-
under what condition, if any , may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried onboard an aircraft
in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care
-
no person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with____
.0 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
-
how soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, civil air security devision
no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action
-
which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic
an aircraft in distress
-
what action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on
the aircraft on the left shall give way
-
which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed
Glider
-
an airplane and an airship are converging, if the airship is left of the airplanes position, which aircraft has the right of way
the airship
-
which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed
gyroplane
airship
aircraft towing other aircraft
aircraft towing other aircraft
-
when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft______
at the lower altitude, but shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
-
an approved chair type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the proceeding____
180 days
-
a seaplane and a motor boat are on crossing courses. if the motor boat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right of way
the seaplane
-
what action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course
both pilots should give way to the right
-
with certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute
when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more
-
when an AT clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. the one exception to this regulation is ____
an emergency
-
as pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an AT clearance
in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
-
when would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which cause the pilot o deviate from an ATC clearance
within 48 hours if requested by ATC
-
what action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority
file a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility if requested
-
an ATC clearance provides
authorization to proceed under specific traffic conditions in controlled airspace
-
except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere
an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
-
except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate and aircraft over congested areas
an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft
-
completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by____
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records
-
an aircrafts annual condition inspection was performed on july 12 this year. the next annual inspection will be due no later than ____
july 31st next year
-
to determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the _____
aircraft maintenance records
-
what aircraft ingestions are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction
annual condition and 100 hour inspections
-
no person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected pithing the at least the preceding ______
24 calendar months
-
maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on september 1 2014. the next inspection will be due no later than _____
september 30th 2016
-
preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. what paperwork is required
the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate herd by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records
-
what regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance
14 CFR part 43.7
-
who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service
private or commercial pilot
-
which operation would be described as preventative maintenance
replenishing hydraulic fluid
-
if an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircrafts operation in flight, that aircraft must be tested flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated with_____
passengers on board
-
before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriated rated pilot who holds at least ____
a private pilot certificate
-
an aircraft had a 100 hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. when is the next 100 hour inspection due
1359.6
-
a 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. the 100 hour inspection was accidentally done at 3309.5 hours. when is the next 100 hour inspection due
3402.5 hours
-
which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts
airports with control towers underlying class b, c, d, and e airspace are shown in blue
-
when a control tower, located on an airport within class d airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation
the airspace reverts to a class e or a combination of glass e and g airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation
-
a non-tower satellite airport, pithing the same class d airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the ____
primary airports control tower
-
two-way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace
class C
-
which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering class c airspace
contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
-
the vertical limit of class c airspace above the primary airport is normally _____
4000 feet AGL
-
the radius of the procedural outer areas of class c airspace is normally ___
20 NM
-
all operations within class c airspace must be in ____
an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code
-
under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within class c airspace
the pilot must contact ATC as soon as practical after takeoff
-
what minimum radio equipment is required for operation within class c airspace
two-way radio equipment, a 4096 transponder, and encoding altimeter
-
normal VFR operations in class d airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least ____
1000 feet and 3 miles
-
unless otherwise authorized two way radio communications with ATC are required for landings or takeoffs at_______
all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions
-
unless otherwise specified, federal airways include that class E airspace extending upward from _____
1200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
-
with certain exceptions, class e airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1200 feet AGL to, but does not include _____
18,000 MSL
-
under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area
with the controlling agencies authorization
-
flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has ____
received prior authorization from the controlling agency
-
what action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a military operations area MOA
exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
-
responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rest with _____
all pilots
-
pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than ____
2000 AGL
-
when flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with mcalester flight service is _____
Mcallister radio , hawk 6 6 6 charlie bravo, receiving ardmore vortac, over
-
the correct method of stating 4500 Feet MSL to ATC is
four thousand five hundred
-
the correct method for stating 10,500 MSL to ATC is
one zero thousand five hundred
-
when should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff
when departing from a runway intersection
-
as standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
10 miles
-
absence of the sky condition ad visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
the ceiling is at least 5000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
-
automatic terminal information service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning _____
non control information in selected high activity terminal areas
-
select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing ares used exclusively as heliports
123.05 and 123.075
-
after landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control
when advised by the tower to do so
-
if instructed by ground control to taxi to runway 9, the pilot may proceed _____
to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required
-
a steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot is ____
cleared to land
-
an alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to ____
exercise extreme caution
-
which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi
flashing green
-
if the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to another aircraft and continue circling, the light will be ____
steady red
-
a flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to ____
return to the starting point on the airport
-
while on final approach for landing, an alternation green and red light followed by a flashing read light is received from the control tower. under these circumstances, the pilot should ____
exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe to land
-
if the aircrafts radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport
observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern and look for a light signal from the tower
-
when an ATC issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12 hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircrafts ____
ground track
-
an ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090 degrees: traffic 3 o'clock, 2 miles, westbound
the pilot should look for this traffic _____
south
-
an ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot on a heading of 360
traffic 10 o clock 2 miles southbound
where should the pilot look for this traffic
northwest
-
TRSA service in the terminal radar program provides____
sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
-
an ATC radar facility issues the following advisory: traffic 2 o clock five miles northbound
the pilot should look for this traffic___
between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right
-
an ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in calm wind
traffic 9 o clock 2 miles southbound
the pilot should look for this traffic ____
west
-
basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
-
from whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations
ground control, on initial contact
-
an operable 4096 code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace
class a, class b ( pithing 30 miles of class b primary airport) and class c
-
an operable 4096 code transponder and mode c encoding altimeter are required in _____
class b airspace within 30 miles of the class b primary airport
-
when operation under VFR below 18,000 MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected
1200
-
when operating the transponder on the VFR code 1200 what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in
A
-
if ATC advised that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing class c airspace, the transponder should be set to code
1200
-
with certain exceptions, all aircraft pithing 30 miles of class b primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 MSL must be equipped with____
an operable transponder having either mode S or 4096 code capability with mode C automatic altitude reporting capability
-
when making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes
7500, 7600, and 7700
-
unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code
1200
-
when activated, and emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
121.5 and 406 MHz
-
when must batteries in an ELT be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable
when the ELT has been in use for one or more than one cumulative hour
-
when are non rechargeable batteries of an ELT required to be replaced
when 50 percent of their useful battery life expires
-
when must the battery in an ELT be replaced or recharged
after one half of the batteries useful life
-
when may an ELT be tested
during the first 5 minutes of the hour
-
which procedure is recommended to endure the ELT has not been activated
monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
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