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CST Exam 8

  1. The smallest microorganisms known are:
    Viruses

    Explanation: Viruses are the smallest microbe ranging from 300 nm to 30 nm.
  2. Intestinal motility is called:
    • Peristalsis
    • Explanation: Peristalsis is the rhythmic contractions of the smooth muscle layer to move food forward in the intestine, urine through the ureters and bile through the CBD.
  3. The peripheral nervous system contains:
    Cranial and spinal nerves
  4. The mucous membrane covering the eye is called the:
    • Conjunctiva
    • Explanation: The conjunctiva is the mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid and over the sclera and cornea.
  5. The cranial nerve that may be injured during carotid endarterectomy is the:
    • Hypoglossal (XII)
    • Explanation: The hypoglossal nerve must be identified and preserved during a carotid endarterectomy; the hypoglossal canal course through the neck to supply the muscles of the tongue. 
  6. What is the general rule for prepping a contaminated area?
    Prep the surrounding area first and the contaminated area last, using a separate sponge
  7. The folds of the lining in the stomach are:
    Rugae
  8. Cephalosporins are a/an:
    Antibiotic

    Explanation: Cephalosporins such as Ancef, Kefzol, and Keflex are antibiotics.
  9. Which of the following is a hypertrophic scar formation?
    Keloid
  10. The longest bone in the body is the:
    Femur

    Explanation: The femur is the longest, heaviest and strongest bone in the body.
  11. Which of the following makes up the inner tunic of the eye and receives images?
    Retina

    Explanation: The retina is the inner tunic that contains the photoreceptors; it receives images.
  12. The use of silk suture in urinary or biliary tract may result in:
    • Calculi
    • Explanation: The use of silk suture in urinary or biliary tract may result in calculi.
  13. Microfibrillar collagen (Avitene ™) is a/an
    Hemostatic agent

    Explanation: The hemostatic agent, collagen is available in various forms one of which is Avitene®; it is available in powder form, sheets and dispensor.
  14. The brain contains how many ventricles?
    4

    Explanation: The lateral ventricles are located in each cerebral hemisphere; third ventricle is located between the halves of the thalamus; fourth ventricle is located in the brain stem. 
  15. Which two drug classifications are combined to produce neuroleptanalgesia?
    • Tranquilizer and narcotic
    • Explanation: Neuroleptanalgesia is achieved with a balanced combination of a tranquilizer (neuroleptic) and narcotic analgesic agent.
  16. Laser light travels:
    In a straight line
  17. The roof of the mouth is called the:
    Palate

    Explanation: The roof of the mouth is the palate that is divided into the hard and soft palates.
  18. The kneecap is also known as the:
    Patella

    Explanation: The patella is a small triangular-shaped sesamoid bone that rests on the anterior surface of the knee joint.
  19. The body's first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is:
    Unbroken skin

    Explanation: Intact skin is the primary barrier against the invasion of pathogens.
  20. Which of the following medical terms refers to the skin?
    Integumentary
  21. Which laser should not be used in the presence of clear fluids?
    Carbon dioxide

    Explanation: The carbon dioxide laser beam is absorbed by water, therefore it is not effective for transmitting through clear liquids.
  22. Removal of necrotic tissue is called:
    Debridement

    Explanation: Contaminated wounds that contain infected and/or necrosed tissue may require excision of the tissue called debridement.
  23. The abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the underside of the penis is referred to as:
    • Hypospadias
    • Explanation: Hypospadias is the abnormal urethral opening on the underside of the penis, perineum of the male or vagina of the female.
  24. Which of the following is used to perform Schiller's test?
    Lugol's solution

    Explanation: Schiller's test involves applying Lugol's solution to the cervical os with a sponge stick; the tissue that remains brown colored is normal tissue and tissue that does not stain brown demonstrates dysplasia.
  25. What is the primary function of the islets of Langerhans?
    Maintain blood sugar level

    Explanation: The islets of Langerhans are endocrine glands that consist of alpha cells and beta cells; their main function is to maintain normal blood sugar level. 
  26. One of the distinguishing features of viruses is that they are:
    Obligate intracellular parasites

    Explanation: Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they rely completely on the host cells for survival.
  27. Which division of the nervous system controls involuntary muscle contractions?
    Autonomic

    Explanation: The autonomic nervous system (ANS) controls contractions of involuntary muscles.
  28. he olecranon process is part of which bone?
    Ulna

