B) Graham Vs Conner
    C) Scott Vs Harris
    D) Williams Vs State
    Graham Vs Conner
  129. A principal may be arrested by his surety (bail bondsmen) within ____ years from the date of the forfeiture of the bond (FLG).

    A) 4 years
    B) 3 years
    C) 2 years
    D) 5 years
    2 years
  130. If a law enforcement officer has information that amounts to probable cause, he or she can communicate that probable cause to an officer who lacks that knowledge for purposes of the second officer making an arrest is what? (FLG)

    A) Good Faith Doctrine
    B) Fellow Officer Rule
    C) Creditable Witness
    D) Probable Cause
    Fellow Officer Rule
  131. How many days must a suspect be released from custody before an officer can reinitiate questioning without the presence of an attorney (FLG)?

    A) 10
    B) 21
    C) 14
    D) 30
    14
  132. Which one of the following items are considered in determining a juvenile’s Miranda waiver was voluntary (FLG)?

    A) The age, experience, background, and mental capacity of the child
    B) The age, experience, background, and intelligence of the child
    C) The age, experience, background, and competency of the child
    D) The age, experience, background, and wisdom of the child
    The age, experience, background, and intelligence of the child
  133. What are the time periods for a speedy trial when it comes to a misdemeanor (FLG)?

    A) 60 days
    B) 90 days
    C) 120 days
    D) 145 days
    90 days
  134. What are the time periods for a speedy trial when it comes to a felony (FLG)?

    A) 150 days
    B) 160 days
    C) 180 days
    D) 175 days
    175 days
  135. What are the time periods for a speedy trial when it comes to if felony and a misdemeanor are consolidated (FLG)?

    A) 150 days
    B) 175 days
    C) 180 days
    D) 190 days
    175 days
  136. What are the time periods for a speedy trial for a traffic infraction (FLG)?

    A) 180 days
    B) 190 days
    C) 200 days
    D) 210 days
    180 days
  137. How soon must a recovery agent notify the local law enforcement agency of a repossession (FLG)?

    A) Within 2 hours
    B) Within 4 hours
    C) Within 6 hours
    D) Within 8 hours
    Within 2 hours
  138. When a consensual encounter is transformed into a detention if a pat-down is conducted, what case law does this pertain to?

    A) Florida v Royer
    B) C.W. v State
    C) S. v Mendenhall
    D) Caldwell v State
    Caldwell v State
  139. How long may meeting notices and special information notices remain on the bulletin boards?

    A) 7 days
    B) 10 days
    C) 14 days
    D) 21 days
    14 days
  140. How often does the Labor Management Committee meet?

    A) Monthly
    B) Quarterly
    C) Semi-annual
    D) Annually
    Quarterly
  141. The Law of the Lid in “The 21 Irrefutable Laws of Leadership” states: (Page 16).

    A) Leadership practice determines a person’s level of effectiveness
    B) Leadership ability determines a person’s level of effectiveness
    C) Leadership traits determines a person’s level of effectiveness
    D) Leadership style determines a person’s level of effectiveness
    Leadership ability determines a person’s level of effectiveness
  142. The 5 Levels of Leadership states that the Law of Respect says: (Page 16).

    A) People naturally follow leaders stronger then themselves
    B) People intentionally follow leaders stronger then themselves
    C) People forcefully follow leaders stronger then themselves
    D) People inherently follow leaders stronger then themselves
    People naturally follow leaders stronger then themselves
  143. Positional leaders are reluctant to have to start over because they think of leadership as a ________________ instead of a process (Page 18).

    A) Destination
    B) Landing Place
    C) Objective
    D) Purpose
    Destination
  144. One of Maxwell’s favorite sayings is “If you think you’re leading and no one is following, then you are taking a_________ (Page 18).

    A) Stroll
    B) Run
    C) Jog
    D) Walk
    Walk
  145. As Quaker leader C. W. Perry said, “Leadership is __________ people where they are, then taking them somewhere” (Page 19).

    A) Finding
    B) Accepting
    C) Motivating
    D) Challenging
    Accepting
  146. The best leaders promote people into leadership based on leadership __________ (Page 42).

    A) Seniority
    B) Credentials
    C) Convenience
    D) Potential
    Potential
  147. John Wooden, the legendary UCLA basketball coach who was a fantastic leader When it came to pick a captain for his team he would tell them, “Don’t tell me what you’re going to do, ________ me what you’re going to do” (Page 42).

    A) Show
    B) Display
    C) Convey
    D) Manifest
    Show
  148. In the Infantryman’s journal (1954) says: (Page 43).

    A) “No man is a leader until his appointment is confirmed in the minds and the hearts of his men”
    B) “No man is a leader until his appointment is ratified in the minds and the hearts of his men”
    C) “No man is a leader until his appointment is validated in the minds and the hearts of his men”
    D) “No man is a leader until his appointment is sanctioned in the minds and the hearts of his men”
    “No man is a leader until his appointment is ratified in the minds and the hearts of his men”
  149. In the “Position” leadership Maxwell states that you will be tempted to stop and “_______”, meaning you’ll stay where you are and enjoy the position’s benefits, instead of striving to grow and become the best leader you can (Page 43).

    A) Feed
    B) Ruminate
    C) Nibble
    D) Graze
    Graze
  150. Which one of these are NOT considered the list of P’s when a group is asked, what’s the one thing they would change to improve the effectiveness of an organization (Page 43)?

    A) Products
    B) Promotions
    C) Politics
    D) Pricing
    Politics (Six Ps - products, promotion, policies, procedures, pricing, and people)
  151. The tenant has a right to enter the premise he/she is renting until legally evicted, and the property owner may not prevent entry by changing the locks. However, what is the exception according the Legal Guidelines: (FLG LG 62).

    A) Once the tenant stops paying the rent the property owner can issue a 3-day notice and have the tenant evicted after the 3 days.
    B) If the tenant occupies and uses the premises without any sort of agreement (either oral or written) and without providing anything in return for the right to remain. This is considered a gratuitous guest and can be removed for any reason by the owner processor of the property.
    C) The tenant decides to stay up all night playing music and disturbing the neighborhood.
    D) The tenant decides to let their significant other stay over for two weeks and not pay any rent or utilities.
    • If the tenant occupies and uses the premises without any sort of
    • agreement (either oral or written) and without providing anything in
    • return for the right to remain. This is considered a gratuitous guest
    • and can be removed for any reason by the owner processor of the
    • property.
  152. A recovery (repossession) agent must have a class __ license issued by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services (FLG FL-62).

    A) Class B
    B) Class C
    C) Class A
    D) Class E or EE
    Class E or EE
  153. A recovery agent drives up to the home and observes the vehicle underneath the carport and the fence slightly open. What can the recovery agent do (FLG FL-62)?

    A) The recovery agent cannot go onto the property until the owner of the property comes home to give the agent permission.
    B) The recovery agent can repossess the vehicle since the fence was not locked and slightly opened.
    C) The recovery agent can hook the vehicle but must wait for the property owner to come home.
    D) The recovery agent calls the local PD and tows the vehicle when the police arrive.
    The recovery agent cannot go onto the property until the owner of the property comes home to give the agent permission.
  154. If a subject refuse to pay for a repair bill because the vehicle was not properly fixed the subject can go to the clerk of the courts and post a bond on the vehicle. The clerk than would issue a certificate to have the repair shop release the vehicle. If the repair shop refuses to release the vehicle what degree of crime is this (FLG-LG63)?

    A) Third degree felony
    B) First degree Misdemeanor
    C) Second Degree Felony
    D) Second Degree Misdemeanor
    Second Degree Misdemeanor
  155. When it comes to removal or towing of vehicles illegally parked on private property (sign MUST be posted), the property owner can have the vehicle removed w/o enduring any cost to the property owner. If the person (owner/driver) seeks the return of the vehicle in the process of the vehicle or vessel being towed or removed, it: (FLG-LG63).

    A) Must be towed since the vehicle or vessel was already hooked prior to the person requesting the vehicle or vessel returned.
    B) Will be the responsibility of the property owner to cover the cost of the tow and release the vehicle to the person.
    C) Must be returned if the person pays reasonable service fee (not more than half the posted rate for towing or removal service) after being given a reasonable opportunity to do so.
    D) The tow or removal service company can have the person follow them to the yard for dismissal of the vehicle or vessel without cost.
    • Must be returned if the person pays reasonable service fee (not more
    • than half the posted rate for towing or removal service) after being
    • given a reasonable opportunity to do so.
  156. When does the time start or a speedy trial when a person is arrested or given an NTA to appear in court (FLG -LG 51)?

    A) The time starts 24 hours after the booking of an arrestee
    B) The time starts 2 hours when the booking facility completes the proper paper work
    C) The time upon the actual physical arrest of the arrestee
    D) The time starts 48 hours after the arrestee is booked.
    The time upon the actual physical arrest of the arrestee
  157. When a person willfully refused to accept and sign a summons for traffic is guilty of a: (FLG-LG 51).

    A) Second Degree Misdemeanor
    B) Third Degree Misdemeanor
    C) First Degree Misdemeanor
    D) Third Degree Felony
    Second Degree Misdemeanor
  158. What is when police may act in other ways to help the public whether it be to render assistance to individuals in need or to provide protection for rights and property of members of the public: (FLG-LG 46).

    A) The Caretaker Doctrine
    B) The Good Faith Doctrine
    C) The fellow Officers Rule
    D) Good Faith Exception
    The Caretaker Doctrine
  159. A principal was informed by a student that several students were smoking marijuana in the bathroom. The student heard it from a third party and did not see any of the students and did not know any of the students. This was completely hearsay. The principal informed the school resource officer and the school resource officer found one student in the bathroom and immediately detained him and searched him. The officer had found a joint in his right sock but denied smoking anything that day. What happens to the student (FLG-LG 39?)

    A) The student can be arrested for possession of Marijuana and suspended from school.
    B) The officer did not have probable cause to search the student and an arrest cannot me made but the principal can suspend the student for violating school policy.
    C) The officer acted in good faith and trusted the information but only was limited to the information and no one specific was mentioned.
    D) The officer will issue an NTA to the student and the student will return to class.
    • The officer did not have probable cause to search the student and an
    • arrest cannot me made but the principal can suspend the student for
    • violating school policy.
  160. The area around a home, often referred to as the “Curtilage”, enjoys the same constitutional protections as the home itself. There are our factors (U.S. v. Dunn 1987) that the courts entail, the proximity area of the area claimed to be curtilage to home; whether the area is enclosed (by either a fence or hedges); The types of activities for which the homeowner uses the area and: (FLG LG-37).

    A) If the person has no trespassing signs in his yard without any fence or hedges
    B) The measures taken by the resident to guard the area from observation by people passing by
    C) The curtilage is well taken care off and has no code violations pending
    D) The curtilage is protected by the residences dogs that are trained to attack if someone enters the curtilage.
    The measures taken by the resident to guard the area from observation by people passing by
  161. Who is responsible for the collection, maintenance, and dissemination of the official personnel records of all department members.

    A) Internal Affairs Unit
    B) The Records Section
    C) Staff Services Section
    D) City’s Human Resource Department
    City’s Human Resource Department
  162. Who is responsible for the collection and retention of all internal Affairs records?

