mcat science 4

  1. We see d2sp3 hybridization in the transition metals and sp3d2 hybridization in the nonmetals.
    We see d2sp3 hybridization in the transition metals and sp3d2 hybridization in the nonmetals.
  2. Proteolysis is the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or amino acids via _______ reactions
    hydrolysis
  3. red cat    an ox

    anode cathode on electrolytic cell
    anode cathode on galvanic cell
    reduction at cathode  and oxidation at anode

    • + anode / - cathode electrolytic 
    • - anode / + cathode galvanic
  4. In a synthesis reaction, two or more reactants (elements, molecules, or ions) combine to form a single product. Most commonly, these reactions involve two reactants, but more can be observed as well. A simple example is 3 H2 + N2 → 2 NH3. This category also includes reactions in which a functional group is added to a compound, such as phosphorylation (the addition of a PO32− group). Its opposite is decomposition or cleavage, in which a reactant is broken down into multiple smaller products.




    In single displacement reactions, one element/group replaces another in a compound, while two elements/groups switch in double displacement reactions, as exemplified by: BaCl2(aq) + MgSO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + MgCl2(aq). Conceptually similar are neutralization reactions, in which an acid and base react to create a salt and water, such as: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l).




    Combustion is a unique reaction in which a compound reacts, or burns, in the presence of elemental oxygen (O2). The fuel in most combustion reactions is a hydrocarbon, which produces carbon dioxide and water, as seen in the combustion of propane: C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(g).
    In a synthesis reaction, two or more reactants (elements, molecules, or ions) combine to form a single product. Most commonly, these reactions involve two reactants, but more can be observed as well. A simple example is 3 H2 + N2 → 2 NH3. This category also includes reactions in which a functional group is added to a compound, such as phosphorylation (the addition of a PO32− group). Its opposite is decomposition or cleavage, in which a reactant is broken down into multiple smaller products.




    In single displacement reactions, one element/group replaces another in a compound, while two elements/groups switch in double displacement reactions, as exemplified by: BaCl2(aq) + MgSO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + MgCl2(aq). Conceptually similar are neutralization reactions, in which an acid and base react to create a salt and water, such as: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l).




    Combustion is a unique reaction in which a compound reacts, or burns, in the presence of elemental oxygen (O2). The fuel in most combustion reactions is a hydrocarbon, which produces carbon dioxide and water, as seen in the combustion of propane: C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(g).
  5. If transmitted light rays refracted differently depending on their wavelengths, then the effective focal length of the lens would differ for each wavelength of light. As a result, for any light containing rays of multiple wavelengths, the rays would focus at multiple points, resulting in an unfocused image. This is known as a ______, in which optical instrument fails to converge light rays from a source to a single point.
    chromatic aberration
  6. enantiomers and diaesteriomers

    _____ have similar chemical and physical properties

    ____ have similar chemical but different physical properties
    enantiomers

    diastereomers (different physical properties)
  7. In an isolated system, entropy is maximized when:

    I. the system is at equilibrium. 

    II. the system is far from equilibrium. 

    III. the system is unable to perform work.
    I. the system is at equilibrium. 



    III. the system is unable to perform work.
  8. Gases behave most ideally under high temperatures and low pressures.
    Gases behave most ideally under high temperatures and low pressures.
  9. An organic synthesist seeks to identify an efficient stereoselective reagent with which to produce the enantiomer of the biologically active sphingosine molecule pictured in the passage. Which of the following would be the most logical choice to try? 

