The plicae circulares, microvilli, and villi:
Increase absorption area
Explanation: The microvilli, villi, and the plicae circulares increase the surface area for absorption and digestion in the small intestine.
Which of the following come as numbered sets frequently used in neurosurgical procedures?
Explanation: Penfield dissectors are used to separate the dura mater from the cranium during a craniotomy. The Penfield is atraumatic and its use prevents tearing the dura mater.
What pathogen is most commonly associated with surgical wound infections?
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus is a common flora of the skin and also thrives in the nares of the nose which are the primary source of the microorganism in the operating room.
Padgett and Reese are types of:
- Explanation: Padgett and Reese are types of dermatomes used to take skin grafts.
Which of the following is a uterine dressing forceps?
- Explanation: Bozeman forceps are long with a double curve and are included in a D & C instrument set.
What is the burn degree classification that involves erythema without blisters?
Explanation: A sunburn usually only involves the epidermis (first degree) and is characterized by erythema, but not blisters.
What instrument is used to remove plaque during a carotid endarterectomy?
- Explanation: During an endarterectomy, loosely attached plaque can be removed from the carotid artery with the use of a Freer elevator.
Which of the following neuroglia are star shaped?
Explanation: Astrocytes are star-shaped neuroglia that attach neurons to their blood vessels.
hich device could be used when placing a patient in the operative position for a thyroidectomy?
Explanation: A shoulder roll can be used to slightly hyperextend the region to facilitate making the incision and exposing the thyroid.
In order to expand the abdominal cavity with CO2 prior to a laparoscopic procedure, the surgeon must use a/an:
Which of these surgical instruments would be used during a tonsillectomy?
Explanation: Yankauer suction tip, Hurd dissector & Pillar retractor and palate retractor are all included on a tonsillectomy instrument set.
What type of cast would be appropriate for a fractured metacarpal?
Explanation: A short arm cast is applied from below the elbow to the metacarpal heads and is used for fractures of the wrist and metacarpals.
What is the medical term for accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms a mass that is destructive to the middle ear?
- Explanation: Cholesteatoma is an accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms an encrusted mass that is destructive to the middle ear.
Which muscle alters the shape of the lens to accommodate vision?
Explanation: The ciliary muscle alters the shape of the lens to accommodate near or far vision.
What is the term for a nonpathogenic organism that is capable of producing disease in an immunocompromised patient?
Explanation: Opportunistic is the microorganism that is capable of producing disease in an immunocompromised patient
Filiforms are used to:
- Bypass urethral obstruction
- Explanation: Filiforms are used to bypass an obstruction.
What is the name of this needle holder?
Explanation: The Castroviejo needle holder is used in many surgical specialties for microsurgical purposes including ophthalmologic, plastic, vascular and neurosurgical procedures.
Which of the following non-invasive diagnostic techniques provides the best imaging of soft tissues?
Magnetic resonance imaging
Explanation: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is especially used for imaging of soft tissue; therefore it is frequently used for the diagnosis and evaluation of brain disorders.
Which of the following defines cryptorchidism?
What type of procedure is performed to correct panfacial fractures?
Le Fort II
Explanation: Le Fort II and III are performed to correct panfacial fractures.
Which retractor is used to provide exposure for a femoropopliteal bypass?
Explanation: An atraumatic Weitlaner self-retaining retractor is used to facilitate exposure during a femoropopliteal bypass.
Which of the following is a nonadherent, nonpermeable, occlusive surgical dressing?
- Explanation: Xeroform is a type of nonpermeable, nonadherent, occlusive surgical dressing that is used to create an airtight and watertight seal.
A colposcopy may be performed for which of the following conditions?
Explanation: A colposcopy is performed to evaluate patients whose Pap smear results are abnormal.
The only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood is the:
Explanation: The pulmonary artery is the only artery in the body that carries unoxygenated blood.
Which intravenous drug would be used to reduce intracranial pressure during a craniotomy?
- Explanation: During a craniotomy Mannitol is used to reduce intracranial pressure.
Sterile water is used for irrigation during a mastectomy, because it is categorized as which of the following?
Explanation: Hypotonic solution causes cells to burst due to the excessive intake of water by the cell.
Which of the following types of needles would be used for repair of the liver?
What is the main element of hemoglobin?
Explanation: Iron is the main element contained in hemoglobin
What should be done with a perforating towel clip that has been applied and removed from a sterile drape?