    A) The Records Section
    B) The Internal Affairs Unit
    C) Staff Services Unit
    D) City’s Human Resource department
    The Internal Affairs Unit
  163. What amendment covers the right to counsel, when the criminal justice process has reached a critical stage, at the initiation of the prosecution, rather than during a custodial interrogation?

    A) Fifth
    B) Seventh
    C) Sixth
    D) Fourteenth
    Sixth
  164. What amendment protects a person from being compelled to be a witness against himself in a criminal case?

    A) Third
    B) Fifth
    C) Seventh
    D) Eighth
    Fifth
  165. Once the Sixth Amendment right attaches, police may not “________” incriminating statements from the suspect outside the presence of his or her counsel:

    A) Coerce
    B) Deliberately elicit
    C) Trick
    D) Compel
    Deliberately elicit
  166. Request for sick leave in excess of ____ consecutive working days must be accompanied by a physician certificate:

    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 5
    D) 7
    3
  167. How many hours must one have in their sick leave bank before they can convert 24 hours into personal leave?

    A) 182
    B) 192
    C) 202
    D) 340
    192
  168. The ______ has the soul authority to determine the purpose and mission of the city and the amount of budget to be adopted:

    A) Mayor
    B) Chief of Police
    C) City Commission
    D) City Administrator
    City Commission
  169. Upon the request of the interrogated officer, a copy of such recording of the interrogation session must be made available to the interrogated officer no later than ____hours excluding holidays and weekends following the interrogation:

    A) 72
    B) 60
    C) 84
    D) 48
    72
  170. What system of discipline does the city of West Palm Beach Police Department abide by?

    A) Use of Force continuum
    B) Progressive discipline
    C) Administrative discipline
    D) Formal discipline
    Progressive discipline
  171. The city has the right to discipline, demote, suspend or take other disciplinary action against employees for what:

    A) Unsatisfactory work
    B) Misconduct
    C) Just cause
    D) All the above
    All the above
  172. Officers have to act quickly when applying for a warrant judges will only sign a warrant if he/she believes that the property sought is currently at the location generally courts adhere to a ____ rule of thumb between the events described in the affidavit and issuance of a search warrant:

    A) 30
    B) 35
    C) 40
    D) 45
    30
  173. In order to arrest someone for Loitering or prowling a person must be able to dispel one’s fear for being in the area, prior to having one dispel any fear the officer must:

    A) Question the person
    B) Interrogate the person
    C) Provide Fifth Amendment rights
    D) Arrest the person
    Provide Fifth Amendment rights
  174. Any person that is in violation of Loitering or Prowling shall be guilty of a:

    A) Misdemeanor 2nd degree
    B) Misdemeanor 3rd degree
    C) Misdemeanor 1st degree
    D) Felony 3 degree
    Misdemeanor 2nd degree
  175. The courts have ruled that a consensual encounter was in fact a detention when:

    A) The officer displays a weapon
    B) The officer asks the person if he could have a minute of his time
    C) The officer parks his police vehicle not blocking the path of the person
    D) The officer asks if he or she can search them for weapons.
    The officer displays a weapon
  176. Under F.S. 903.29 a principal may be arrested by his surety within ____ from the date of forfeiture of the bond:

    A) 60 days
    B) 90 days
    C) 2 years
    D) 3 years
    2 years
  177. Brooks v. State- when an officer pulled behind defendant’s vehicle, which had pulled off the road to change drivers, and activated his lights, there was a ______:

    A) Consensual Encounter
    B) Seizure
    C) Search
    D) Arrest
    Seizure
  178. What doctrine permits the introduction of evidence initially discovered during, or as a consequence of, an unlawful search, but later obtained independently from lawful activities untainted by the initial illegality.

    A) Inevitable Discovery
    B) Exclusionary Rule
    C) Independent Source
    D) Good Faith Exception
    Independent Source
  179. Frances Hessel, who is the founding president and chairman of the board of governors of the Leader to Leader Institute, said that (Page 45).

    A) “Leadership is much less about what you can accomplish, and much more about who you can be”
    B) “Leadership is much less about who follows you, and much more about who you are”
    C) “Leadership is much less about who you can boss around, and much more about who is willing to follow you”
    D) “Leadership is much less about what you do, and much more about who you are”
    “Leadership is much less about what you do, and much more about who you are”
  180. The 5 Levels of Leadership indicates that you must understand yourself first in order to be a good leader. It also states that:
    ____________ (Page 46).
    A) “Self-Knowledge is the foundational to effective leading”
    B) “Self-Preservation is the foundational to effective leading”
    C) “Humility is the foundational to effective leading”
    D) “Self-Healing is the foundational to effective leading”
    “Self-Knowledge is the foundational to effective leading”
  181. The 5 Levels of Leadership states that “Your _________ are the soul of your leadership, and they drive your behavior” (page 46).

    A) Strengths
    B) Experiences
    C) Values
    D) Habits
    Values
  182. If you want to become a better leader, you must not only know yourself and define your values but also: (Page 48).

    A) You must practice what you preach
    B) You must also live them out
    C) Show great empathy for the people following you
    D) Willing to follow your own orders
    You must also live them out
  183. Which one of the 5 levels of Leadership is, once you have a title people will identify you with it but can be misleading: (Page 50).

    A) People Development
    B) Pinnacle
    C) Position
    D) Permission
    Position
  184. In The 5 levels of Leadership it states that Leaders who rely on position to Lead often ________ People: (Page 52).

    A) Disparage
    B) Discredit
    C) Devalue
    D) Deflate
    Devalue
  185. Which one of the following is a way that leaders make themselves look better or to keep people from rising and threatening them, positional leaders make other people feel small (Page 53).

    A) By assuming people are wrong first
    B) By viewing them as problem first and using false judgment
    C) By assuming people are always lying for personal gain
    D) By not having a genuine belief in them
    By not having a genuine belief in them
  186. In the 5 Levels of Leadership positional leaders focus on ________ instead of contribution (Page 54)?

    A) Power
    B) Authority
    C) Dominance
    D) Control
    Control
  187. Poet T. S Eliot Asserted “Half of the harm that is done in this world is due to people who want to feel important…. they don’t mean to do harm…. they are absorbed in the endless struggle to think well of themselves”. That’s what positional leaders do: they do things to make themselves look and feel ________ (page 55).

    A) Empowered
    B) Paramount
    C) Significant
    D) Important
    Important
  188. The SID division is utilized to conduct specialized investigations like surveillance and undercover operations. Which investigation is it when a gambling operation encompassing several locations such as bookmaking, para-mutual betting operations, call-girl activity, or a burglary ring (SOP IV-1 Page 2 of 8)?

    A) Multiple Operation Assignment
    B) Single Operation Assignment
    C) Long-Range Penetration Assignment
    D) Intelligence Gathering Assignment
    Multiple Operation Assignment
  189. When an undercover officer needs credential and a false identity the request will made through the approval of the Investigations Division Commander and the Chief of Police and obtain all documents from (SOP IV-1 page 4 of 8)?

    A) State Attorney’s Office
    B) Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles
    C) State Department
    D) County Court House
    Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles
  190. When a member (detective) first arrives on scene of a crime or a complaint the first thing the detective will do is: (SOP IV-2 page 1 of 11)

    A) Respond to the scene in a safe manner
    B) Record the information provided by Dispatch Operations
    C) Gather all the information provided to see if a crime has a occurred
    B) Protect the victims/parties involved in the incident.
    Record the information provided by Dispatch Operations
  191. In accordance with FSS 937.021(4)(a) within _____ hours of obtaining the minimum required information for entry, all runaways will be entered into NCIC/FCIC system (SOP III-8 Page 11 of 21).

    A) 3
    B) 2
    C) 1
    D) 4
    2
  192. When it comes to domestic violence what is it when a hearing is conducted by the court in which only the complaining party gives testimony (SOP III-9 Page 1 of 22)

    A) Emergency Domestic Hearing
    B) Emergency Injunction Hearing
    C) Emergency Protection Order Hearing
    D) Ex Parte Hearing
    Ex Parte Hearing
  193. The Department of Children and Families will be contacted by way of __________ about all domestic violence incidents that occur in the presence of a minor (SOP III-9 Page 5 of 22).

    A) The report will be faxed to DCF
    B) The reporting officer will contact a DCF agent while on scene
    C) DCF will be notified through 1-800-96-ABUSE registry
    D) The reporting officer will wait until the next day to notify DCF via email.
    DCF will be notified through 1-800-96-ABUSE registry
  194. Dating violence is between two individuals that have or have had a continuing and significant relationship of romantic or intimate nature.  A dating relationship must have existed within the past _____ months (SOP III-9 Page 1 of 22).

    A) 3
    B) 4
    C) 6
    D) 12
    6
  195. Brenda calls 911 because she has been pushed in the park by an ex-boyfriend (Mark). When the police arrive, it is determined that the woman had no visible marks and learned that the Mark and Brenda dated three years ago, and that Brenda hasn’t seen Mark since they broke up. There were no witnesses and they never had children together. What type of incident would this be considered (SOP III-9 Page 15 of 22)?

    A) This would be a simple battery since Mark and Brenda did not have children in common.
    B) This would be considered dating violence due to their prior relationship
    C) This would be considered a domestic dispute due to no visible marks on Brenda and their prior relationship
    D) This would be considered Simple Battery due to the fact that Brenda and Mark have not been involved romantically or intimately within the last six months and have no children in common.
    • This would be considered Simple Battery due to the fact that Brenda and
    • Mark have not been involved romantically or intimately within the last
    • six months and have no children in common.
  196. When A Service of Injunction for Protection against Domestic Violence is served the officer must complete the “____________” portion of the paperwork to make the necessary entry into FCIC (SOP III-9 Page 18 of 22).

    A) Proof of Service
    B) Filing Packet
    C) Appendix C
    D) Original Report
    Proof of Service
  197. Mike calls the police to try and get his roommate Tony out of the house (428 44th street). Tony could stay at Mike’s residence for only a week but never left the property after Mike told Tony vacate the property. When the police arrived, Tony complained that he had no place to go. Tony only had a duffle bag of clothes but didn’t pay any rent and his name was not on any of the utilities. This was a verbal agreement, and nothing was in writing. When the officer ran Tony’s name through NCIC/FCIC for any outstanding warrants the officer noticed that Tony’s FL issued ID stated the address of 428 44th street. What options does the officer have to conduct this investigation (SOP III-10 Page 2 of 3)?

    A) The officer can fill out a Sworn Affidavit of Unlawful Transient occupancy Form and tell Tony he must vacate the premises
    B) The officer has no choice but to inform Mike, although Tony had been there a week, only a duffle bag of clothes and offered no financial support, Mike must legally evict Tony due to the same address of 428 44th street as Mike permanent residence indicated on Tony’s FL ID card.
    C) The officer can articulate, although Tony has the same address of 428 44th street on the FL ID card, he can still prove no financial support and no written agreement and trespass warn Tony.
    D) The officer can fill out Sworn Affidavit of Unlawful Transient Occupancy Form and have a field supervisor review it to decide on whether or Tony will be trespassed warned rom the property.
    • The officer has no choice but to inform Mike, although Tony had been
    • there a week, only a duffle bag of clothes and offered no financial
    • support, Mike must legally evict Tony due to the same address of 428
    • 44th street as Mike permanent residence indicated on Tony’s FL ID card.
  198. When must all reports be finished and must not have status of denied (SOP III-11 page 2 of 4)?