    Explanation: The olecranon is part of the ulna. 
  29. What does the term hepat/o mean?
    Liver
  30. The vertebrae are examples of what type of bone?
    Irregular
  31. The number of extrinsic ocular muscles that control eye movement is:
    6

    Explanation: The six extrinsic muscles of the eye originate from the bones of the orbit to move the eye in all directions.
  32. The colon begins at the:
    Cecum

    Explanation: The large intestine begins at the cecum; cecum begins inferior to the ileocecal valve
  33. Which of the following absorbable sutures offers the longest duration of wound support?
    • Polydioxanone
    • Explanation: Polydioxanone (PDS®) is an absorbable suture that offers extended wound support.
  34. Which of the following is a type of inflammatory bowel disease with chronic inflammation of the intestine?
    Crohn's

    Explanation: Crohn's is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation of the distal section of the small intestine.
  35. Which of the following is the most common cause of a surgical site infection?
    Patients endogenous flora

    Explanation: The two primary sources of SSI risk to the patient are endogenous flora and resident flora of the skin.
  36. What is the classification of SurgilonTM?
    Synthetic non-absorbable multifilament

    Explanation: SurgilonTM is an example of a nylon suture.  It is braided nylon with minimal tissue reaction and is coated to reduce tissue drag.
  37. The bone that articulates with the distal tibia and fibula is the:
    Talus

    Explanation: The talus is one of the seven tarsal bones that articulates with the fibula and tibia.
  38. Retinal detachment is due to:
    • Leakage of liquid from vitreous cavity
    • Explanation: A tear in the retina allows the liquid froms the vitreous cavity to leak through the tear and collect under the retina separating it fronm the choroid.
  39. Which of the following would have a positive effect on wound healing?
    • Early ambulation
    • Explanation: Early ambulation is one of the most important factors in the recovery of the surgical patient; therefore, it would not interfere with the healing process for a patient.
  40. Which of the following terms refers to the level of honesty and integrity that every surgical technologist must uphold in the delivery of quality patient care?
    Surgical conscience

    Explanation: Surgical conscience is the basis for the practice of strict adherence to aseptic technique and the ability to recognize and correct breaks in technique whether committed in the presence of others or alone.
  41. Which of the following is a narcotic antagonist?
    Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan®)

    Explanation: Naloxone hydrochloride is a narcotic antagonist used to reverse narcotic analgesics.
  42. Microorganisms that have the ability to adapt to an aerobic or anaerobic environment are:
    Facultative

    Explanation: Facultative microbes can survive in an environment that contains oxygen or no oxygen.
  43. Diuretics are used intraoperatively to:
    • Decrease intracranial pressure
    • Explanation: Diuretics such as Mannitol are used to decrease ICP, IOP or edema.
  44. Anticoagulants:
    Decrease the clotting time

    Explanation: Anticoagulants prevent blood clot formation and are used during vascular procedures.
  45. The thryoid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the:
    Isthmus

    Explanation: The right and left lateral lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by tissue that lies between the lobes and anterior to the trachea called the isthmus
  46. Which of the following bacteria requires oxygen?
    Aerobic

    Explanation: Aerobic bacteria require oxygen to survive; there are two types: obligate aerobes and microaerophiles.
  47. Which of the following is a life-threatening allergic reaction?
    Anaphylaxis

    Explanation: Anaphylaxis is an allergic reaction to a substance including drugs and latex.
  48. Which syringe is the most appropriate for administering a local anesthetic?
    Luer-Lok

    Explanation: Luer-Lok syringes have a secure connection that locks the needle onto the syringe by twisting it on.
  49. 1cc of solution is equivalent to:
    1mL
  50. The second cervical vertebra is called the:
    Axis

    Explanation: Seven bones are located in the cervical region; the second cervical vertebra (C2) is the axis which is fused with the body of the atlas (C1).
  51. Before donning the sterile gown and gloves the surgical technologist must:
    Perform a surgical hand and arm scrub
  52. Which of the following is a large vein that drains the head?
    Jugular

    Explanation: The jugular vein is a large vein that drains blood from the head.
  53. The largest ball-and-socket joint is the:
    Hip

    Explanation: The hip joint is a ball-and-socket joint formed by the head of the femur that fits into the acetabulum of the pelvis.
  54. The fraction 1÷4 is equal to
    0.25
  55. The inferior portion of the brain stem is the:
    Medulla

    Explanation: The medulla portion of the brain is a continuation of the spinal cord and forms the inferior portion of the brain stem. 
  56. The structure connecting the spinal cord with the brain is the:
    Brain stem