Hand off the field to the circulator
In which structure of a eukaryotic cell is DNA contained?
Explanation: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) forms the genetic code inside each cell and is located in the nucleus of the cell.
What is used to inflate the Foley catheter balloon?
- Sterile water
- Explanation: A Foley catheter is used to measure urinary output. A syringe is used to inflate the balloon with sterile water.
Which of the following is commonly used in the treatment of retinal detachment?
- Cryotherapy unit
- Explanation: Cryotherapy unit is used to seal tears and holes for the treatment of retinal detachment. ST for ST 598
What term means lack of control of urination?
Which of the following is a sharp endometrial curette?
Explanation: Sims curettes have an oval shaped end that is sharp and are used to obtain uterine tissue during a D & C.
Removal of an entire eyeball is called:
Explanation: Enucleation is the removal of an entire eyeball, whereas, evisceration is the removal of the contents of the eye, leaving the shrunken remnants of the eye.
Which of the following surgical instruments is required for repair of a nasal fracture?
Explanation: Periosteal elevators, bayonet forceps, and nasal speculum are all surgical instruments used for a repair of a nasal fracture.
Which of the following is used for powered orthopedic equipment?
- Explanation: Orthopedic power equipment is run by nitrogen.
Which mode of the electrosurgical unit does not require use of a patient return electrode?
- Explanation: The bipolar units do not require a grounding pad because the inactive dispersive electrode is built into one of the tips of the forceps.
The nerve that is at greatest risk for injury during a thyroidectomy is the:
Explanation: The recurrent laryngeal nerve must be identified and kept from injury in order to avoid the patient suffering from temporary or permanent hoarseness or loss of the voice.
Which of the following diseases is caused by a pathogen?
Explanation: Pneumonia is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
When are sponge and sharp counts performed in the OR?
Before the incision, closure of cavity and skin closure
Explanation: Counts for sponges and sharps are performed before the incision, closure of the cavity and skin closure.
Coagulation with the harmonic scalpel is accomplished by the use of:
Explanation: The harmonic scalpel uses a generator that converts electrical energy into ultrasonic energy which causes the blade to rapidly move which simultaneously cuts and coagulates tissue.
In what surgical procedure would Glisson's capsule be encountered?
- Hepatic lobectomy
- Explanation: Glisson's capsule is the external covering of the liver and is made of dense connective tissue and would be encountered during a hepatic lobectomy.
What is another term for intractable pain due to irritation of the fifth cranial nerve?
Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia is the result of irritation and compression of the fifth cranial nerve that can result in severe chronic, intractable pain.
Which instrument would be used during a dacryocystorhinostomy?
- Oscillating saw
- Explanation: During a dacryocystorhinostomy, the ostium is created using one of the following: punches, small oscillating saw or a powered bur.
Which of the procedures involves moving the ulnar nerve from one location to another?
- Explanation: Repositioning the ulnar nerve from the ulnar nerve groove located on the posterior of the medial condyle of the humerus to the anterior of the condyle is called transposition of the ulnar nerve
What is the name of the elastic rolled bandage designed to exsanguinate an extremity before a tourniquet cuff is inflated?
Explanation: An Esmarch bandage is used to facilitate the drainage of blood from an extremity before the tourniquet is inflated.
Where are carpal bones found?
Explanation: The wrist has eight bones known as carpals; they are the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate.
Cephalosporins are what classification of drug?
- Explanation: Cephalothin sodium (Keflin®) is an antibiotic.
What is the passive process in which there is a greater movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?
- Explanation: The process in which there is a greater movement of molecules or ions from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called diffusion.
When two chest tubes are inserted into the pleural cavity after an open cardiovascular procedure, what does the superior tube evacuate?
Explanation: When two chest tubes are inserted, the upper tube is used to evacuate air and the lower tube evacuates fluids.
Polyglycolic acid suture falls into which classification?
Explanation: Polyglycolic acid sutures are absorbed by the body and fall into the synthetic absorbable classification of sutures.
When opening sterile supplies and instruments, where should the gown and gloves for the first scrub surgical technologist be opened?
Explanation: The sterile gown and gloves should be opened on a separate surface, such as the Mayo stand or other small table when establishing the sterile field. This prevents the first scrub surgical technologist from dripping water on a sterile draped surface, such as the backtable.
Which of the following terms refers to a cancerous growth?
What does the root word arteri/o mean?
The middle muscular layer of the uterus is the:
A patient with pain during mastication might require surgical decompression of which cranial nerve?