    A) All reports must be in prior to going off duty unless specifically excused by the supervisor and not have a status of denied by the fourth day of the work station.
    B) All reports must be approved by the end of each day of the officer’s shift.
    C) All reports must be submitted to the switch before the shift is over and approved.
    D) All reports must be approved each day with no exceptions.
    • All reports must be in prior to going off duty unless specifically
    • excused by the supervisor and not have a status of denied by the fourth
    • day of the work station.
  199. When an officer makes a lawful stop he/she can detain a subject for a brief time to investigate criminal activity. This is also known as a (LG-LG-20)?

    A) Consensual Encounter
    B) Field Interview Contact
    C) An Arrest
    D) Temporary Investigative Detention
    Temporary Investigative Detention
  200. When an officer makes a lawful stop he/she can detain a subject for a brief time to investigate criminal activity. The officer only has a limited amount of time they can hold the subjector else the stop becomes an arrest. What is the time limit an officer can detain a subject (LG LG-20)?

    A) 10 to 15 minutes
    B) 30 to 45 minutes
    C) 45 to 60 minutes
    D) 15 to 30 minutes
    15 to 30 minutes
  201. A search warrant was executed and as SWAT approached the front door and made their announcement and the reason or the search warrant. The officers waited five seconds and then kicked in the front door. When they kicked in the front door the owner (target) was knocked to the ground as he was just about to open the door and was injured in conjunction with the door being kicked in. The target was arrested for trafficking narcotics and narcotics was seized in the search. The target appealed claiming he wasn’t given enough time to answer door and was injured in the process. The charges were dropped, and the evidence was inadmissible. What case law does this pertain to (LG-LG 30)?

    A) State v. Kellom (2003)
    B) State v. Stepp (1995)
    C) Richards v. Wisconsin (1997)
    D) Wilson v. Arkansas (1995)
    State v. Stepp (1995)
  202. The 5 Levels of Leadership indicates that just because you have the right to do something as a leader doesn’t mean that it is the right thing to do. Changing your focus from rights to _____________ is often a sign of maturity (5 Levels page 56).

    A) Duty
    B) Responsibility
    c) Accountability
    D) Incumbency
    Responsibility
  203. The 5 levels of Leadership quotes “Nearly All men can stand adversity, but if you want to test a man’s character, give him power” which person said this (5 Levels Page 56)?

    A) John F. Kennedy
    B) George Washington
    C) Ulysses S. Grant
    D) Abraham Lincoln
    Abraham Lincoln
  204. The WPBPD utilizes Canines two types of canines, one is Detection and the other is _____________ (SOP IV-28)?

    A) Apprehension
    B  Human Remains
    C) Drawing Decoys to draw fire
    D) To search for other animals
    Apprehension
  205. What Amendment gives the power to the people and state and not the government?

    A) 25th Amendment
    B) 10th Amendment
    C) 12th Amendment
    D) 20th Amendment
    10th Amendment
  206. Any Employee who is convicted of a violation of a criminal drug statute must notify the city in writing no later than ___ days after the conviction.

    A) 3
    B) 7
    C) 5
    D) 10
    5
  207. An assigned CCIF investigation will be completed within ____ days.

    A) 45
    B) 60
    C) 30
    D) 90
    30
  208. The current WPBPBA president of Executive Board member of the County PBA shall be granted up to a combined total of _____ hours to attend City, County, or State public hearing or meetings or legislative sessions, civic association meeting or fundraising activities for registered charitable organizations (PBA contract).

    A) 400
    B) 250
    C) 300
    D) 500
    500
  209. John Maxwell indicates that positional leaders who rely on their positions and titles are the weakest of all leaders. He puts them in categories and they become three types of people, The Clock Watcher, Just Enough Employees, and the ____________ (5 Levels page 62).

    A) The Day Dreamers
    B) The Mentally Absent
    C) The scatterbrained
    D) The Pipe Dreamer
    The Mentally Absent
  210. John Maxwell indicates that he likes to use the four C’s when he is looking for potential leaders, Character, Contribution, Chemistry and __________ (5 Levels Page 205).

    A) Contents
    B) Compass
    C) Core Values
    D) Capacity
    Capacity
  211. John Maxwell states that if you suspect that your insecurities may prevent you from moving up to the people development level of Leadership, then be prepared to do some work in the following three areas: Control, Trust and _________(5 Levels Page 197).

    A) Character
    B) Self-Pride
    C) Ego
    D) Self-Admiration
    Ego
  212. In the Level of Permission John Maxwell comes across an explanation of a Chinese symbol pronounced “ting” this was also the symbol for the verb “_______” (5 Levels Page 90)?

    A) To Communicate
    B) To Understand
    C) To Rely
    D) To Listen
    To Rely
  213. Magazines for the M&P 40 is the authorized semi-automatic pistol for patrol and will be charged to capacity. How many rounds will be utilized in the firearm (SOP III-14 page 13 of 14)?

    A) 14
    B) 16
    C) 15
    D) 12
    16
  214. Specialty Impact Munitions are designed and developed to be launched at human targets with a lesser probability of producing fatal results. These munitions may cause injuries similar to those of traditional police impact weapons and can be referred to as “_______________” (SOP III-16 page 2 of 6)

    A) Extended range impact weapons
    B) Extended distant impact weapons
    C) Extended area impact weapons
    D) Extended close range weapons
    Extended range impact weapons
  215. Training in the use of the less-lethal weapon system and extended range kinetic energy projectiles consists of a _____ hour program designed by a certified less lethal launcher instructor (SOP III-16 page 2 of 6).

    A) 8
    B) 12
    C) 16
    D) 6
    6
  216. There is no constitutional requirement that police notify a juveniles parents prior to questioning the juvenile; nor is there a requirement on the part of police to extend an opportunity to a juvenile to speak with his or her parents prior to questioning when the juvenile does not request such opportunity. What case law does this refer to (LG LG-27)?

    A) Harris v. State (2008)
    B) Nelly v. State (2013)
    C) Barry v. State (2001)
    D) Howes v. Fields (2012)
    Harris v. State (2008)
  217. When the accused has been given his Miranda Warnings he/she may waive effectuation of these rights, provided the waiver is made: (LG-LG 24)

    A) Voluntarily, Knowingly and Fairly
    B) Voluntarily, Advisedly and Intelligently
    C) Voluntarily, Knowingly and Reasonably
    D) Voluntarily, Knowingly and Intelligently
    Voluntarily, Knowingly and Intelligently
  218. After Reading a suspect the Miranda rights, police must make a good faith effort to answer any bona fide questions the suspect may ask like, “Well, what good is an attorney going to do”? This was considered bona fide questions that police failed to answer and defendant’s waiver was invalid. What case law dies this pertain to (LG LG-25)?

    A) Allred v. State (1993)
    B) Rhode Island v. Innis (1980)
    C) Berghuis v. Thompkins (2010)
    D) Almeida v. State (1999)
    Almeida v. State (1999)
  219. A supervisor may initiate an immediate review of an incident or historical pattern of leave usage. Records indicating _________ incidents of sick leave (or other leave with or without pay due to employee illness or injury) used within the preceding twelve months or less will “red flag” an employee for review (PBA Page 30)

    A) 5
    B) 7
    C) 10
    D) 12
    7
  220. An employee will be allowed ____ days of documented family illness which will not be counted as incidents against the seven incidents as noted for the sick leave pattern (PBA Page 30)

    A) 5
    B) 3
    C) 2
    D) 6
    5
  221. When it comes to annual leave, years of service between 10-14 years will annually accrue expressed in eight-hour days is ______ (PBA Page 31)

    A) 13
    B) 17
    C) 19
    D) 20
    20
  222. An employee who sustains an on-duty injury not compensable pursuant to Florida Statute, Chapter 440, Workers Compensation shall be authorized to be assigned to light duty for a period of up to 90 days and their status will be revaluated by a medical care provider selected by the city every ______ days up to a total of 360 days (PBA Page 33).

    A) 60
    B) 120
    C) 30
    D) 90
    90
  223. Up to _____ non-probationary employees who are temporarily unable to perform the essential functions of their position due to a OFF duty and NON-WC compensable injury or medical condition shall be temporarily reassigned to a position for which they can perform job functions (Light Duty Assignments) (PBA Page 34).

    A) 2
    B) 4
    C) 5
    D) 6
    5
  224. A treadmill stress test will be given at age __________, _________, and at _________, an employee shall be given a stress echo cardiogram, then shall be given another stress echo cardiogram every other year thereafter unless recommended at earlier intervals by the City’s contractual physician (PBA Page 37).

    A) 25, 30, 38
    B) 30, 35, 40
    C) 35, 38, 40
    D) 32, 37, 40
    35, 38, 40
  225. This means that prior to being selected for a random drug test, or prior to being ordered to submit to a reasonable suspicion drug test, fitness for duty evaluation, or a test resulting from being involved in a vehicle or industrial accident, the employee requests assistance for substance abuse (PBA Page 41)?

    A) Admitting Abuse
    B) Stepping Forward
    C) Immediate EAP request
    D) Refusal by acceptance of abuse
    Stepping Forward
  226. What is an investigation conducted by Internal Affairs unit to determine compliance or noncompliance with departmental policies, procedures, and/or rules & regulations (SOP IV-5 Page 1 of 8)?

    A) Criminal Investigation
    B) Critical Incident
    C) Administrative Investigation
    D) Internal Investigation
    Administrative Investigation
  227. When there is a critical Incident who acts as the Investigation coordinator and overseas all aspects of the criminal investigation (SOP IV-5 Page 2 of 8)?

    A) Criminal Investigation lead Lieutenant
    B) Highest ranking Officer
    C) Lead Detective
    D) Criminal Investigation Division Commander
    Criminal Investigation Division Commander
  228. Which one  is NOT called when a shooting or critical incident involving a member of the West Palm Beach Police Department or an officer or agent from another law enforcement agency (SOP IV-5 Page 2 of 8)?

    A) Any Assistant Chief
    B) The Chief of Police
    C) The Public Information Officer
    D) The Internal Affairs Commander
    Any Assistant Chief
  229. Who will serve as a liaison between the police department and FDLE in a critical incident (SOP IV-5 Page 5 of 8)?

    A) The Internal Affairs Commander
    B) CIT Commander
    C) Assistant Chief of Investigative Division
    D) Chief of Police
    CIT Commander
  230. When an officer establishes a new informant he/or she will explain the forms to the new informant. Which one of these forms are included for review with the informant (SOP IV-8 Page 4 of 11)?

    A) Consent to carry a firearm
    B) Legal Guidelines Form
    C) State of Non-Disclosure form
    D) Consent to Intercept Form
    Consent to Intercept Form
  231. Each confidant informant will be assigned a confidential code which will be known to the informant, the person who maintains the informants’ file, and the officer(s) who directs and controls the informant. How many characters will the code number obtain combining digits and letters (SOP IV-8 Page 5 of 11)?

    A) 10
    B) 15
    C) 9
    D) 12
    12
  232. When the informant becomes ______ _______ _______ _________ it is the responsibility of the controlling officer to document this information and forward it to the Special Investigation Division Commander or designee in a memo form (SOP IV-8 Page 6 of 11)?