    A. Tert-butoxide (achiral)

    B. DMSO (achiral)

    C. Diethyl tartrate (chiral, correct)

    D. Propanol (achiral)
  10. as temp increase volume increase 

    as pressure increase temperature increase

    as pressure increase volume decrease
    as temp increase volume increase 

    as pressure increase temperature increase

    as pressure increase volume decrease
  11. pO2 = mol fraction O2 x Total pressure

    mol fraction O2 = O2/ total
    pO2 = mol fraction O2 x Total pressure

    mol fraction O2 = O2/ total
  12. Km is an inverse measure of affinity

     FRα displays relatively high affinity for folic acid (to which it binds and imports into the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis), relatively low affinity for 5MTHF

    The Km for the binding of the FRα receptor to folic acid under physiological conditions is: 

    A. greater than that for 5MTHF binding. 


    B. smaller than that for 5MTHF binding. 


    C. equal to that for 5MTHF binding. 


    D. unable to be determined relative to that for 5MTHF binding.
    B is correct. Km, or the substrate concentration at which a half-maximum reaction rate is reached, is an inverse measure of an enzyme’s affinity for a substrate. The passage states that under physiological conditions, the FRα receptor’s affinity for folic acid is greater than that for 5MTHF, indicating that the Km for its binding of folic acid under those same conditions should be less than that for 5MTHF binding.
  13. p-nitrophenol has a pKa of 7.16, whereas ethanol has a pKa of 16. What best explains this difference?
    Anion stability achieved by delocalized p-orbitals across the phenolic salt 

    Acidity is determined by the stability of the conjugate base. The more stable the conjugate, the stronger the original acid. In p-nitrophenol, the benzene backbone as well as the nitrogen in the NO2 substituent are sp2 hybridized, creating a plane of delocalized p-orbitals capable of stabilizing the excess negative charge on the alkoxide.
  14. Which of the following represents the net reaction for the electrolysis of water? 

    2 H2O (l) → O2 (g) + 2 H2 (g) 

    this option is properly balanced and lacks H+ and e-  in the net reaction.
    Which of the following represents the net reaction for the electrolysis of water? 

    2 H2O (l) → O2 (g) + 2 H2 (g) 

    this option is properly balanced and lacks H+ and e-  in the net reaction.
  15. Current units (Amphere)

    A = C /s 
    A = Coulumbs per second
  16. Effusion refers to the movement of gas particles through a small hole. 

    Rate of effusion increases with decreasing _____
    molecular weight
  17. Resting phase is also known as Gap 0 (G0). During this period, the cell just goes about its business; in fact, many fully-differentiated cells in the body remain in G0 for long periods of time. 

     interphase is broken into three stages: Gap 1 (G1), synthesis (S), and Gap 2 (G2). During G1 and G2, the cell grows, and during S, DNA is replicated. The fact that S is located between G1 and G2 allows checkpoints. The G1/S checkpoint, also known as the restriction point, is when a cell commits to division. The presence of DNA damage or other external factors can cause a cell to fail this checkpoint and not divide. The G2 checkpoint that takes place before cell division similarly checks for DNA damage after DNA replication, and if damage is detected, serves to “pause” cell division until the damage is repaired. Throughout interphase, chromatin is loosely packaged (euchromatin) to allow transcription and replication.

     G2/M checkpoint is located after the S phase (during which DNA replication occurs) but before entry into mitosis. Specifically, this checkpoint ensures that DNA has been replicated properly before the cell begins to divide.
  18. the protein component of microfilaments is ______

    ______ (along with _____) is found in muscle, but it is not found in microfilaments.

    ______ is the protein that composes prokaryotic flagella.

    ______ is the main constituent of microtubules, not microfilaments.
    actin

    Myosin

    actin

    Flagellin

    tubulin
  19. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in the body, with walls that are composed only of a single layer of ________ cells. 

    Smooth muscle is found in arteries and (to a lesser extent) veins, as well as arterioles and large venules. Capillary walls do not contain smooth muscle.
    endothelial
  20. Gluconeogenesis, which occurs in the liver during a period of fasting, produces glucose from non-carbohydrate carbon substrates such as pyruvate, glycerol, lactate, TCA cycle intermediates, and the carbon skeletons of glucogenic amino acids (either directly, or indirectly as intermediates of the TCA cycle).