A patient with pain during mastication might require surgical decompression of which cranial nerve?
Intubation occurs during which phase of anesthesia?
Explanation: Intubation occurs during the induction phase of anesthesia.
How would the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention classify a disease that is constantly present in a community?
- Explanation: Endemic describes a disease present in a community.
Which positioning device must be attached to the table when the procedure is performed in reverse Trendelenburg?
The organ that is divided into head, body and tail which lies posterior to the stomach is the:
What drug may be used to treat an anaphylactic reaction?
Explanation: Antihistamines prevent or diminish the effects of histamine and are used in the treatment of anaphylactic reaction.
Third-degree burn tissue with a charred and pearly-white appearance is called:
- Explanation: Eschar refers to the charred and pearly-white appearance of third-degree burn skin.
Insertion of an intraaortic balloon pump is done to treat patients with a/an:
- Left ventricular failure
- Explanation: When a patient has left ventricular failure, an intraaortic balloon pump is inserted to provide circulatory support.
Which procedure involves the excision of lymphoid tissue superior to the soft palate to facilitate breathing?
Explanation: Adenoidectomy is removal of the lymphoid adenoids located at the roof of the nasopharynx and above the soft palate to ease breathing and prevent recurrent attacks of otitis media.
Which of the following is an indication for a total hip arthroplasty?
Explanation: Patients with osteoarthritis, a type of degenerative joint disease, benefit from total hip arthroplasty.
For which of the following do bur holes provide adequate exposure?
- Subdural hematoma
- Explanation: Bur holes are placed in order to aspirate an abscess, introduce air into the lateral ventricles for ventriculography, or place a shunt.
The venous sinus at the junction of the sclera and cornea is the:
- Canal of Schlemm
- Explanation: The canal of Schlemm is located at the junction of the sclera and cornea.
The principle of personal liability is a legal rule that:
Holds everyone legally responsible for their own negligent acts
The area of the bladder that is formed by the two ureteral orifices and the urethral orifice is known as the:
Explanation: A small triangular area of the bladder that is formed by the two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra is the trigone.
Which of the following defines enuresis?
What cardiac drug strengthens myocardial contractility?
- Isoproterenol hydrochloride
- Explanation: Calcium chloride is used in cardiac surgery to increase myocardial contractility.
Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?
Which of the following surgical instruments would be used to dilate the cervix?
Explanation: A set of Hegar dilators are included on a dilatation and curettage instrument set. They are used to dilate the opening of the cervix.
Which procedure can be performed to repair a bucket-handle tear?
Explanation: If a tear cannot be repaired by the placement of sutures, a meniscectomy is performed to remove the injured portion of the bucket-handle tear in the meniscus.
The prostate gland secretes:
Explanation: The prostate gland secretes an acidic fluid that constitutes the majority of semen
Which of the following terms describes abnormal excessive development of the male breast?
- Explanation: Gynecomastia is the medical term that refers to the abnormal excess development of the male breast.
Which of the following incisions divides the linea alba?
Explanation: A vertical midline incision divides the linea alba.
Which component of the electrical circuit is responsible for conducting the electrical current back to the electrosurgical unit?
Patient return electrode
Explanation: Components of the electrosurgical unit are the generator, cords, foot pedal (optional), active electrode (also called the Bovie or cautery pencil), and dispersive (inactive) electrode (also called the dispersive pad).
Dupuytren's disease is characterized by contraction of the:
Explanation: The pathology that involves the contraction of the palmar fascia is Dupuytren's disease.
The structure anterior to the esophagus and extending from the larynx to T-5 is the:
Explanation: The trachea is located anterior to the esophagus and extends from the larynx to the fifth thoracic vertebrae. It is a tubular passageway for air.
Which preoperative drug is delivered transdermally to prevent postoperative nausea?
- Explanation: Scopolamine is a preoperative drug delivered transdermally to prevent postoperative nausea.
To prevent cross-contamination, masks should only be removed by the:
Explanation: To prevent cross-contamination, masks should be handled by the strings only, changed after every case, and promptly discarded in the proper receptacle.
Which of the following is one of four defects involved in tetralogy of Fallot?
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- Explanation: Right ventricular hypertrophy, an aorta that overrides the ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis and ventricular septal defect are the four defects that are involved with tetralogy of Fallot.
Which of the following is used to instill contrast media into the biliary system intraoperatively?
Where is central venous pressure measured?