    A) Unreliable, Useless, Dangerous, or otherwise undesirable
    B) Unreliable, Unethical, High Risk, or otherwise invaluable
    C) Unstable, Useless, Dangerous, or otherwise High Risk
    D) Untruthful, Useless, Dangerous, or otherwise undesirable
    Unreliable, Useless, Dangerous, or otherwise undesirable
  233. What Does IFE stand for (SOP IV-8 Page 9 of 11)?

    A) Investigative File Expense
    B) Investigative Fund Expense
    C) Investigative file Expenditure
    D) Investigative Fund Expenditure
    Investigative Fund Expenditure
  234. In the performance of duties of a West Palm Beach Police Officer, all citizens will be treated equally with _______, _________, and _________ (SOP I-1 Page 4of 6)?

    A) Respect, Consideration, and Dignity
    B) Courtesy, Empathy and Dignity
    C) Courtesy, Consideration, and Dignity
    D) Dignity, Sympathy, and Patience
    Courtesy, Consideration, and Dignity
  235. Officers will never allow personal feelings, animosities, or ___________ to influence official conduct (SOP I-1 Page 4 of 6).

    A) Family
    B) Friendship
    C) Politics
    D) Hearsay
    Friendship
  236. When it comes to confidentially, what a member sees, hears or ________ of a confidential nature will be kept secret unless the performance of duty or legal provision requires otherwise (SOP I-1 Page 5 of 6)?

    A) Learns
    B) Acquires
    C) Absorbs
    D) Gains
    Learns
  237. What is the use of selection components or procedures among all those available to reduce any unfavorable effect to the greatest extent possible consistent with validity (Recruitment SOP I-6 page 1 of 10)?

    A) Selection Process
    B) Equal Employment Opportunity
    C) Minimum Adverse Plan
    D) Disqualification
    Minimum Adverse Plan
  238. Which one of these is NOT a requirement to apply to become a West Palm Beach Police Officer (SOP I-6 Page 5 of 10)?

    A) S. Citizenship
    B) At least 30 College Credit Hours
    C) High School Diploma
    D) Minimum 21 years of age
    At least 30 College Credit Hours
  239. When a juvenile is detained and brought back in for an interview all of he property will be collected and documented. Which property will not be returned to the juvenile if she/he is in possession (SOP IV-9 page 2 of 7)?

    A) Matches
    B) Tobacco Products
    C) Lighters
    D) Gum
    Tobacco Products
  240. A sexual offense evidence kit or other DNA evidence if a kit is not collected must be submitted to member of the statewide criminal analysis laboratory system under F.S.S. 943.32 for forensic testing within ________ days: (SOP IV-3 Page 13 of 21)

    A) 10
    B) 24
    C) 45
    D) 30
    30
  241. As technology advances, Laboratories can analyze smaller samples of biological evidence to identify a DNA profile. Historically, many jurisdictions have used ____ or _______ hours as a “cutoff” when deciding if a sexual assault exam should be completed: (SOP IV-3 Page 13 of 21)

    A) 48 or 72
    B) 96 or 120
    C) 24 or 48
    D) 72 or 96
    72 or 96
  242. The awards boards consist of _____ members and ____ alternatives with at least one member from each Bureau (SOP II-4 Page 6 of 11)?

    A) 5 and 3
    B) 7 and 2
    C) 4 and 4
    D) 6 and 2
    6 and 2
  243. How many sworn personnel are on the awards board (SOP II-4 Page 6 of 11)?

    A) 4
    B) 3
    C) 5
    D) 2
    4
  244. Who is responsible for announcing the recipients of Officer, Investigator, Supervisor, Civilian, and Volunteer of the year (SOP II-4 page 9 of 11)?

    A) Chief of Police
    B) The Chairperson of the awards board
    C) Captain of the awards board
    D) Assistant Chief of Staff Services
    Chief of Police
  245. The basic FTO program is an _______ week training program which includes subject matter based upon the assignments handled by West Palm Beach Police Officers and department S.O.P. (SOP II-7 page 3 of 5)?

    A) 16
    B) 18
    C) 20
    D) 12
    18
  246. An experience officer may complete a _____ week Field Training Program designed to acquaint them with the standard operating procedures, report, system and philosophy of this Department prior to assuming independent law enforcement responsibility (SOP II-7-page 4 o 5)?

    A) 10
    B) 8
    C) 12
    D) 14
    10
  247. Assignment to the position of FTO is for __________ which may be extended by the Chief of Police or designee (SOP II-7 page 5 of 5)?

    A) 3 years
    B) 2 years
    C) 1 year
    D) 4 years
    1 year
  248. An officer who fails the qualification for the firearm course will receive immediate remedial training from a fire arms instructor and an additional opportunity to qualify. If an officer cannot qualify he/she will be assigned to administrative duties within the agency and undergo additional remedial training. The session will be no more than _____ hour(s) in each session and an officer will have no more than ____ attempts to qualify within the next thirty-day period (SOP 8 Page 7 of 15).

    A) 3 hours, 7 attempts
    B) 2 hours, 6 attempts
    C) 1 hour, 5 attempts
    D) 2 hours, 5 attempts
    2 hours, 6 attempts
  249. A Lieutenant or higher-ranking officer and an appropriate number of other supervisors will be required when an extra duty detail requires _____ or more officers (SOP II-3 Page 5 of 14).

    A) 12
    B) 14
    C) 16
    D) 15
    15
  250. Two (2) supervisors will be required when an extra duty detail requires more than_____ officers (Sop II-3 Page 5 of 14).

    A) 8
    B) 10
    C) 11
    D) 9
    10
  251. The Assistant Chief of the Field Operations Bureau or designee may eliminate or change the number of supervisors required if the detail does not require supervisory duties, i.e., fixed posts, traffic direction only, etc. (SOP II-3 Page 5 of 14)

    A) Assistant Chief of the Field Operations Bureau or designee
    B) Special events coordinator
    C) Lieutenant or higher during that shift
    D) Any Captain
    Assistant Chief of the Field Operations
  252. When a member commits his third violation of the Special Events policy the following action will be taken: (SOP II-3 page 7 of 14)

    A) The member will not be permitted to work any extra duty details for a period of 175 days.
    B) The member will not be permitted to work any extra duty details for a period of 190 days.
    C) The member will not be permitted to work any extra duty details for a period of 145 days.
    D) The member will not be permitted to work any extra duty details for a period of 180 days.
    The member will not be permitted to work any extra duty details for a period of 180 days.
  253. When an officer cancels a detail and it is not reassigned within ______ hours of the detail start time the member will notify an on-duty supervisor that they are unable to work a specific extra duty detail (SOP II-3 Page 8 of 14)

    A) 3
    B) 1
    C) 2
    D) 4
    2
  254. Officers are prohibited from working extra duty details when:On administrative leave or administrative duty pending an initial review of up to _____ days to determine if the Chief may reinstate the officer for purposes of Extra Duty Details (SOP II-3 page 9 of 14)

    A) 30
    B) 20
    C) 45
    D) 90
    20
  255. Who is the chairperson of the training committee (SOP II-8 page 2 of 15)?

    A) The Range Master
    B) Lieutenant of Staff Services
    C) Sergeant of training
    D) Staff Services Commander
    Staff Services Commander
  256. What is a written agreement between two or more law enforcement agencies, a request by one agency, and agreement by the others, for the rendering of assistance in specified law enforcement intensive situations including emergencies under FSS 252.34 (2) (SOP II-9 page 1 of 6)?

    A) Operational Assistance Agreement
    B) Mutual Aid Agreement
    C) Mutual Aid
    D) Subscribed Agency
    Operational Assistance Agreement
  257. When another agency needs assistance from the West Palm Beach Police Department, the agency notifies the ___________ (SOP II-9 page 3 of 6)?

    A) Field Operations Supervisor
    B) Shift Commander
    C) Captain of the designated division
    D) Chief of Police or Designee
    Chief of Police or Designee
  258. Passwords must be at least _____ characters (16 for Domain Admins) (SOP II-10 page 1 of 4).

    A) 8
    B) 10
    C) 9
    D) 7
    9
  259. Password can’t be the same as previous _______ passwords (SOP II-10 page 2 of 4)

    A) 5
    B) 10
    C) 7
    D) 8
    10
  260. At a minimum, users must change passwords every ____ days (SOP II-10 page 3 of 4).

    A) 30
    B) 45
    C) 90
    D) 60
    90
  261. If a user unsuccessfully attempts to login to his or her account ____ times within ____ minutes, the account will be locked (SOP II-10 page 3 of 4).

    A) 5 times, 15 Minutes
    B) 7 times, 30 Minutes
    C) 6 times, 15 Minutes
    D) 5 times, 30 Minutes
    5 times, 30 Minutes
  262. Information from agency files will be released only by Command Staff, the PIO, or the _______ (SOP II-13 page 2 of 8)

    A) Records Supervisor
    B) IA commander
    C) Staff Services Commander
    D) Shift Commander
    Records Supervisor
  263. All WPBPD computers are configured to ‘lock’ after _____minutes of inactivity (SOP II-15 page 4 of 5).

    A) 15
    B  30
    C) 45
    D) 60
    30
  264. To guard against password-guessing and brute-force attempts, the WPBPD must lock a user's account after 5 unsuccessful logins. After a period of ______ minutes, account will unlock, and user may attempt to login again (SOP II-15 page 4 of 5).

    A) 30
    B) 60
    C) 90
    D) 45
    90
  265. When members experience an exposure incident they will be medically evaluated for evidence of infection after all significant duty related incidents of exposure. The treatment should begin within ______ hours (SOP II-19-page 2 o 8).

    A) 3
    B) 2
    C) 1
    D) 4
    2
  266. Who is responsible for the issuance of all firearms, ammunition, and Electronic Control Device (ECD).

    A) Quarter Master
    B) Member’s Supervisor
    C) Lieutenant or higher
    D) Staff Services Section
    Staff Services Section
  267. Uniformed officers in police uniform may use a tobacco product of any kind or an electronic cigarette in the two designated tobacco use areas as follows: Spine Road under the west end of the bridge from the parking structure, and (SOP II-21 page 2 of 2):

    A) East end of the bridge walkway on the second floor.
    B) West end of the bridge walkway on the second floor.
    C) Inside the second level parking garage on the west side
    D) Patio area just before you enter the Briefing room.
    West end of the bridge walkway on the second floor.
  268. Employees anticipating leave to include but not limited to vacation, school, training, military leave, leaves of absences, FMLA, or any other circumstances that would hinder their appearance in court must notify the Court Liaison or designee no later than _____ days prior to the anticipated start of the leave (SOP II-22 page 1 of 5)

    A) 21
    B) 14
    C) 7
    D) 10
    21
  269. Due to illness, members unable to attend a scheduled court, deposition or other legal proceeding must notify the Court Liaison and the: (SOP II-22 page 2 of 5)

    A) South Shift Commander
    B) Court Division that scheduled the appearance
    C) Sergeant on Duty
    D) Captain of your division
    Court Division that scheduled the appearance
  270. When attending all court related matter in an off-duty capacity, employees will log onto the electronic payroll system to submit their overtime. Overtime will be submitted within _______ days of the date of the overtime (SOP II-22 page 5 of 5):

    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 5
    D) 4
    5
  271. Sworn members retiring with twenty (20) or more years of service will be awarded the following items whether their retirement is under normal conditions or line-of-duty disability condition: Their Firearm and (SOP II-28 page 2 of 3)?