    However, acetyl-CoA cannot, when produced from the oxidation of even-chain fatty acids, serve as a substrate for gluconeogenesis. This is because the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is irreversible; additionally, during the TCA cycle, the two carbons of acetyl-CoA are lost as two molecules of CO2 and are not integrated into the carbon skeletons of TCA cycle intermediates that can be directed into gluconeogenesis.
  21. For what reason was 14CO2 production chosen to measure the rate of oxidation of labeled [1-14C] palmitate and TCA cycle flux?
    14C contained in acetyl-CoA entering the TCA cycle may be incorporated into 14CO2.

    The passage states that fatty acids may be transported into the mitochondrial matrix in the form of acyl-carnitine for breakdown to acetyl-CoA and subsequent oxidation in the TCA cycle. Carbon that enters the cycle as acetyl-CoA is lost as CO2. Due to this link, the rate of 14CO2 production is a sensible value to use to measure the rate of oxidation of labeled acid [1-14C] palmitate and TCA cycle flux.
  22. match

    sulfur phosphorous 

    dna protein

    The ______ is the site of protein modification. Proteins are made of amino acids, which don’t contain phosphate.
    • DNA - Phosphorous (Nucleus)
    • Protein - Sulfur 

    Golgi apparatus
  23. Cholecystokinin (CCK) acts in the small intestine upon the entry of food into the duodenum from the stomach.

    Functions? (4)

    what inhibits it?
    stimulating pancreatic acinar cells to release digestive enzymes

     stimulating feelings of satiety (fullness) to suppress hunger

    inhibiting stomach emptying

    • lowering gastric acid secretion
    • --------

    Somatostatin, aka growth hormone inhibiting hormone, is the hormone that inhibits the release of CCK
  24. The cerebellum receives information from sensory systems and then regulates fine motor movements. Thus, it coordinates posture, balance, fine motor coordination (like opening a bottle), and speech. It is located at the bottom back of the skull:







    A: The pons is involved in sleeping and respiration.




    B: The main function of the hypothalamus is to link the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland.




    D: The hippocampus is primarily involved in emotion and memory.
  25. ______ mutation is a point mutation and therefore does result from a single-nucleotide replacement, such a mutation replaces one amino acid with another

    A _______ is the result of a mutation that substitutes a purine for a pyrimidine or a pyrimidine for a purine

    A ______ mutation is an insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotides that results in a changed reading frame. 

    The eukaryotic RNA stop codons are ? 

    The introduction of a premature stop codon is a ________ mutation.
    missense

    transversion

    frameshift

    UAA, UAG, UGA

    nonsense
  26. 3 (hormone) (osteo) (effect on blood)
    3 (hormone) (osteo) (effect on blood)
    Parathyroid - Osteoclast - Increase Calcium blood

    Calcitonin - Osteoblast - Decrease calcium in blood.
  27. These bone marrow-derived cells are abundant in normal human and murine dermis and occupy the perivascular space, where they are closely associated with mast cells. They are a kind of dermal macrophage.
    dendrocytes
  28. How parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium 

    How calcitonin decrease blood calcium
    Parathyroid:

    - Increase osteoclast breakdown bones to release stored calcium into blood.

    - Increase dietary calcium resabsorption from intestines 

    • - Decrease calcium excretion in urine by kidneys.
    • --------------------------

    Calcitonin:

    - Increase osteoblast bone formation taking calcium to bones to store.

    - Decrease intestine reabsorption of calcium.

    - Increase excretion of calcium in urine by kidneys
  29. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p and q represent the frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles, respectively, found in a population (p + q = 1). This equation is useful in determining the relative occurence of genotypes in a given population, but to determine phenotypes

    As such, the phenotypic outcomes in a population can be calculated as p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. The first term represents homozygous dominant individuals, the second term represents heterozygotes, and the third term refers to the homozygous recessive phenotypes in the population.
  30. A cDNA library includes only the coding regions; therefore, it can be easily expressed in prokaryotes via their transcriptional machinery. However, expression of an entire genome in prokaryotes is hard for a number of reasons, including the fact that there is no splicing mechanism in prokaryotes to remove the non-coding regions.




    A: A genomic library includes the entire genome of an organism. In contrast, a cDNA library is derived from the extracted mRNA. Thus, a genomic library is larger than a cDNA library.