Explanation: Venous blood pressure within the right atrium is referred to as central venous pressure (CVP).
Salping/o is the root word for which anatomical structure?
The funnel-shaped distal opening of a fallopian tube is the:
Explanation: The open funnel-shaped distal end of each fallopian tube is infundibulum.
This instrument would most likely be used to grasp:
Explanation: The Lahey vulsellum forceps is used to grasp the thyroid and manipulate the gland during a thyroidectomy.
Which part of the microscope is most proximal to the patient?
Explanation: The objective lens is the part of the microscope that is the most proximal to the patient.
Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors?
Explanation: The majority of coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver and released into blood plasma.
The acronym "MAC" denotes what type of anesthesia care?
Explanation: MAC is an acronym for monitored anesthesia care, calling for the presence of an anesthesia provider
Sterile dressing materials should be opened onto the sterile backtable by the:
Explanation: The circulator is responsible for retrieving the sterile dressing materials, inspects the item and opens onto the sterile field.
Which ligament stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle?
Explanation: The ligament of Treitz stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle.
What disease causes the overproduction of adrenaline?
- Explanation: Addison's disease causes the overproduction of adrenaline.
Which member of the surgical team is responsible for supporting the head and neck of the patient during positioning?
Which of the following conditions results from an uneven curvature of the cornea?
- Explanation: Myopia results when either the eyeball is longer than normal, or imperfections occur in the cornea or lens.
What is the purpose of applying cricoid pressure?
Occlude the esophagus
Explanation: During endotracheal intubation, the anesthesia provider requests cricoid pressure to prevent gastric contents from entering the lungs and trachea. The pressure is maintained until the ET tube is in the correct position.
The purpose of the anesthesia machine soda lime canister is to absorb:
Explanation: Soda lime is used in mask inhalation anesthesia to absorb carbon dioxide.
For which of the following conditions would a posterior repair be performed?
Explanation: A rectocele is the prolapse of the rectum into the vaginal vault. A rectocele can be viewed pushing against the posterior vaginal wall. An anterior and posterior repair is performed to repair a cystocele and rectocele.
What term is used to describe the back-and-forth action of a power saw blade?
Explanation: The back-and forth motion is called reciprocating and the side-to-side motion is referred to as oscillating.
Which laser is used to coagulate bleeders during a laparoscopic procedure?
If a sterile package wrapped in pervious woven material drops to the OR floor, the surgical technologist should:
- Break the integrity of the package and discard the item
- Explanation: Sterile packages that are wrapped in a pervious woven material should be considered contaminated and discarded if it falls to the floor which allows for the implosion of air into the package.
The amount of applied tension necessary to break a suture is known as:
Explanation: Tensile strength refers to how much tension is necessary to break a suture, but also refers to how long the suture retains its strength while a surgical wound is healing.
Which of the following types of dressings is used when frequent wound inspections are necessary?
- Montgomery straps
- Explanation: Montgomery straps are often used for abdominal procedures when the wound must be frequently inspected or dressing changed.
In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of plain gut suture is:
Which instrument tray would this retractor be located?
Explanation: The Bennett tibia retractor would be found in an orthopedic instrument tray.
The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord is the:
Explanation: The dura mater is the outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord.
What monitoring device is used to obtain indirect arterial blood pressure?
- Explanation: Indirect, arterial blood pressure is obtained with a sphygmomanometer.
The internal mammary artery retractor would be used in which of the following procedures?
Coronary artery bypass with graft
Explanation: Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is the revascularization of myocardium that has become ischemic due to stenotic or occluded coronary vessels. The internal mammary artery is sutured to the affected coronary artery at a point distal to the stenosis.
Which of the following anatomical structures is involved in a hiatal hernia?
- Explanation: Hiatal hernia is the repair of herniation of the stomach through the diaphragm.
What is the procedure for surgical repair of a cranial defect?
Explanation: Cranioplasty is the procedure performed to repair a cranial defect.
Aqueous humor of the eye is found within the
Explanation: The anterior chamber is a cavity that contains the aqueous humor.
Which of the following congenital conditions is an atypical communication of intracranial vessels?
- Arteriovenous malformation
- Explanation: Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) may be a result of trauma or congenital defect.
A triangular muscle that abducts the arm and covers the shoulder is the:
Explanation: The deltoid muscle is triangular in shape and abducts the arm and covers the shoulder.
Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use on bone?