    A) A Watch
    B) A Publix Gift card
    C) A retired ID cards
    D) Last rotation off the road.
    A retired ID cards
  272. Florida Statute 901.21(1) provides for the search of a person and the area within the person’s control when a lawful arrest is affected to: Protect the officer from attack; Prevent the person from escaping; or (FLG LG 31)

    A) Protect innocent victims with the immediate area
    B) Protect the officer from getting a complaint
    C) Prevent further criminal activity
    D) Discover the fruits of the crime
    Discover the fruits of the crime
  273. Mikes mother Mary called the police about Mike being intoxicated and that Mary had Marchman Act paper work for police to take him to the local hospital. Upon arrival officers observed Mike and that he was in fact intoxicated and could barely walk. For safety reasons Mike was handcuffed and placed in the back of the patrol vehicle. When the officer searched him for weapons for before placing Mike in the back of the patrol vehicle per policy he discovered two baggies of Marijuana in his right front pocket. The marijuana is not admissible due to Mike being detained for a Marchman Act and was not considered a criminal arrest and therefore will not support a search incident to arrest of the detainee. What case law does this pertain to (FLG LG-31)?

    A) Riley v. California (2013)
    B) White v. State (2015)
    C) Maryland v. King (2013)
    D) Smallwood v. State (2013)
    White v. State (2015)
  274. A Blue Mazda was pulled over for running a stop sign. When the police asked for the credentials of the driver the driver indicated that the vehicle did not belong to him and that he was borrowing it for the day from a friend. As the officer was waiting for the registration to be handed to him the police noticed several small empty baggies on the back seat of the vehicle. Due to the officers training and experience this is typical of drug paraphernalia and sales. The police officer asked the driver if he could search the vehicle and the driver complied. While the vehicle was being searched the driver was on the phone with the actual owner of the vehicle and he advised the driver to tell the police they did not have permission to search the vehicle. The officer found marijuana underneath the front driver’s side seat and the driver was arrested. The driver appealed claiming the vehicle wasn’t his and he didn’t know about the marijuana. Case law states that the driver may consent to a search of an entire vehicle, even if he does not actually own it. What case law does this pertain to (FLG LG 35)

    A) State v. Walton (1990)
    B) Barnes v. State (2011)
    C) S. v. Zapata (1999)
    D) Ward v. State (2002)
    State v. Walton (1990)
  275. To alter, destroy, conceal, or remove evidence is called Tampering with Evidence and considered to be a (FLG-LG 35).

    A) Third degree felony
    B) Second degree misdemeanor
    C) Second degree felony
    D) First degree misdemeanor
    Third degree felony
  276. When police arrived at a domestic disturbance the wife wanted to report that her husband has been acting out and getting verbally aggressive toward her and her children. The wife indicated he has a drug problem and that he keeps the drugs in a drawer in the master bedroom.  She gave the police consent to search the drawer but as the police started to enter the bedroom the husband came home and told the police to leave and that they could not go into the bedroom or search for anything in the house. The police officers continued and found two baggies of cocaine in the drawer right next to the husband’s passport. This search was inadmissible since the co-occupant was present and expressly objected to the search. What case law doe this pertain to (FLG LG 36)

    A) Fernandez v. California (2014)
    B) Barnes v. State (2002)
    C) Georgia v. Randolph (2006)
    D) Williams v. State (2001)
    Georgia v. Randolph (2006)
  277. The police were called regarding a vehicle that was driving through the area for about 15 fifteen minutes and the caller stated that the vehicle “didn’t look right”. When the police arrived, they observed the vehicle and immediately initiated a traffic stop. The vehicle was registered, and the driver had a valid license. The driver said he was lost and couldn’t find an address. The officer told the driver to step out of the vehicle and the driver at first did not want to, but the officer opened the door and the driver got out. The officer frisked the driver and found a small baggie of marijuana in his right back pocket. The driver was given an NTA with a court date and released. The driver appealed the arrest since the officers had no grounds to stop the vehicle. The possession charge was overturned, and the marijuana was in admissible. What case law does this pertain to (FLG LG 41)

    A) Delaware v. Prouse (1979)
    B) Pennsylvania v. Mimms (1977)
    C) State v. English (2014)
    D) State v. Perkins (2000)
    State v. Perkins (2000)
  278. Any non-probationary police officer suspended from police duties by administrative action for failure to qualify is allowed an additional _____ calendar days from the date of suspension to qualify. During this period, the officer will be assigned to non-enforcement duties (SOP III-14 7 of 14).

    A) 30
    B) 14
    C) 20
    D) 7
    20
  279. Police officers unable to qualify within ____ days of the original qualification date due to injury or illness will be rescheduled to qualify within ____ days of returning to duty. When not qualified after 30 days of returning to duty, the appropriate Division Commander will review the officer’s circumstances (SOP III-14 page 7 of 14).

    A) 20, 30
    B) 30, 30
    C) 30, 45
    D) 15, 30
    30, 30
  280. When OC is utilized, and the effects of the spray do not begin to diminish after ____ minutes and are not relieved after ____ minutes, fire medics should be called (SOP III-15 page 2 of 4).

    A) 10, 30
    B) 20, 60
    C) 30, 60
    D) 15, 45
    15, 45
  281. When the ECD fails to fire or the spark of the ECD is not consistent throughout the duration of the spark test, ensure battery pack levels are more than____ strength remaining. Repeat the spark test procedure above (SOP III-17 page 8 of 10).

    A) 40%
    B) 50%
    C) 60%
    D) 30%
    40%
  282. When any juvenile interrogations lasting longer than _____ hours, a supervisor will be notified (SOP III-18-page 2 o 6).

    A) 2
    B) 4
    C) 6
    D) 3
    3
  283. Employees will not consume any intoxicants for ______ hours before using a Department vehicle (SOP III-19 page 2 of 13).

    A) 12
    B) 8
    C) 10
    D) 16
    8
  284. Officers working consecutive overtime jobs may keep the pool car and pool car key if there is not more than a ____ hour break between jobs (SOP III-19 page 7 of 13).

    A) 3
    B) 1
    C) 2
    D) 4
    2
  285. The words “West Palm Beach” and “Police” on each side of the vehicle and “______” on the rear (SOP III-19 page 10 of 13).

    A) Pride
    B) To Protect and Serve
    C) Law Enforcement
    D) Police
    Police
  286. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Death Investigation (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 7 years
    B) 10 years
    C) 15 years
    D) 20 years
    7 years
  287. What is the retention period (BWC) for anevidence-felony (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 7 years
    B) 15 years
    C) 20 Years
    D) 10 years
    7 years
  288. What is the retention period (BWC) for an evidence-misdemeanor (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 5 years
    B) 7 years
    C) 4 years
    D) 10 years
    4 years
  289. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Homicide or sex offense (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 25 years
    B) 50 years
    C) 99 years
    D) 75 years
    99 years
  290. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Recognition (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 3 years
    B) 5 years
    C) 6 years
    D) 4 years
    4 years
  291. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Training demonstration (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 2 years
    B) 90 days
    C) 120 days
    D) 1 year
    90 days
  292. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Ue of Force (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 5 years
    B) 10 years
    C) 15 years
    D) 20 years
    10 years
  293. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Vehicle Pursuit (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 10 years
    B) 5 years
    C) 15 years
    D) 4 years
    10 years
  294. What is the retention period (BWC) for a traffic crash (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 4 years
    B) 7 years
    C) 10 years
    D) 15 years
    4 years
  295. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Complaint closed (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 5 years
    B) 15 years
    C) 10 years
    D) 7 years
    10 years
  296. What is the retention period (BWC) for a Pending review (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 5 years
    B) 7 years
    C) 10 years
    D) Manual Deletion
    Manual Deletion
  297. What is the retention period (BWC) for an Uncategorized (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 90 days
    B) 120 days
    C) 1 year
    D) Manual Deletion
    Manual Deletion
  298. What is the retention period (BWC) for No Action (SOP III-20 Page 13 of 14)?

    A) 45 days
    B) 90 days
    C) 120 days
    D) 1 year
    90 days
  299. A police officer making a traffic stop will inform Dispatch Operations of the following information in what sequence (SOP III-24 1 of 4)?  (In order presented per policy)

    A) Location of the stop, 2. Vehicle description, 3. Tag number, and 4. Information about occupants.
    B) Vehicle description,2. Location of the stop, 3. Tag Number and 4. Information about occupants.
    C) Vehicle description, 2. Tag Number, 3. Location of stop and 4. Information about occupants
    D) Location of stop, 2. Tag number, 3. Vehicle Description and 4. Information about occupants
    Location of the stop, 2. Vehicle description, 3. Tag number, and 4. Information about occupants.
  300. Once the violator is stopped; the officer should position the police vehicle approximately

    _____ to ______ feet behind and ______ feet to the left of the violator’s vehicle to create

    a safety lane (SOP III-24 page 2 of 4).

    A) 7, 10 and 3
    B) 7, 12 and 5
    C) 8, 10 and 2
    D) 5, 8 and 3
    8, 10 and 2
  301. Making the shift from position to Permission brings a person’s first real step into leadership. Because leadership is ________, nothing more, nothing less (5 Levels page 85)

    A) Influence
    B) Impact
    C) Determination
    D) Effectiveness
    Influence
  302. The 5 Levels of Leadership talked about Jeffrey Gitomer, author of The Sales Bible and Little Red Book of Selling. Gitomer uses the analogy of the rock-paper-scissors game to describe the importance of relationships. Which one these sayings are used (5 Levels Page 86)?

    A) Relationship is more powerful than convenience
    B) Relationship is more powerful than price
    C) Relationship is more powerful than a helping hand
    D) Relationship is more powerful than attributes
    Relationship is more powerful than price
  303. There are many upsides to Level 2 (Permission) because the focus on relationship building opens so many new avenues of leadership. Maxwell states his top five: Which one of these are considered one of Maxwell’s top five (5 Levels page 87)

    A) Leadership Permission Makes Work More Diverse
    B) Leadership Permission Increases the Energy Level
    C) Leadership Permission Opens Up a Variety of Communication
    D) Leadership Permission Focuses on the Value of the Follower
    Leadership Permission Increases the Energy Level
  304. The key to moving up to permission level is having the right attitude. Level 2 leaders exemplify the words of J. Donald Walters, who asserted “______________’ (5 Levels page 87)

    A) “Leadership is an opportunity to excel”
    B) “Leadership is an opportunity to succeed”
    C) “Leadership is an opportunity to serve”
    D) “Leadership is an opportunity to glorify”
    “Leadership is an opportunity to serve”
  305. The Level of permission Maxwell states that good relationships create _________, and they give peoples interaction a positive one (5 Levels age 88)

    A) Bonds
    B) Role Models
    C) Joy
    D) Energy
    Energy
  306. Maxwell states that in Level 2 that ______ is the foundation of Permission (5 Levels page 94).

    A) Trust
    B) Loyalty
    C) Empowerment
    D) Gratitude
    Trust
  307. In level 2 (permission) there are downsides to obtaining this level. One of them are those who leverage the relationship to better themselves, but not you or anyone else. They borrow your influence but keep the return. Who are these types of people (5 Levels page 99)?