    B: Since the genomic library includes the entire genome, it includes both coding and non-coding regions. A cDNA library includes only the coding regions because the non-coding regions were spliced out during the post-transcriptional modification of mRNA.




    D: A genomic library (which houses the entire genome) includes promoters, but a mature mRNA molecule does not. Therefore, a cDNA library doesn’t either.
    A cDNA library includes only the coding regions; therefore, it can be easily expressed in prokaryotes via their transcriptional machinery. However, expression of an entire genome in prokaryotes is hard for a number of reasons, including the fact that there is no splicing mechanism in prokaryotes to remove the non-coding regions.




    A: A genomic library includes the entire genome of an organism. In contrast, a cDNA library is derived from the extracted mRNA. Thus, a genomic library is larger than a cDNA library.




    B: Since the genomic library includes the entire genome, it includes both coding and non-coding regions. A cDNA library includes only the coding regions because the non-coding regions were spliced out during the post-transcriptional modification of mRNA.




    D: A genomic library (which houses the entire genome) includes promoters, but a mature mRNA molecule does not. Therefore, a cDNA library doesn’t either.
  31. pentose phosphate pathway

    oxidative phase product
    reversible or irreversible

    non-oxidative phase product
    r or irreversible
    oxidative phase product: NADPH, irreversible 

    non-oxidative phase product: ribose-5-phosphate, reversibly fed into glycolysis
  32. One way in which a ribosome can be seen to act as a ribozyme is that the ribosome can act as a scaffold that assists with the assembly of peptides from amino acids. 

    The term "ribozyme" refers to something that acts as an enzyme - in other words, it catalyzes chemical reactions. Interestingly, while typical enzymes are only made of protein, ribozymes are made at least partially of RNA. In the cell, ribosomes play an assistive role in holding mRNA in a way that allows amino acids (also known as protein monomers) to bond to the mRNA one at a time during the process of synthesizing these amino acids into a peptide chain.
    One way in which a ribosome can be seen to act as a ribozyme is that the ribosome can act as a scaffold that assists with the assembly of peptides from amino acids. 

    The term "ribozyme" refers to something that acts as an enzyme - in other words, it catalyzes chemical reactions. Interestingly, while typical enzymes are only made of protein, ribozymes are made at least partially of RNA. In the cell, ribosomes play an assistive role in holding mRNA in a way that allows amino acids (also known as protein monomers) to bond to the mRNA one at a time during the process of synthesizing these amino acids into a peptide chain.
  33. Promoters are regions of DNA that lie upstream to a given gene and initiate transcription by binding specific transcription factors that contribute to the binding of RNA polymerase. Additionally, expression is upregulated by enhancers, which are DNA sequences that can be located further from the gene of interest, and work by binding transcription factors that twist DNA into a hairpin loop, bringing distant regions into close proximity for transcription to begin. Silencers are the opposite of enhancers in eukaryotic cells; they are regions of DNA to which transcription factors known as repressors bind. Additionally, the methylation of C and A residues can reduce transcription. Methylation is associated with epigenetics, which refers to inheritable phenotypic changes involving mechanisms other than the alteration of the genome itself.

     

    Gene expression can also be regulated on the level of nucleosomes (i.e. chromatin and histones). Acetylation promotes transcription by attaching acetyl groups to lysine residues on histones, making them less positively-charged and causing a looser wrapping pattern that allows transcription factors to access the genome more easily.

     

    Finally, non-coding RNA plays a role in gene expression. MicroRNA (miRNA) strands are single-nucleotide strands incorporated into an RNA structure with a characteristic hairpin loop, while small interfering RNA (siRNA) molecules are short and double-stranded. Both tend to be approximately 22 nucleotides in length, and silence genes by interrupting expression between transcription and translation.
    Promoters are regions of DNA that lie upstream to a given gene and initiate transcription by binding specific transcription factors that contribute to the binding of RNA polymerase. Additionally, expression is upregulated by enhancers, which are DNA sequences that can be located further from the gene of interest, and work by binding transcription factors that twist DNA into a hairpin loop, bringing distant regions into close proximity for transcription to begin. Silencers are the opposite of enhancers in eukaryotic cells; they are regions of DNA to which transcription factors known as repressors bind. Additionally, the methylation of C and A residues can reduce transcription. Methylation is associated with epigenetics, which refers to inheritable phenotypic changes involving mechanisms other than the alteration of the genome itself.