    Explanation: The brain stem is located between the spinal cord and diencephalon.
  57. The outer covering of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane, is called the:
    Pericardium

    Explanation: The pericardium protects the heart and prevents friction against the thoracic cavity.
  58. Which of the following are eucaryotic?
    • Fungi
    • Explanation: Eucaryotes include protozoa; fungi; green, brown and red algae; and all plant and animal cells.
  59. Which term refers to the end of a bone?
    Epiphysis

    Explanation: The epiphyses (plural; epiphysis, sing.) are the proximal and distal ends of the bone.
  60. Which of the following structures are found in the ventricles of the heart?
    • Papillary muscles
    • Explanation: The papillary muscles are found in the ventricles of the heart. 
  61. The foramen magnum is an opening in which bone?
    Occipital

    Explanation: The foramen magnum is found in the occipital bone.
  62. Which of the following joints permits movement in only one plane?
    Hinge

    Explanation: The hinge joint allows movement in only one plane such as the elbow joint.
  63. The prefix "hemi-" means:
    Half
  64. What degrees is 98.6 Fahrenheit equal to in Celsius?
    37
  65. What classification is a Bake surgical instrument?
    Dilating

    Explanation: The Bakes common duct dilator comes in a set of sequentially sized dilators #3-#10.
  66. Which term refers to low blood volume?
    Hypovolemia

    Explanation: Hypovolemia refers to a low blood volume that can be the result of hemorrhage or dehydration
  67. The colon ends at the:
    Anal canal

    Explanation: The last section of the colon is the anal canal ending in the anal orifice called the anus. 
  68. The preoperative medication used to neutralize stomach acidity is:
    Sodium citrate (Bi-Citra®)

    Explanation: Sodium citrate is an H2 blocker that neutralizes stomach acid and is given preoperatively.
  69. What does the abbreviation NPO mean?
    Nothing by mouth

    Explanation: NPO (nil per os) stands for nothing by mouth.
  70. Softening of the bone is called:
    Osteomalacia

    Explanation: Osteomalacia is a disease condition that causes softening of the bones caused by abnormal calcium deposits.
  71. Streptokinase is used as a/an:
    • Fibrinolytic
    • Explanation: Streptokinase activates plasminogen to cause fibrinolysis of thrombi in treatment of MI.
  72. The wavelength of laser light:
    Ranges from infrared to deep ultraviolet

    Explanation: The wavelength of laser light energy extends from near-ultraviolet to far-infrared.
  73. A clinical symptom of shock is:
    • Hypotension
    • Explanation: In the adult the clinical symptoms of shock are tachycardia, hypovolemia and hypotension.
  74. Which non-absorbable suture may be used in the presence of infection?
    Polypropylene

    Explanation: Polypropylene, besides steel, is one of the most inert suture materials that can be used in the presence of infection. (prolene)
  75. The purpose of the Foley catheter is to:
    Drain the bladder in order to avoid injury

    Explanation: The two primary purposes of the Foley catheter are measuring the urinary output and provide bladder decompression to protect the organ from injury.
  76. Endorphins, enkephalins, dopamine, and serotonin are examples of:
    Neurotransmitters

    Explanation: Neurotransmitters are chemicals released by neurons to increase or inhibit impulses. 
  77. The normal pouches of the large intestine are called:
    • Haustra
    • Explanation: The pouches of the large intestine are called haustra.
  78. Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart caused by bacteria is known as:
    Endocarditis

    Explanation: Endocarditis can involve the lining of the chambers of the heart, but it usually refers to inflammation of the endocardium that covers the valves.
  79. What does the number 4 represent in the decimal 0.02457?
    Thousandths
  80. The small intestine begins at the:
    • Pylorus
    • Explanation: The small intestine begins at the pyloric sphincter located at the junction of the stomach with the duodenum.
  81. What is the outermost layer of the skin?
    Epidermis

    Explanation: The integumentary system consists of the outer epidermis and inner dermis layers.
  82. Stat means:
    Immediately
  83. The suffix meaning blood condition is:
    -emia
  84. What is the pharmacological action of hydrocortisone?
    Anti-inflammatory

    Explanation: Hydrocortisone sodium succinate decreases inflammation by suppressing the immune response.
  85. The suffix that refers to suturing is:
    • -rrhaphy
    • Explanation: The suffix -rrhaphy means to suture such as herniorrhaphy.
  86. The combining form meaning gland is:
    Aden/o