    A) Developers
    B) Acquaintances
    C) Takers
    D) Friends
    Takers
  308. The firearms range will be operated under the control of the Staff Services Section, as supervised by the __________________ (SOP III-21 page 1 of 6)

    A) Training Sergeant
    B) Staff Service Sections Commander
    C) Rangemaster
    D) Firearms Instructor
    Staff Service Sections Commander
  309. Which of the following is a Firearms Instructor NOT responsible for (SOP III-21 page 2 of 6)?

    A) Maintaining working knowledge of changes and improvements in weapons, ammunition, and other equipment
    B) Ensuring all safety standards during the use of gun range are met
    C) Providing remedial training for problem shooters
    D) Developing course of fire and scoring system
    Developing course of fire and scoring system
  310. Which of the following is required by a Range Master (SOP III-21 page 2 of 6)

    A) Providing remedial training for problem shooters
    B) Keep informed of statutory and case law as it relates to firearms training
    C) Ensuring their instructors certification is maintained during such service
    D) Arranging annual cleaning of hazardous debris within the range
    Arranging annual cleaning of hazardous debris within the range
  311. Entrance into, and use of, the gun range must be authorized by the agency ___________ (SOP III-21 Page 3 of 6)

    A) Range Master
    B) Firearms Instructor
    C) Training Sergeant
    D) Staff service Commander
    Range Master
  312. Any officer who resides outside of the City limits and is assigned a take home vehicle will be required to pay a fuel surcharge (assigned work days patrol). The amount that is taken out each pay period when the officer resides 31-40 miles is _________ (PBA page 62)
    $60.00
    $50.00
    $75.00
    $65.00

    Any officer who resides outside of the City limits and is assigned a take home vehicle will be required to pay a fuel surcharge (assigned work days patrol). The amount that is taken out each pay period when the officer resides 31-40 miles is _________ (PBA page 62)

    A) $60.00
    B) $50.00
    C) $75.00
    D) $65.00
    $75.00
  313. All bargaining unit members will be provided a cleaning allowance of a ________ dollars and a shoe allowance of _________ dollars will be provided annually in a lump sum no later than the second (2nd) pay period in November (PBA page 63).

    A) $650.00 and $80.00
    B) $625.00 and $75.00
    C) $650.00 and $70.00
    D) $700.00 and $85.00
    $650.00 and $80.00
  314. Whenever a shift rotation occurs, no employee shall be forced to work a continuous shift. Employees rotating from the day to night shift will be entitled to at least ______ hours off duty before returning to work (PBA page 65)

    A) 9 hours
    B) 10 hours
    C) 8 hours
    D) 12 hours
    8 hours
  315. Compensatory time will be granted if an employee notifies his immediate supervisor of the contemplated use of compensatory time at least __________ days prior to use. If less than  ______ days notice is provided, the granting of compensatory time shall be at the discretion of the Division Commander (PBA Page 67).

    A) 21
    B) 16
    C) 14
    D) 10
    16
  316. Which one of these is NOT considered a holiday for essential personnel (PBA Page 69)

    A) Presidents Day
    B) Columbus Day
    C) Martin Luther King Day
    D) Easter day
    Easter day
  317. Probationary employees shall be eligible to work overtime _____ days after successful completion of the field training program (PBA Page 83).

    A) 90 days
    B) 60 days
    C) 45 days
    D) 120 days
    60 days
  318. What is the patrol experience that is required to obtain (MPO) Master Patrol Officer (PBA page 85).

    A) Ten years of service with the City of West Palm Beach Police Department including six years Patrol experience assigned as an officer working a zone
    B) Seven years of service with the City of West Palm Beach Police Department including four years Patrol experience assigned as an officer working a zone
    C) Ten years of service with the City of West Palm Beach Police Department including five years Patrol experience assigned as an officer working a zone
    D) Seven years of service with the City of West Palm Beach Police Department including three years Patrol experience assigned as an officer working a zone
    • Ten years of service with the City of West Palm Beach Police Department
    • including six years Patrol experience assigned as an officer working a
    • zone
  319. When an arbitrator is in favor of the aggrieved employee in both contract cases and discipline cases, corrective action, if any, shall be implemented as soon as possible, but no later than _______ days after receipt of the arbitrator’s award. In termination of employment cases involving reinstatement, the reinstatement shall commence with the start of the next payroll (PBA page 91)

    A) 7
    B) 10
    C) 15
    D) 21
    7
  320. What is an employee who elects to go to arbitration must present all claims, whether based on local, state or federal law before the arbitrator. This excludes claims pre-empted by local, state or federal law (PBA page 92)?

    A) Restricted Resolve
    B) Personal Repair
    C) Exclusive Remedy
    D) Private Mend
    Exclusive Remedy
  321. Annual leave benefits for employees shall accrue pursuant to City Code 62-58. What is the annual accrual expressed in eight-hour days for someone who has 15-19 years of service (PBA Page 31)?

    A) 20
    B) 22
    C) 24
    D) 21
    21
  322. An employee shall not be eligible to use any annual leave days until he/she has successfully completed his/her initial _____ months of employment (PBA page 31)

    A) 3 months
    B) 9 months
    C) 12 months
    D) 6 months
    6 months
  323. Starting at age ______ and each physical examination thereafter will include the prostatespecific antigen (PSA) testing (PBA page 37)

    A) 38
    B) 40
    C) 42
    D) 35
    40
  324. A mammogram will be given at age_______, then age _______, and then every year thereafter as part of the City-provided physical examination at no cost to the employee. If an employee elects to have a mammogram given by her own healthcare provider, the cost for such procedure will be incurred by the employee (PBA Page 37).

    A) 35 and 40
    B) 30 and 35
    C) 40 and 45
    D) 32 and 37
    35 and 40
  325. Employees shall be informed of the need to schedule a physical during October of the fiscal year in which they are due for a physical. Employees shall receive a stipend for their time of _______ upon completion of their physical, to include follow-up examination, for any non-stress test related examinations, or ________ upon completion of their physical, to include the stress test and follow up examinations, for any stress-test related examinations. To be eligible to receive this stipend all phases of the physical examination must be completed during off duty hours (PBA Page 38).

    A) $100 and $150
    B) $75 and $125
    C) $50 and $100
    D) $125 and $175
    $100 and $150
  326. When an employee is randomly chosen to take a urine specimen for testing and cannot produce a urine specimen sufficient for testing, the specimen will be thrown out and the employee will be given up to ______ ounces of fluid over a _______ period until the employee can produce a sufficient specimen (PBA Page 44).

    A) 32 ounces andtwo-hour period
    B) 42 ounces and two-hour period
    C) 40 ounces and three-hour period
    D) 40 ounces and two-hour period
    40 ounces and three-hour period
  327. An employee who voluntarily separates employment from the City within ______ years from the date of hire for any reason is required to repay all costs of recruit or routine training excluding Region XII funded courses (PBA page 52)

    A) 2 years
    B) 1 year
    C) 3 years
    D) 4 years
    3 years
  328. In accordance with City Policy 4-19 whenever an employee is voluntarily or involuntarily separated from employment within the first year of receiving higher educational reimbursement payment, the employee shall repay _________ percent of the amount paid; from one to two years of receiving higher educational reimbursement payment, _________ percent of the amount paid (PBA page 52).

    A) 75% and 25%
    B) 50% and 25%
    C) 75% and 50%
    D) 100% and 50%
    100% and 50%
  329. The City will provide an in-the-line-of-duty death benefit for funeral and burial expenses. Said amount of ___________ will be paid directly to the beneficiary of said employee (PBA Page 58).

    A) $25,000
    B  $30,000
    C) $45,000
    D) $60,000
    $30,000
  330. An employee who is certified by the State of Florida to administer the Breathalyzer Test or any other machine or device, excluding roadside tests, authorized by the Police Chief to determine the number of intoxicants or other stimulants in individuals will be paid at the rate of __________ per test (PBA page 59).

    A) $20.00
    B) $15.00
    C) $25.00
    D) $30.00
    $15.00
  331. Prior to the interrogation, the officer will consider the juvenile’s age, educational level, knowledge of the charge and nature of rights, experience, background, ability to read, write and understand the English language, or_______________, the location of the interrogation, the number of people present, requests by the juvenile, and the juvenile’s Miranda rights (SOP IV-15 page 10 of 34).

    A) The child’s ethical background
    B) The child’s Heritage
    C) The child’s native language
    D) The child’s religious background
    The child’s native language
  332. When it comes to Juvenile explanations the officers are urged to read the warning, then ask the juvenile what that warning means and then if the explanation is insufficient, explain the warning using this suggested language or any other "__________" language suitable for the juvenile's age and developmental capacity (SOP IV-15 page 15 of 34)

    A) Child friendly
    B) Ordinary
    C) Plain and simple
    D) Elementary level
    Child friendly
  333. What case law did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that a warrantless entry was justified under the “Emergency Aid” Doctrine. Officers responded to a disturbance where a man was going crazy. The subject barricaded himself inside the residence and placed to block the door officers noticed that the subject was cutting himself and made entry to try and render first aid (FLG LG 32).

    A) Riggs v. State (2005)
    B) Michigan v. Fisher (2009)
    C) Brighman City v. Stuart (2006)
    D) Fields v. State (2013)
    Michigan v. Fisher (2009)
  334. What case law did the court held that exigent circumstances existed when two detectives conducting surveillance at a residence as part of an ongoing investigation of methamphetamine production and sales in the area. They followed the subjects to several stores where product was obtained commonly used to make methamphetamine. When the subjects arrived back the two detectives became concerned that lab was set up and that it posed a threat to public. They quickly entered the residence and secured the house until Fire Rescue made entry to make it safe. Once the residence was cleared safe the detectives obtained a search warrant and recovered numerous liquids, chemicals used for production of methamphetamine (FLG LG 33)

    A) Ryburn v. Huff (2012)
    B) Barth v. State (2006)
    C) Flippo v. West Virginia (1999)
    D) Murphy v. State (2005)
    Barth v. State (2006)
  335. Officers can a enter a premise as part of a ____________ based on exigent circumstances surrounding an arrest. This security check permits the officer to protect themselves by looking for other persons that may be present in the area and who may pose a danger to the officer (FLG LG 34)

    A) Defensive Canvass
    B) Preventative Measures
    C) Protective sweep
    D) Safety patrol
    Protective sweep
  336. A third party cannot validly consent to a search of personal property belonging to another unless there is evidence of both common ________ over and mutual usage of the property (FLG LG 35)
    A) Ground
    B) Control
    C) Jurisdiction
    D) Authority
    Authority
  337. What case law states that an officer may “Knock and Talk” but if the resident opens the door and step out briefly, but then retreats into the home upon seeing the police (FLG LG 37)

    A) Calloway v. State (2013)
    B) State v. Morseman (1981)
    C) Potts v. Johnson (1995)
    D) Bumper v. North Carolina (1968)
    Calloway v. State (2013)
  338. What case law for “The Knock and Talk” where officers cannot enter the backyard without a search warrant (FLG LG 37)

    A) Potts v. Johnson (1995)
    B) Bernsteil v. State (1982)
    C) State v. Morseman (1981)
    D) Maryland v. Smith (1979)
    Potts v. Johnson (1995)
  339. When it comes to modification of bond: The court may in its own discretion modify or revoke the conditions of the release on bail. The state may also bring a motion to modify or forfeit the bond. A defendant may also request a reduction in bond, change in conditions, or release by filing ____________ (FLG LG 52)

    A) An appeal
    B) Habeas Corpus Action
    C) Reset on bond
    D) Extension
    Habeas Corpus Action
  340. The court, in its discretion, may revoke the bond and have the defendant taken into custody or may, for good cause, increase or reduce or reduce the amount of the bond. What is this called (FLG LG 2)

    A) Taking flight
    B) Failure to comply
    C) Breach of Bond
    D) Contempt of court
    Breach of Bond
  341. In the Criminal Justice Procedure Flow Charts what stage follow the two points path by which a defendant may appear at a felony arraignment, either by a determination of probable cause or by a grand jury indictment (FLG LG 53)

    A) Stage V
    B) Stage IV
    C) Stage III
    D) Stage I
    Stage III
  342. What stage outlines the parts of a trial in eight steps (FLG LG 53)

    A) Stage II
    B) Stage III
    C) Stage V
    D) Stage IV
    Stage IV
  343. A Law Enforcement officer may be held criminally liable if he or she enters into a conspiracy to deprive any citizen of any right or privilege guaranteed by the constitution. The officers shall not be fined more than ________ dollars or imprisonment not more than 10 years, or both (FLG LG 61)

    A) $25,000
    B) $15,000
    C) $20,000
    D) $10,000
    $10,000
  344. When a vehicle is being repossessed by a tow truck the license number must be displayed on both sides of the vehicle and must appear in lettering no less than _________ inches tall and in color contrasting from that of the background (FLG LG 62)

    A) 4
    B) 5
    C) 3
    D) 6
    4
  345. Leadership Permission nurtures trust. This can be tough, because too often leaders place a higher value on _________ others than on having integrity with them (5 Levels page 93).

