av115 week3

  1. under what condition, if any , may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried onboard an aircraft
    in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care
  2. no person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with____
    .0 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
  3. how soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, civil air security devision
    no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action
  4. which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic
    an aircraft in distress
  5. what action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on
    the aircraft on the left shall give way
  6. which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed
    Glider
  7. an airplane and an airship are converging, if the airship is left of the airplanes position, which aircraft has the right of way
    the airship
  8. which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed

    gyroplane 
    airship
    aircraft towing other aircraft
    aircraft towing other aircraft
  9. when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft______
    at the lower altitude, but shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
  10. an approved chair type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the proceeding____
    180 days
  11. a seaplane and a motor boat are on crossing courses. if the motor boat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right of way
    the seaplane
  12. what action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course
    both pilots should give way to the right
  13. with certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute
    when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more
  14. when an AT clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. the one exception to this regulation is ____
    an emergency
  15. as pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an AT clearance
    in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
  16. when would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which cause the pilot o deviate from an ATC clearance
    within 48 hours if requested by ATC
  17. what action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority
    file a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility if requested
  18. an ATC clearance provides
    authorization to proceed under specific traffic conditions in controlled airspace
  19. except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere
    an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
  20. except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate and aircraft over congested areas
    an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft
  21. completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by____
    an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records
  22. an aircrafts annual condition inspection was performed on july 12 this year. the next annual inspection will be due no later than ____
    july 31st next year
  23. to determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the _____
    aircraft maintenance records
  24. what aircraft ingestions are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction
    annual condition and 100 hour inspections
  25. no person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected pithing the at least the preceding ______
    24 calendar months
  26. maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on september 1 2014. the next inspection will be due no later than _____
    september 30th 2016
  27. preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. what paperwork is required
    the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate herd by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records
  28. what regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance
    14 CFR part 43.7
  29. who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service
    private or commercial pilot
  30. which operation would be described as preventative maintenance
    replenishing hydraulic fluid
  31. if an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircrafts operation in flight, that aircraft must be tested flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated with_____
    passengers on board
  32. before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriated rated pilot who holds at least ____
    a private pilot certificate
  33. an aircraft had a 100 hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. when is the next 100 hour inspection due
    1359.6
  34. a 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. the 100 hour inspection was accidentally done at 3309.5 hours. when is the next 100 hour inspection due
    3402.5 hours
  35. which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts
    airports with control towers underlying class b, c, d, and e airspace are shown in blue
  36. when a control tower, located on an airport within class d airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation
    the airspace reverts to a class e or a combination of glass e and g airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation
  37. a non-tower satellite airport, pithing the same class d airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the ____
    primary airports control tower
  38. two-way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace
    class C
  39. which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering class c airspace
    contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
  40. the vertical limit of class c airspace above the primary airport is normally _____
    4000 feet AGL
  41. the radius of the procedural outer areas of class c airspace is normally ___
    20 NM
  42. all operations within class c airspace must be in ____
    an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code
  43. under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within class c airspace
    the pilot must contact ATC as soon as practical after takeoff
  44. what minimum radio equipment is required for operation within class c airspace
    two-way radio equipment, a 4096 transponder, and encoding altimeter
  45. normal VFR operations in class d airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least ____
    1000 feet and 3 miles
  46. unless otherwise authorized two way radio communications with ATC are required for landings or takeoffs at_______
    all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions
  47. unless otherwise specified, federal airways include that class E airspace extending upward from _____
    1200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
  48. with certain exceptions, class e airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1200 feet AGL to, but does not include _____
    18,000 MSL
  49. under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area
    with the controlling agencies authorization
  50. flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has ____
    received prior authorization from the controlling agency
  51. what action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a military operations area MOA
    exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
  52. responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rest with _____
    all pilots
  53. pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than ____
    2000 AGL
  54. when flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with mcalester flight service is _____
    Mcallister radio , hawk 6 6 6 charlie bravo, receiving ardmore vortac, over
  55. the correct method of stating 4500 Feet MSL to ATC is
    four thousand five hundred
  56. the correct method for stating 10,500 MSL to ATC is
    one zero thousand five hundred
  57. when should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff
    when departing from a runway intersection
  58. as standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
    10 miles
  59. absence of the sky condition ad visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
    the ceiling is at least 5000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
  60. automatic terminal information service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning _____
    non control information in selected high activity terminal areas
  61. select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing ares used exclusively as heliports
    123.05 and 123.075
  62. after landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control
    when advised by the tower to do so
  63. if instructed by ground control to taxi to runway 9, the pilot may proceed _____
    to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required
  64. a steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot is ____
    cleared to land
  65. an alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to ____
    exercise extreme caution
  66. which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi
    flashing green
  67. if the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to another aircraft and continue circling, the light will be ____
    steady red
  68. a flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to ____
    return to the starting point on the airport
  69. while on final approach for landing, an alternation green and red light followed by a flashing read light is received from the control tower. under these circumstances, the pilot should ____
    exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe to land
  70. if the aircrafts radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport
    observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern and look for a light signal from the tower
  71. when an ATC issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12 hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircrafts ____
    ground track
  72. an ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090 degrees: traffic 3 o'clock, 2 miles, westbound 
    the pilot should look for this traffic _____
    south
  73. an ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot on a heading of 360 
    traffic 10 o clock 2 miles southbound 
    where should the pilot look for this traffic
    northwest
  74. TRSA service in the terminal radar program provides____
    sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
  75. an ATC radar facility issues the following advisory: traffic 2 o clock five miles northbound 
    the pilot should look for this traffic___
    between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right
  76. an ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in calm wind 
    traffic 9 o clock 2 miles southbound 
    the pilot should look for this traffic ____
    west
  77. basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
    safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
  78. from whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations
    ground control, on initial contact
  79. an operable 4096 code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace
    class a, class b ( pithing 30 miles of class b primary airport) and class c
  80. an operable 4096 code transponder and mode c encoding altimeter are required in _____
    class b airspace within 30 miles of the class b primary airport
  81. when operation under VFR below 18,000 MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected
    1200
  82. when operating the transponder on the VFR code 1200 what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in
    A
  83. if ATC advised that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing class c airspace, the transponder should be set to code
    1200
  84. with certain exceptions, all aircraft pithing 30 miles of class b primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 MSL must be equipped with____
    an operable transponder having either mode S or 4096 code capability with mode C automatic altitude reporting capability
  85. when making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes
    7500, 7600, and 7700
  86. unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code
    1200
  87. when activated, and emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
    121.5 and 406 MHz
  88. when must batteries in an ELT be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable
    when the ELT has been in use for one or more than one cumulative hour
  89. when are non rechargeable batteries of an ELT required to be replaced
    when 50 percent of their useful battery life expires
  90. when must the battery in an ELT be replaced or recharged
    after one half of the batteries useful life
  91. when may an ELT be tested
    during the first 5 minutes of the hour
  92. which procedure is recommended to endure the ELT has not been activated
    monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
Author
codysd1
ID
341162
Card Set
av115 week3
Description
AV115 WEEK THREE
Updated