    Explanation: The combining form aden/o means gland such as adenoma
  87. The type of fracture that is caused by forcing one bone upon another is called:
    Impacted

    Explanation: An impacted fracture is when the broken ends of bones are forced into each other creating bone fragments.
  88. Muscle is attached to bone by:
    Tendon
  89. Which chemical hemostatic agent must never be injected?
    Thrombin

    Explanation: Thrombin is used as a topical hemostatic and should never be injected.
  90. Spherically-shaped bacteria that occur in chains are referred to as:
    Streptococci
  91. Atheroma within the lumen of an artery is called:
    Arteriosclerosis obliterans

    Explanation: Arteriosclerosis obliterans affects the arterial system and is characterized by the formation of atheroma in the lumen of an artery.
  92. The abnormal enlargement of the male breast is called:
    Gynecomastia

    Explanation: Gynecomastia refers to the excess development of the male breast due to pathological or physiological reasons.
  93. An example of a flat bone is the:
    Cranial

    Explanation: The cranial bones are examples of flat bones.
  94. Which nasal sinus is entered through an eyebrow incision?
    Frontal

    Explanation: The frontal sinus is drained through an external incision made along the inferior edge of the eyebrow.
  95. Cramplike pains in the lower leg caused by poor blood circulation to the lower leg muscles is called
    • Claudication
    • Explanation: A primary sign and symptom of arterial disease is claudication, a cramping ache due to muscle ischemia.
  96. A projection on the surface of a bone located above a condyle is called a:
    Epicondyle

    Explanation: An epicondyle is a projection on the surface of the bone that is located proximal to the condyle.
  97. A patient with indirect and direct hernia has what type of hernia?
    Pantaloon
  98. Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen are:
    Plasma proteins

    Explanation: Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen are all plasma proteins
  99. What pathological term refers to failure of the lower esophageal muscles to relax?
    • Achalasia
    • Explanation: Achalasia is a type of motility disorder characterized by weight loss and aspiration pneumonia.
  100. Which nerve is affected by carpal tunnel syndrome?
    Median

    Explanation: Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by pressure of the median nerve by the transverse carpal ligament.
  101. Which of the following is the staining characteristic of gram-negative organisms?
    • Do not consistently stain
    • Explanation: Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the crystal violet and stain red from the safranin stain.
  102. Which of the following is a passive drain that allows fluid to exit by capillary action?
    Penrose

    Explanation: The Penrose drain is a type of passive drain; one end is inserted into the wound and the other is outside the wound to allow the fluid to move out of the wound to be absorbed by the dressing.
  103. Which of the following refers to the ability of the body to maintain a normal internal environment?
    Homeostasis

    Explanation: The daily actions and reactions of the body, such as maintaining the normal blood sugar level in the body, to maintain a normal physiological balance is called homeostasis.
  104. Which of the following can be achieved with the use of electrocautery?
    Coagulation

    Explanation: Coagulation uses electric current to close severed vessels.
  105. Which directional term refers to the middle of the body?
    Medial

    Explanation: Medial means towards the middle or midline of the body; opposite is lateral.
  106. The first cervical vertebra is called the:
    Atlas

    Explanation: The first cervical vertebra is called the atlas (C1) and it supports the skull.
  107. Topical administration of drugs includes all the following, except:
    • Parenteral
    • Explanation: Topical administration includes buccal, sublingual, instillation and inhalation.
  108. Which of the following is the most inert in tissue?
    • Polypropylene
    • Explanation: Polypropylene is one of the most inert suture materials.
  109. Where does the exchange of gases take place in the lung?
    Alveoli

    Explanation: Bronchioles end in the clusters of grape-like structures called the alveoli where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place.
  110. When opening an envelope-folded wrapper containing a sterile item, the first flap is opened:
    • Away from self
    • Explanation: The first flap is opened away from self, side flaps laterally and last flap toward self.
  111. What clotting factor does fibrinogen react with to form fibrin during the clotting process?
    Thrombin

    Explanation: Prothrombin reacts with thromboplastin to form thrombin that reacts with fibrinogen to form fibrin.
  112. A method of anesthesia in which anesthetic medication is injected into the subarachnoid space is a/an
    Spinal block

    Explanation: Spinal anesthesia involves injection of an anesthetic agent into the CSF in the subarachnoid space between meningeal layers.
  113. What organ of the body contains both striated and smooth muscle?
    Heart