     

    Gene expression can also be regulated on the level of nucleosomes (i.e. chromatin and histones). Acetylation promotes transcription by attaching acetyl groups to lysine residues on histones, making them less positively-charged and causing a looser wrapping pattern that allows transcription factors to access the genome more easily.

     

    Finally, non-coding RNA plays a role in gene expression. MicroRNA (miRNA) strands are single-nucleotide strands incorporated into an RNA structure with a characteristic hairpin loop, while small interfering RNA (siRNA) molecules are short and double-stranded. Both tend to be approximately 22 nucleotides in length, and silence genes by interrupting expression between transcription and translation.
  34. Which of the following does the complementary nature of the DNA sense strand and antisense strand encompass?

    I. Every nucleotide base on the sense strand has a complementary base on the antisense strand.



    II: The sense strand is never transcribed into RNA; only the antisense strand is.




    III: Transcription of DNA to RNA always takes place by transcribing DNA onto an antiparallel RNA strand, not a parallel one.
    Which of the following does the complementary nature of the DNA sense strand and antisense strand encompass?

    I. Every nucleotide base on the sense strand has a complementary base on the antisense strand.



    II: The sense strand is never transcribed into RNA; only the antisense strand is.




    III: Transcription of DNA to RNA always takes place by transcribing DNA onto an antiparallel RNA strand, not a parallel one.
  35. Glycolysis , gluconeogenesis, and fermentation all take place in the ________

    krebs takes place in the ______

    ETC takes place in the ______
    cytosol 

    mitochondrial matrix

    mitochondrial inner membrane
  36. A _______ is an enzyme attached to its cofactor. 




     An  is an inactive enzyme without its cofactor.
    holoenzyme

    apoenzyme
  37. which codon change would most likely result in an amino acid being unchanged? 

    1st, 2nd, or 3rd base?
    third cuz 3rd base wobble
  38. ______ is a technique used to sequence proteins via successive cleaving of terminal amino acid residues.
    Edman degradation
  39. The cytochrome c oxidase complex (complex IV) is the last enzyme of the electron transport chain. It receives one electron from each of four soluble cytochrome C molecules, transferring them to a single oxygen molecule and thus converting one O2 molecule into two molecules of water.
    The cytochrome c oxidase complex (complex IV) is the last enzyme of the electron transport chain. It receives one electron from each of four soluble cytochrome C molecules, transferring them to a single oxygen molecule and thus converting one O2 molecule into two molecules of water.
  40. Which cytoskeletal component forms the majority of the outer layer of skin? 

    A. Microfilaments 

    B. Microtubules 

    C. Intermediate filaments

    D. Elastins
    C is correct. The outer layer of skin is made up of keratin accumulated in dead cells. Keratin is an intermediate filament that has great strength
  41. which trimester?

    organ systems appear during _____

    rapid brain growth occurs during _____

    organ systems mature after birth and foramen ovale closes at birth
    the first trimester 

    last trimester
  42. long bones include (4)

    long bones contain _____marrow indicating low blood cell production

    flat bones include (3)

    flat bones contain ____ marrow
    hands, feet, arms, legs

    yellow

    skull ribs vertebrae

    red
  43. Low levels of carbs in ER and Golgi:

    - Water leaves the ER and Golgi through osmosis

    - carbs in ER and golgi act as a source for structural diversity and transport tags for glycoproteins without sugar tags proteins are secreted rather than delivered to cellular compartments like storage or lysosomal vesicles

    - defect in post-translational processing

    - glycogen breaks down to provide carb residues for structural and enzymatic activity for a cell
  44. _______- different manifestations of the same genotype in a population (different individuals)