    A) Influencing
    B) Impressing
    C) Inspiring
    D) Instilling
    Influencing
  346. Good leaders can look at hard truths, see people’s flaws, __________, and do it in a spirit of grace and truth (5 Levels page 103)

    A) Distinguish heartache
    B) Face Reality
    C) Show empathy
    D) Relate to others
    Face Reality
  347. Maxwell states that one of the secrets of connecting with people and building relationships is knowing and liking yourself. Maxwell wrote a book called Winning with People. He called this concept the ___________ (5 Levels page 105)

    A) Self image
    B) Acceptance within
    C) Radical honesty
    D) Mirror Principal
    Mirror Principal
  348. The work in relationship building always has to start with yourself. Maxwell broke this down into five (5) Principals, Self-Awareness, Self-Image, Self-Honesty, Self-Responsibility and ___________ (5 Levels Page 106)

    A) Self-Righteous
    B) Self-Esteem
    C) Self-Improvement
    D) Self-Sacrifice
    Self-Improvement
  349. One of the criticisms of permission leadership is that it can become manipulative. Maxwell would travel internationally and tell people “Treat others as you want others to treat you”. He called this the ____________ (5 Levels Page 108)

    A) Ghandi Prophecy
    B) Mandela strength
    C) Golden rule
    D) Marxism
    Golden rule
  350. Who stated that “Do you know how I identify someone who needs encouragement? If that person is breathing they need a pat on the back!” (5 Levels page 110)

    A) Truett Cathy (Founder Chic fila)
    B) S. Lewis (Write of Lord of The Rings)
    C) Jack Welch (GE CEO)
    D) Joe Namath (NFL quarterback)
    Truett Cathy (Founder Chic fila)
  351. The production level is where leadership really takes of and shifts into another gear. Who quoted the following: “The outstanding leaders of very are age are those who set up the own quotas and constantly exceed them” (5 Levels page 133)

    A) Peter Drucker (founder of modern Management)
    B) Thomas Watson (IBM founder)
    C) Colonel Powell (Secretary of State)
    D) Abraham Lincoln (16th President)
    Thomas Watson (IBM founder)
  352. Level 3 leaders (Production) _______ their people where they want to go - They don’t send them there (5 Levels page 136)?

    A) Guide
    B) Motivate
    C) Take
    D) Push
    Take
  353. With level 3 production, people’s leadership really begins to hit its stride. Maxwell there are six upsides to level 3. Which upside would describe, as the father of modern management said, “There are two types of people in the business community: those who produce results and those who give you reasons why they didn’t” (5Levels page 135)

    A) Leadership production gives Credibility to the leader
    B) Leadership production models and sets the standard for others visually
    C) Leadership production brings clarity and reality to the vision
    D) Leadership production solves a multitude of problems
    Leadership production gives Credibility to the leader
  354. The production level the leadership talk is supported by their walk. They deliver results. They live on their performance, not their _________ (5 Levels page 135).

    A) Prospective
    B) Potential
    C) Praise
    D) Power
    Potential
  355. Once Maxwell graduated college, two churches offered him jobs. One was in Maysville, Kentucky. The other was a small church in a small town in the middle of now where. Maxwell did not choose Mayville although it offered a full time and great benefits. Maxwell chose the small church in small town in the middle of nowhere. Where was the church (5 Levels page 137)?

    A) Zionsville, Indiana
    B) Tell City, Indiana
    C) Lebanon, Indiana
    D) Hillman, Indiana
    Hillman, Indiana
  356. In level 2 permission Maxwell gives five principles that start off with “The First Person”. What does he call “The first person to cause me problems is myself” (5 Levels Page 106)?

    A) Self-Image
    B) Self-responsibility
    C) Self-Honesty
    D) Self-improvement
    Self-Honesty
  357. In level 2 permission Maxwell gives five principles that start off with “The First Person”. What does he call “The first person who can make a difference is myself” (5 Levels Page 107)?

    A) Self-improvement
    B) Self-Honesty
    C) Self-responsibility
    D) Self-awareness
    Self-responsibility
  358. In level 2 permission Maxwell gives five principles that start off with “The First Person”. What does he call “The first person I must get along is myself” (5 Levels Page 106)?

    A) Self-Image
    B) Self-awareness
    C) Self-improvement
    D) Self-Honesty
    Self-Image
  359. In level 2 permission Maxwell gives five principles that start off with “The First Person”. What does he call “The first person I must change is myself” (5 Levels Page 106)?

    A) Self-honesty
    B) Self-improvement
    C) Self-Image
    D) Self-responsibility
    Self-improvement
  360. In level 2 permission Maxwell gives five principles that start off with “The First Person”. What does he call “The first person I must know is myself” (5 Levels Page 105)?

    A) Self-responsibility
    B) Self-Honesty
    C) Self-Improvement
    D) Self-Awareness
    Self-Awareness
  361. Certain Supervisors can exercise certain disciplinary measures upon members under their control. Who has the authority to impose an emergency suspension (SOP I-9 Page 2 of 10)

    A) Captain or higher
    B) Assistant Chief or higher
    C) Lieutenants through Assistant Chiefs
    D) Sergeants through Assistant Chiefs
    Lieutenants through Assistant Chiefs
  362. Who can exercise the recommendation for punitive discipline (SOP I-9 page 2 of 10)

    A) Lieutenants through Assistant Chiefs
    B) Chief of Police or designee
    D) Captain only
    D) Sergeants through Assistants Chiefs of Police
    Sergeants through Assistants Chiefs of Police
  363. Who can exercise an emergency relief from duty (SOP I-9 page 2 of 10)?

    A) Assistant Chief
    B) Captain
    C) Chief of Police or designee
    D) Lieutenants through the Chief of Police
    Chief of Police or designee
  364. Which is a non-punitive measure of discipline issued by members of superior rank or authority for infractions or violations of rules, regulations, policies or directives. The purpose is to educate the member about the deficiency to avoid repeat offenses. _______ will be documented on an “Employee Counseling” form and will be filed in the member’s section file (SOP I-9 page 3 of 10)?

    A) Verbal Counseling
    B) Remedial Counseling
    C) Written Reprimand
    D) Suspension
    Verbal Counseling
  365. Which is a non-punitive measure which may be recommended to correct a specific deficiency related to job performance. The recommendation for ______ is appropriate when a violation was caused primarily by the member being inadequately prepared for his or her responsibilities. The specific nature and procedure for ______ will be determined by supervisors and/or training officers and documented by memorandum. The memorandum will be maintained in the member’s section/platoon file and in the member’s training file in Staff Services (SOP I-9 page 3 of 10)?

    A) Written Reprimand
    B) Verbal Counseling
    C) Remedial Training
    D) Suspension
    remedial training
  366. Which is a non-punitive measure which is recommended by a member of superior rank and authority for infractions of rules, regulations, directives or standard operating procedures, or for repeated procedural error in the line of duty. The Chief of Police or designee reserves the right to review the circumstances surrounding the recommendation for a ______ and may agree with, impose stricter punishment, or void the reprimand. The ______ is documented on a Disciplinary Action form and will be maintained in the member’s personnel file (SOP I-9 page 3 of 10)?

    A) Suspension
    B) Written Reprimand
    C) Verbal Counseling
    D) Remedial Training
    written reprimand
  367. When a member is terminated, the following will be made available to him or her in writing: Reason for dismissal; Effective date of dismissal; Content of the officer’s employment record relating to the dismissal and ____________ (SOP I-9 page 4 of 10)

    A) Status of eligibility for Law Enforcement
    B) Status of fringe and retirement benefits after dismissal
    C) The amount of money taken toward the last paycheck
    D) The outline of how much they lost due to termination
    Status of fringe and retirement benefits after dismissal
  368. When it comes to the level of emergency action: If the offending member is in the complaining member's chain of command, the complainant will submit the specific details of the violation in memorandum form to the offending member's supervisor through the chain of command, bypassing the level of the offending member. If a police officer has knowledge of a lieutenant in his or her chain of command committing a violation. The officer submits a memorandum detailing the incident to ____________ (SOP I-9 5 of 10)?

    A) To the Captain of that Division
    B) To the Assistant Chief of Police of that division
    C) To the Chief of Police
    D) To his/or sergeant, who submits the memorandum to the appropriate Captain
    To his/or sergeant, who submits the memorandum to the appropriate Captain
  369. A member's immediate supervisor may relieve a member from duty on an emergency basis when it is in the best interest of the Department. (Example: an officer reports to his or her tour of duty under the influence of intoxicants). Such relief from duty will remain in effect until ________ hours on the next business day, unless otherwise directed by competent authority, when the relieved member and the supervisor will report to the member's Bureau Commander (Captain) or designee (SOP I-9 page 6 of 10).

    A) 1000
    B) 0800
    C) 0900
    D) 1700
    1000
  370. When verbal counseling is conducted the supervisor will meet with the member to administer the counseling and will document the meeting on an Employee Counseling form which will be maintained in the member’s _________ file (SOP I-9 page 6 of 10).

    A) Personnel
    B) Platoon
    C) IA
    D) Section
    Section
  371. When the _________ issues a Written Reprimand, the Internal Affairs Unit will prepare a Disciplinary Action Form which will be served to the member by their respective Shift Commander (SOP I-9 page 7 of 10).

    A) Assistant Chief
    B) Captain
    C) Chief of Police or designee
    D) Division Commander
    Chief of Police or designee
  372. All classified non-probationary members are entitled to a predetermination hearing as provided in the City's Discipline Administration Manual. This hearing is not a question and answer session, as the investigation into the matter has been completed. Rather, it is an opportunity for the member to offer mitigating circumstances as to why he or she should not be subject to punitive measures. The Hearing Board will be comprised of the Chief of Police (or designee) and _________, not from the same division as the member who is the subject of the hearing (SOP I-9 page 8 of 10).