    Explanation: Cardiac muscle tissue is striated, but involuntary.
  114. What does the suffix "-stasis" mean?
    • Stopping, standing still
    • Explanation: The suffix -stasis means standing, stopping or still such as hemostasis.
  115. What cellular organelle serves as the site of protein synthesis?
    Ribosomes

    Explanation: Ribosomes are the organelle responsible for protein.
  116. The term staphylococcus is the arrangement of:
    • Cocci in cluster
    • Explanation: Staplylococcus refers to a cluster of bacteria.
  117. What does the suffix -otomy mean?
    Incision
  118. What does the prefix "contra-" mean?
    Against, opposite
  119. Millimeter (mm) is a unit used to measure:
    Length
  120. A solid granular mass that develops on the ovary after the release of an ovum is the:
    • Corpus luteum
    • Explanation: The corpus luteum is a granular yellow body that develops in the ovary after the extrusion of an ovum.
  121. What portion of the backtable is considered sterile once the sterile field has been established?
    Only the top

    Explanation: Sterile drapes once positioned should not be moved, since the portion that falls below the table edge is considered contaminated.  The top only of the backtable is considered sterile.
  122. Which of the following is a monofilament non-absorbable suture?
    ProleneTM

    Explanation: Polypropylene suture includes ProleneTM and SurgileneTM; it is a synthetic available as a monofilament nonabsorbable.
  123. Any instance in which a local anesthetic is injected to block or anesthetize a nerve is called:
    Regional anesthesia

    Explanation: Regional anesthesia is the administration of an anesthetic drug along a major nerve tract; types include Bier, spinal and epidural blocks.
  124. Which combining form means eyelid?
    Blephar/o

    Explanation: Blephar/o refers to the eyelid such as blepharoplasty.
  125. Which of the following is the outer layer of the colon?
    Serosa

    Explanation: The layers of the colon from outside to inside are serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa.
  126. Which of the following glands regulates body temperature?
    Hypothalamus

    Explanation: Body temperature is regulated by the hypothalamus by monitoring the processes of heat production and loss.
  127. Craniosynostosis is a/an:
    Premature closure of cranial sutures

    Explanation: Craniosynostosis is the abnormal premature closure of the cranial sutures of an infant; it is treated by craniotomy.
  128. All of the medications inhibit blood coagulation, except:
    Calcium

    Explanation: Calcium is used as a blood coagulating agent to promote clot formation.
  129. The number of pairs of cranial nerves is:
    12

    Explanation: There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves that originate in the brain stem.
  130. What does the prefix inter- mean?
    Between
  131. Turning the hand so that the palm is upward is referred to as:
    Supination

    Explanation: Supination refer to pointing or turning a body part upward.
  132. Which agent is used to perform a chromotubation?
    • Methylene blue
    • Explanation: In gynecology, methylene blue solution is used during a chromotubation procedure (tubal dye study) to determine the patency of the fallopian tubes.
  133. What is the correct order of the layers of the meninges anterior to posterior?
    Dura, arachnoid, pia

    Explanation: The layers in order from outside to inside are dura, arachnoid and pia maters.
  134. Which salivary gland is drained by Stensen's duct?
    Parotid

    Explanation: The excretory duct of the parotid salivary gland is Stensen's duct.
  135. Reduced blood flow to an area is:
    • Ischemia
    • Explanation: Ischemia is the reduction of blood flow to an area.
  136. The gram stain differentiates between:
    Bacteria

    Explanation: The Gram stain is used to differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
  137. The passage of fluid and dissolved material into the thin membrane of a cell wall is:
    • Osmosis
    • Explanation: Osmosis is a type of diffusion where fluid and dissolved solvents move from an area of lower concentration to area of higher concentration.
  138. Immediately after receiving a medication, the surgical technologist in the scrub role should:
    Label the medication

    Explanation: Immediately after a medication is transferred to the sterile field the CST must label it.
  139. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the brain?
    Carotid

    Explanation: The internal carotid and vertebral arteries supply blood to the brain. 
  140. What type of suture is used for tendon repair?
    Polyethylene

    Explanation: Polyethylene is a nonabsorbable, braided suture  and has a high tensile strength making it ideal for tendon repair.
  141. What is the function of the Bartholin's glands?
    Secrete lubrication