    _______ multiple alleles of the same gene being expressed
    variable expressivity

    co-dominance
  45. two types of mutations that cause defect in protein function
    nonsense and frameshift
  46. liver converts acetylCoA to ketone bodies and they are reconverted to acetylCoA in extrahepatic cells/tissues

    so when the brain uses ketone bodies instead of glucose those ketone bodies are converted to acetylCoA

    Ketone bodies: Acetone Acetoacetate β - Hydroxybutyrate.

    in the liver acetylCoA is made by beta oxidation of fatty acids and is converted to ketone bodies when carbs are scarce. this occurs in the mitochondrial matrix of liver
  47. ________ remove introns in mRNA after they're synthesize so this is involved in transcription
    sliceosome
  48. Gastrin ---> _____ ------> HCL
    parietal cells
  49. greater than normal amount of chyme means more acidic which isnt good for pancreas because it requires an alkaline environment to function properly so no pancreatic enzymes to digest lipids
  50. hormone secreted by stomach when hungry

    hormone secreted by adipocytes when full
    ghrelin

    leptin
  51. cathode or anode?

    lower reduction potential =
    higher reduction potential = 

    electrons flow from ____ to ____



    Li+(aq) + e–   --> Li(s) -3.045 V



    I2(s) + 2 e– ---->   2 I–(aq) +0.535 V

    which is the anode? which cathode?
    • anode (oxidized)
    • cathode (reduction)

    anode to cathode

    lithium anode and iodine cathode
  52. increase diffusion of electrolytes down their neuronal concentration gradient by

    increasing temp
    increase surface area of axon (scavenging remaining myelin can do this)
    increase concentration gradient
    increase KE
  53. neurotransmitter migration is mediated by the _____

    action potentials are generated at the _____
    cytoskeleton 

    axon hillock
  54. SDS is a detergent that denatures proteins and is used in electrophoresis bcuz electrophoreisis separates proteins based off size . SDS is used in electrophoresis to make sure all proteins have a uniform size-charge ratio so the only factor determining their motion is size. 

    It is not used in isoelectric focusing bcuz that depends on charges on protein surface
    SDS is a detergent that denatures proteins and is used in electrophoresis bcuz electrophoreisis separates proteins based off size . SDS is used in electrophoresis to make sure all proteins have a uniform size-charge ratio so the only factor determining their motion is size. 

    It is not used in isoelectric focusing bcuz that depends on charges on protein surface
  55. changing the first nucleotide in a codon almost always results in a _____ mutation
    missense (one amino acid change to another)
  56. gastric ulcer results from failure to neutralize acid in stomach and the _____ secrete bicarbonate to neutralize acid

    gall bladder- stores and secretes _____ which emulsify fat to absorb fat from digestive tract so you won't have large amount of fat in stool like you would in gall bladder removal
    pancreas

    bile salts
  57. ____ virus are unlikely to carry transcription factors
    RNA virus like TMV
  58. log (1/10) =
    -1
  59. the standard cell potential for a concentration cell is always zero
    the standard cell potential for a concentration cell is always zero
  60. the thin limb of the ascending loop of henle is impermeable to water but permeable to Na+ and Cl-
    the thin limb of the ascending loop of henle is impermeable to water but permeable to Na+ and Cl-
  61. closed mitosis occurs in the _____

    open mitosis occurs in the _____
    nucleus

    cytoplasm bcuz nuclear envelope has degraded
  62. ______ is a technique which involves the application of centrifugal force to separate particles from a solution according to their molecular weight,  size, shape, density, viscosity of the medium and rotor speed.
    Centrifugation
  63. PCR = Number of strands x (2^#of replication cycles)

    example: If you have 100 strands and 5 replication cycles

    100 (2^5)
    2^5 = 32
    100 (32) = 3200
    PCR = Number of strands x (2^#of replication cycles)

    example: If you have 100 strands and 5 replication cycles

    • 100 (2^5)
    • 2^5 = 32
    • 100 (32) = 3200
  64. ______ hormone promotes fatty acid breakdown and inhibits glucose uptake by liver
    Growth hormone/ somatotropin
  65. Ribosomes are assembled in the _____ from _____ and proteins imported from the cytoplasm so a defect in the structure of a ribosome most likely occurs in the _____
    • nucleus
    • rRNA
    • nucleus
  66. when a fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation it turns to acetyl CoA and loses 2 carbons.