    A) Two Assistant Chiefs
    B) Two Captains
    C) A captain and an Assistant Chief
    D) Two Lieutenants
    Two Captains
  373. Cadets serve at the pleasure of the Chief of Police. They are paid members of the Police Department and will work a minimum of _______ hours and a maximum of __________hours per week (SOP I-11 page 1 of 6)

    A) 24 and 32
    B) 20 and 29
    C) 32 and 36
    D) 34 and 39
    20 and 29
  374. The police department will provide _______ Cadet positions and as many as ______ positions in total (SOP I-11 page 3 of 6).

    A) 2 and 3
    B) 3 and 5
    C) 2 and 5
    D) 2 and 4
    2 and 4
  375. The starting salary for a cadet will be between ________ hourly (SOP I-11 page 4 of 11).

    A) $12.00 and $15.00
    B) $10.00 and $12.00
    C) $13.00 and $16.00
    D) $8.00 and $12.00
    $12.00 and $15.00
  376. When an officer is on Administrative Leave the officer must be available to respond to _________ immediately on request during the assigned duty hours (SOP I-9 page 9 of 10)

    A) Internal Affairs (IA) office
    B) Human Resource office at City Hall
    C) Police Administration Building
    D) City Attorney’s office
    Police Administration Building
  377. When an officer is denied leave already approved during Administrative Leave it is since Administrative Assignment supersedes and revokes prior approval of all requested use of earned leave scheduled to be taken after the imposition of administrative reassignment. This is to assure the speedy completion of any administrative investigation by avoiding conflicts with scheduled interviews. The affected member may reapply for leave period with additional approval from the ________________ (SOP I-9 page 9 of 10)

    A) Assistant Chief of IA
    B) Chief of Police
    C) Professional Standards Commander or designee
    D) Any Captain
    Professional Standards Commander or designee
  378. When the grievance is not resolved, the aggrieved employee may submit a request for arbitration to the ____________ per the current collective bargaining agreement (SOP I-10 page 2 of 2)

    A) Chief of Police
    B) Human Resource Manager
    C) City Manager
    D) Professional Standards Commander
    Human Resource Manager
  379. Eligibility requirements of the explorer applicant will include the following: (SOP I-14 Page 2 of 7).

    A) Between the ages of 14-21 and graduated the eighth grade,
    B) Between the ages of 13-21 and graduated the ninth grade,
    C) Between the ages of 15-21 and graduated the eighth grade,
    D) Between the ages of 14-21 and graduated the ninth grade,
    Between the ages of 14-21 and graduated the eighth grade
  380. Explorer must maintain a minimum ____ Grade Point Average; Selected Officers of the Post must maintain a ____ Grade Point Average (checked bi-annually) (SOP I-14 page 2 of 7)

    A) 2.0 and 3.0
    B) 2.5 and 3.0
    C) 2.0 and 2.5
    D) 2.0 and 3.5
    2.0 and 3.0 (checked bi-annually)
  381. The ______ is responsible for administering the Police Explorer program. Police Explorers are chartered through Learning for Life. The Police Explorer program shall adhere to all program policies / guidelines established by Learning for Life, Law Enforcement Exploring (SOP I-14 page 3 of 7).

    A) Lieutenant of Support Services
    B) Sergeant of Support Services
    C) Senior Advisors
    D) Support Services Bureau Commander
    Support Services Bureau Commander
  382. An administrative review will be completed by the Special Investigation Division Commander annually to ensure confidential informant files and Department practices conform to written directives and Florida Statute 914.28 (commonly known as ___________ SOP I-20 page 4 of 7).

    A) Rachels Law
    B) Ambers Law
    C) Stacy’s Law
    D) Peters Law
    Rachels Law
  383. Daily, the ___________ will conduct an inspection of the prisoner processing facility and document the inspection on the proper inspection form (SOP I-20 page 6 of 7).

    A) Division 1 Commander
    B) Division 2 Sergeant
    C) Division 2 commander
    D) Division 1 Sergeant
    Division 2 commander
  384. The first supervisor on the scene of a critical incident shall assume command. The supervisor shall announce they are the Incident Commander and where they are located on the appropriate Divisions radio channel. This may or may not be the command post at this stage of the incident. The Incident Commander should assess incident priorities: The Priorities are (in order): 1 Life Safety, 2 _________, 3 Property Stabilization (SOP I-21 page 1 of 5).

    A) Preservation of all scenes
    B) Manpower Allocations
    C) Incident Stabilization
    D) Media Control
    Incident Stabilization
  385. The Command Protocol consists of three parts. One of which is to perform size-up. Three sub-sections below that are 1____________, 2. Where is it going? (Potential), 3. What do I need to control it? (Resources) (SOP I-21 page 1 of 5).

    A) Where is it been? (Possible)
    B) What have I got? (Situation)
    C) What is it doing? (Prospective)
    D) What is the likely outcome? (Probable)
    What have I got? (Situation)
  386. The Passport Accountability System shall be used to compliment the Incident Command System and is expandable to include other City Departments and/or mutual aid response. The purpose of the Passport Accountability System is to account for all personnel, at any given time, within a small geographic area, within the hazard zone of an incident. Use of the system provides enhanced safety for personnel and provides Incident Command Staff a means to track and account for all personnel working in the hazard zone. Personnel Accountability Tags (PAT) will be issued to each employee and will consist of a Velcro backed plastic tag exhibiting the employees name and I.D. number. Personnel Accountability Tags are color-coded, and which color will be coded with an officer (SOP I-21 Page 4 of 5)?

    A) White
    B) Red
    C) Blue
    D) Yellow
    Yellow
  387. Personnel Accountability Tags are color-coded, and which color will be coded with a Sergeant (SOP I-21 Page 4 of 5)?

    A) Red
    B) Blue
    C) Yellow
    D) White
    Red
  388. Personnel Accountability Tags are color-coded, and which color will be coded with a Lieutenant (SOP I-21 Page 4 of 5)?

    A) Blue
    B) Yellow
    C) White
    D) Blue
    White
  389. When a sexual harassment complaint comes in it shall be reduced to writing, signed by the complainant, and contain at least the following: (FLG LG 66)

    A) The name, business address, and telephone number of the complainant
    B) The name, physical address, and contact information of the complainant
    C) The name, physical address, and the gender of the suspect
    D) The name, business address, and email of the complainant
    The name, business address, and telephone number of the complainant
  390. Many People in leadership positions try to solve problems by using systems. Or they pay others to try to solve problems for them. But the truth is, leaders cannot delegate the solving to someone else. They must be active in ____________________ (5 Levels Page 141).

    A) Breaking the chains, putting out fires, correcting incompetence, and directing people
    B) Breaking the obstacles, putting out fires, correcting mistakes, and directing people
    C) Breaking all barriers, putting out fires, correcting mistakes, and managing people
    D) Breaking the obstacles, putting out fires, correcting people, and directing subordinates
    Breaking the obstacles, putting out fires, correcting mistakes, and directing people
  391. The Historian and essayist Thomas Carlye quoted “___________” (5 Levels Page 141)?

    A) “Nothing builds self-accomplishments and self-esteem like vision”
    B) “Nothing builds Self-improvement and self-esteem like accomplishment”
    C) “Nothing builds Self-control and Self-esteem like Accomplishment”
    D) “Nothing builds Self-esteem and Self-confidence like accomplishment”
    “Nothing builds Self-esteem and Self-confidence like accomplishment”
  392. Winners attract people----some good, some bad, some average. The key to building a winning team is recognizing, selecting, and retaining the best people from the ones you attract (5Levels page 144)

    A) Observing, selecting and keeping
    B) Recognizing, choosing and retaining
    C) Observing, selecting and preserving
    D) Observing, selecting and retaining
    Observing, selecting and retaining
  393. Good Leaders on level 4 invest their _____, ______, _______ and ________ into growing others as leaders. (5 Levels Page 179)

    A) Time, effort, assets and brains
    B) Time, sympathy, money and thinking
    C) Time, empathy, money and observing
    D) Time, energy, money and thinking
    Time, energy, money and thinking
  394. In People Development Peter Drucker observed that “making the right people decisions is the ultimate means of trolling an organization well”. Maxwell states that the leaders on People development only put ______ percent of their focus on their personal productivity while ______ percent of it on developing the leading others (5 Levels age 182).

    A) 20 and 80
    B) 30 and 70
    C) 50 and 50
    D) 40 and 60
    20 and 80
  395. Maxwell states that you should never forget that leadership is the art of helping people change from: _________________ (5 Levels page 187).

    A) “Who they’re going to be to who they ought to be”
    B) “Who they’re looking to be to who they can be”
    C) “Who they’re thought to be to who they ought to be”
    D) “Who they have been to who they are now”
    “Who they’re thought to be to who they ought to be”
  396. Maxwell states in People Development that you shouldn’t allow yourself to become the _______ on your organization. Give it the best chance for a bright future by developing other leaders (5 Levels page 188).

    A) Strain
    B) Drag
    C) Lid
    D) Cap
    Lid
  397. Melinda Gates was a Philanthropists that understood the dynamics of leadership at an early age. Gates stated, “If you are successful, it is because somewhere, sometime, someone gave you a life or an idea that started you off in the right direction” Gates said this in her valedictorian speech at what academy and year (5 Levels Page 190)

    A) Naval Academy, 1983
    B) Ursuline Academy, 1982
    C) Richmond Academy, 1985
    D) Littleton Academy, 1982
    Ursuline Academy, 1982
  398. Maxwell said in People Development the greatest satisfaction in life comes from giving ___________ (5 Levels Page 192)

    A) To get rewarded
    B) To others
    C) To lead by example
    D) To accomplish
    To others
  399. One of the downfalls of People development is that maturity is the ability to think beyond yourself, see things from the perspective of others, and place their needs above your own. __________ prevents people from reaching that level of maturity (5 Levels page 196).

    A) Selfishness
    B) Greed
    C) Malice
    D) Unfriendliness
    Selfishness
  400. The bicycle is a _______ speed mountain bike clearly marked “Police” on the frame (SOP III-22 page 12 of 13).

    A) 10
    B) 12
    C) 18
    D) 21
    21
  401. Layoffs will follow the procedure outline in the ______ as revised in September 2008. (PBA p 21)

    A) Florida State Statute
    B) PBA Contract
    C) Civil Service Rules and Regulations
    D) City of West Palm Beach City Commission by-laws
    Civil Service Rules and Regulations
  402. _____ discipline system used by the West Palm Beach Police Department. (PBA p 16)

    A) Step
    B) Meritorous
    C) PBA
    D) Progressive
    Progressive
  403. Progressive discipline utilizes ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___ for disciplinary actions. (PBA p. 16)

    A) Verbal, Electronic, Suspension, Termination, Other (reduce pay/demotion)
    B) Written, Suspension, Arbitration, Termination, Other (reduce pay/demotion)
    C) Verbal, Written, Suspension, Termination, Other (reduce pay/demotion)
    D)Termination, Grievance, Arbitration, Final Decision, Other (reduce pay/demotion)
    Verbal, Written, Suspension, Termination, Other (reduce pay/demotion)
Author
aff15pilot
ID
341536
Card Set
Perfection
Description
The select few can obtain this batch.
Updated