    Explanation: Bartholin's glands are located in the vestibule; they are a pair of glands that secrete a thick lubricating mucoid fluid.
  142. The anatomical structure that creates cerebrospinal fluid is the:
    • Choroid plexuses
    • Explanation: The choroid plexuses are networks of capillaries located in the walls of the ventricles and are responsible for producing CSF.
  143. Irregular shaped bones that develop in the sutures of the skull are called:
    • Wormian
    • Explanation: Small, irregular shaped bones located within the sutures of cranial bones are called sutural or Wormian bones; the number of bones varies with each person.
  144. What is known as the measure of force required to break a suture?
    Tensile strength

    Explanation: A suture's tensile strength is the amount of weight required to break it.
  145. The only non-articulating bone in the body is the:
    Hyoid

    Explanation: The hyoid bone does not articulate with any other bone; it is suspended from the styloid processes of the temporal bones by ligaments and muscles.
  146. Which quadrant is the appendix located?
    Right lower

    Explanation: The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. 
  147. The type of surgical laser is determined by its:
    Active medium

    Explanation: Lasers are named according to the active medium that is used such as gas, solid, liquid or semiconductor crystals.
  148. The presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the blood or tissues is called:
    • Sepsis
    • Explanation: Sepsis refers to the presence of pathogens and/or their toxins in tissue or blood resulting in an infection.
  149. Which of these local anesthetics is long acting?
    Marcaine

    Explanation: Marcaine is four times more potent that lidocaine that takes longer to take effect, but has a longer duration.
  150. Which of the following diseases is the result of invasion by a pathogen?
    Pneumonia

    Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the primary cause of bacterial pneumonia.
  151. Heparin is measured in:
    Units

    Explanation: Heparin sodium is measured in units; the intraoperative normal dosage is 150-300 units/kg IV.
  152. Which of the following are procaryotic?
    Bacteria

    Explanation: All bacteria are procaryotes (also spelled prokaryotes).
  153. Antibiotics given to prevent postoperative infection are considered:
    Prophylactic

    Explanation: On a routine basis antibiotics are often administered preoperatively and postoperatively to prevent an SSI referred to as surgical prophylaxis.
  154. Where is cerebrospinal fluid formed?
    Choroid plexuses

    Explanation: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is formed in the choroid plexuses of the brain.
  155. Viruses reproduce by:
    Host cell metabolism

    Explanation: Viral replication is dependent on the viral nucleic acid within the host cell.
  156. What type of scar formation is considered hypertrophic?
    Keloid
  157. Hepatomegaly is:
    Enlarged liver

    Explanation: Hepat/o is the combining form that means liver; megaly is a suffix meaning enlarged. Therefore, hepatomegaly is the abnormal enlargment of the liver.
  158. The fifth cranial nerve is also called the:
    Trigeminal
  159. Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?
    Argon

    Explanation: The argon laser beam can travel through clear fluids and tissues making it the laser of choice for treating diabetic retinopathy.
  160. The function of the sphincter of Oddi is to control the flow of:
    Bile into the duodenum

    Explanation: The sphincter of Oddi is located where the CBD and pancreatic duct join forming the ampulla of Vater; it controls the flow of bile into the duodenum.
  161. Healthcare associated infections refers to:
    Hospital acquired infections

    Explanation: HAIs (formerly called nosocomial) are infections acquired in the healthcare facility as a result of healthcare intervention.
  162. A curved, tapered surgical needle is used most often on what type of tissue?
    • Intestine
    • Explanation: A curved, tapered needle is used most often in soft tissue such as bowel or intestine or subcutaneous tissue.
  163. The largest part of the brain is the:
    Cerebrum
  164. In which surgical procedure would blunt needles be used?
    Liver resection

    Explanation: A blunt needle would be used for a liver resection due to the tissue being so friable.
  165. The inner most layer of the eye is called the:
    Retina

    Explanation: The third innermost layer of the eye is the retina that lines the posterior 3/4 of the eyeball.
  166. Narcotic analgesics produce their effects by:
    Minimizing pain perception

    Explanation: Analgesics combine with the opiate receptors in the CNS to decrease pain perception.
  167. The invasion of pathogens within the tissues of a host is called:
    Infection
  168. Bone grafts are usually taken from the
    Iliac crest
  169. Microorganisms that grow best with a low level of oxygen supply are:
    • Microaerophiles
    • Explanation: Microaerophiles need oxygen, but at a lower level than what is found in room air.
  170. The diencephalon is composed of the:
    Thalamus and hypothalamus
  171. Which of the following ligaments suspends the uterus?
    Broad

    Explanation: The broad ligament is one of four ligaments that extend from the pelvic walls and suspend the uterus.
Author
BrOleg
ID
339352
Card Set
CST Exam 8
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