    How many carbons are lost by a 16carbon fatty acid undergoing 3 cycles of beta oxidation?

    2 x 3 = 6

    so it would be a 10 carbon molecule
    when a fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation it turns to acetyl CoA and loses 2 carbons.

    How many carbons are lost by a 16carbon fatty acid undergoing 3 cycles of beta oxidation?

    2 x 3 = 6

    so it would be a 10 carbon molecule
  67. a-tubulin is a major component of _____ and is found in _____ and _____
    microtubules

    cilia and flagella
  68. Galvanic cell
    -also called a voltaic cell
    -positive cell potential
    -spontaneous (delta G < 0)
    *I like to remember that "gals (females) are spontaneous"
    -cathode is positive
    -anode is negative

    Electrolytic cell
    -negative cell potential
    -requires energy input to induce a reaction
    -not spontaneous (delta G > 0)
    -cathode is negative
    -anode is positive
    • Galvanic cell
    • -also called a voltaic cell
    • -positive cell potential
    • -spontaneous (delta G < 0)
    • *I like to remember that "gals (females) are spontaneous"
    • -cathode is positive
    • -anode is negative

    • Electrolytic cell
    • -negative cell potential
    • -requires energy input to induce a reaction
    • -not spontaneous (delta G > 0)
    • -cathode is negative
    • -anode is positive
  69. paramagnetic vs diamagnetic

    unpaired e- =
    all paired e- =

    ____ are repelled by magnetic field
    _____ are attracted to magnetic field

    Only a few materials found in nature – iron, nickel, cobalt and gadolinium* – are ferromagnetic (attracted strongly), meaning they exhibit a strong response to a magnetic field by aligning with it.
    unpaired = paramagnetic (respond to electric field)

    paired = diamagnetic 

    • diamagnetic repelled
    • paramagnetic attracted 


    Only a few materials found in nature – iron, nickel, cobalt and gadolinium* – are ferromagnetic, meaning they exhibit a strong response to a magnetic field by aligning with it.

    ferromagnetic (attracted strongly)
  70. reducing the width of aperture in optical microscope will result in worsened resolution because diffraction is more pronounced with smaller aperture
    reducing the width of aperture in optical microscope will result in worsened resolution because diffraction is more pronounced with smaller aperture
  71. inappropriate folding of proteins cause aggregates to form by:

    having more hydrophobic residues (tyrosine, valine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, alanine, leucine) on the outer surface of protein since most of the time they're in the hydrophobic core

    having more beta sheets in the secondary structure
    inappropriate folding of proteins cause aggregates to form by:

    having more hydrophobic residues (tyrosine, valine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, alanine, leucine) on the outer surface of protein since most of the time they're in the hydrophobic core

    having more beta sheets in the secondary structure
  72. principle quantum # = size of orbital

    azimuthal/ angular momentum quantum # = shape of the orbital
    principle quantum # = size of orbital

    azimuthal/ angular momentum quantum # = shape of the orbital
  73. if a molecule exhibits a certain color that means it is reflecting that color, so any other wavelength range color is actually being absorbed.

    R - 750-620 (High wave/LOWER frequency)
    O - 620-590
    Y - 590-570
    G - 570-490
    B - 490-450
    V - 450-380 (low wave/ HIGHER frequency)

    Ronald
    Mcdonald
    is
    visiting
    ur
    x
    girlfriend 

    Radio wave (highest wave length)
    Microwaves
    Infrared
    Visible
    UV
    X-ray
    Gamma (lowest wavelength)

    RED/GREEN
    ORANGE/BLUE
    YELLOW/PURPLE
  74. NAD+/NADH only undergo 2 e- transfers and so they don't need to be tightly bound to enzyme and don't react as quick with O2 to form free radicals

    FAD/FADH2 undergo 1e- and 2e- transfers and therefore can react quickly with O2 to form free radicals that are stable called ______ and must be bound tightly to enzymes to keep from reacting with O2
    semiquinones
  75. what is the only amino acid that doesn't exist as a beta-amino acid?
    Glycine
  76. If a ray of light travelling through the air strikes a glass slab at 90°, what will the angle of refraction be?
    The angle of refraction will be zero as the angle of incidence is zero in this case.
  77. HYDROPHILIC OR hydorphobic side chain?

    tyrosine
    cysteine
    • tyrosine - hydrophobic
    • cysteine - hydrophilic
  78. glucose molar mass ______

    dissacharride molar mass ______
    180 g/mol

    360 g/mol
  79. ozone

    - lewis base (donate e-)
    - polar
    - permanent dipole moment
    ozone

    • - lewis base (donate e-)
    • - polar
    • - permanent dipole moment
  80. equilibrium

    - more moles gas in reactants means more entropy in reactants

    enthalpy - = exothermic
    enthalpy + = endothermic

    exo: increase temp = increase products or reactants?

    endo: increase temp =
    • exo- increase temp = increase reactants
    • endo- increase temp = increase products
  81. odd number of e- in compound means its paramagnetic

    even number of e- in compound means its diamagnetic 

    look at periodic table and look at protons and its same amount of e- so add e- and you know

    NO2 para or dia
    N2O4 para or dia
    NO2 = para (23 e-)

    N2O4 = DIA (46 e-)
  82. ideal fluid- forces and acceleration remain constant
  83. carboxylic acid --> add acid and alcohol and you get
    ester
  84. an ionizable group would present one evquivalence point
  85. So the 2 electron configuration tricks are: lose outer s before outer d, and look out for d5 / d10 stability.
  86. energy released as electron falls from infinitte distance to ground state is given by A so any other transition is less than or equal to A

    to a n=3 to n=2 jump .14A is plausible and above 1A isn;t and 0A isn't because energy was released going from higher to lower
  87. emitted light has a lower energy than absorbed light
  88. light with longer wavelengths defract more (at a greater angle) than light with shorter wavelengths so if diffraction and issue decrease wavelength to increase resolution

    increase size of aperture on objective lens improves resolution when diffraction an issue

    changing resolution on ocular lense wont make difference on resolution
  89. disulfide bonds are formed through oxidation of sulfhydryl groups
  90. hydrophobic amino acids more likely to be clustered around disulfide bonds in protein
  91. a lactone ring results from the condensation of a _____ and _____ in the same molecule
    alcohol and carboxylic acid
  92. a diver decelerates after complete submerge in water means water boyant force is more than diver weight

    KE via drag is reason he decelerates 

    once completely submerged buoyant force is constant
  93. hydrogen on sulfuric acid attacks carbonyl oxygen allowing nucleophilic group to attack carbonyl carbon
  94. why diastolic pressure lower than systolic?
    diastolic blood pressure is much lower than systolic because the heart is exerting no pressure on the blood during diastole cuz heart muscles relax
  95. when filling subshells fill one e- in each subshell first before pairing them
  96. order of increasing melting point (higher mw)

    urea > glucose > lactose
  97. somatic mutation

    most mutations occur while DNA is being replicated in ____ phase and it would not occur in meiosis because it is somatic mutation
    s phase
  98. the antigen binding site of an antibody is determined by its ______
    3D structure
  99. oxygen flows from alveolus to alveolar caplillaries so PO2 in air must be higher in the alveoli than capillaries
  100. a male child with disease has healthy parents so the disease cant be dominant with healthy parents

    autosomal recessive both parents carriers and x-linked recessive mom carrier
  101. lymphatic system functions

    - remove excess fluid from interstitial space
    - absorb fats from gi tract - lacteals
    - remove and destroy foreign particles
Author
JAM41MAN
ID
340982
Card Set
mcat science 4
Description
tein luu
Updated