- Oxidized cellulose
- Explanation: Oxidized cellulose is not recommended for use on bone, unless immediately removed after hemostasis is achieved because it can interfere with bone regeneration.
What is the congenital abnormality that is characterized by the presence of cerebrospinal fluid and spinal nerves in a sac, protruding dorsally?
Explanation: Myelomeningocele is the congenital abnormality that is characterized by the presence of cerebrospinal fluid and spinal nerves in a dorsally protruding sac.
Glaucoma can result from blockage of the:
- Canal of Schlemm
- Explanation: Glaucoma is caused by the blockage of the canal of Schlemm by the iris thus preventing aqueous fluid to drain from the eye.
Which surgical procedure is performed to fuse a joint?
Explanation: Arthrodesis is a surgical procedure in which a joint is fused and movement is prevented. The suffix-desis means "surgical fixation of".
Which of the following is a non-crushing vascular clamp?
Explanation: A Satinsky aortic clamp is commonly used to clamp the aorta during an abdominal aneurysmectomy and is a non-crushing vascular clamp.
Which of the following is used for bladder retraction during a cesarean section?
- De Lee
- Explanation: A De Lee bladder retractor is a large atraumatic retractor that is used to retract the bladder inferiorly away from the uterus during a cesarean section.
Which fixation device is indicated for a femoral neck fracture?
- Cannulated screw
- Explanation: A cannulated screw is used as a fixation device for a femoral neck fracture.
Which instrument is used during a keratoplasty?
Explanation: A trephine is a cutting instrument that is placed on the cornea and makes the incision around the cornea and into the anterior chamber.
Which of the following tunica would be found in a blood vessel?
Explanation: The tunica adventitia, tunica intima and tunica media are all layers of an artery.
Sperm is produced in the:
In which of the following procedures would fine hooks of various angles be used?
Explanation: Fine hooks available in varying angles are essential dissecting instruments to perform a stapedectomy.
Which duct carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the duodenum?
Explanation: The common bile duct carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the duodenum.
Which of the following is an endoscopic procedure of the suspension of the bladder neck for treatment of stress incontinence?
- Stamey procedure
- Explanation: Stamey procedure is the endoscopic suspension of the vesical neck for stress incontinence.
What does the A represent in a V-A shunt procedure for hydrocephalus?
Explanation: The "A" in V-A shunt stands for atrial. The ventriculoatrial shunt is a multi-hole draining catheter that is placed in order to drain cerebral spinal fluid in the treatment of hydrocephalus.
Which of the following terms refers to the removal of facial wrinkles?
- Explanation: Rhytidectomy is another term for a facelift.
Emulsification of abnormal tissue during neurosurgical procedures is accomplished by the use of:
- Explanation: Cavitron ultrasonic aspirator (CUSA) is a device that emits a variable ultrasonic energy field that emulsifies abnormal tissue while saving normal neural tissue.
What part of the three-layer dressing absorbs wound secretions?
- Explanation: A three-layer dressing consists of an outer, intermediate and inner layer. The inner layer is nonadherent and its wicking action moves secretions away from the wound to be absorbed by the intermediate layer to reduce the chance of infection. The outer layer keeps the other layers in place.
Which of the following agents is a mechanical method of hemostasis?
- Bone wax
- Explanation: Bone wax is a sterile mixture of beeswax that is applied to the cut edges and surface of bone. The first scrub person will soften the bone wax by kneading it into small balls that are easy to apply to the bone.
The primary function of the large intestine is:
Explanation: A function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and electrolytes.
Which of the following drains is inserted during a cholecystostomy?
- Explanation: Cholecystostomy is performed when cholecystectomy is contraindicated. A Malecot or Pezzer drain is inserted into the gallbladder to facilitate drainage.
What is removed during a glossectomy?
Where are intestinal anastomosis instruments placed when using bowel technique?
In separate basin
Explanation: After completion of the anastomosis, the instruments that came in contact with the bowel are placed in a separate basin away from the clean instruments that will be used for wound closure. This is part of the technique referred to as "bowel technique."
What personal protective equipment would the surgical technologist wear during extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy?
- Lead apron
- Explanation: A lead apron should be worn during an extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) due to it being two X-ray beams crossing at the point of the stone
Which peripheral nerve is decompressed in a carpal tunnel release?
Explanation: Carpal tunnel syndrome is the result of compression on the median nerve and a carpal tunnel release is performed to relieve the compression by the transverse ligament.
What type of catheter is used for continuous irrigation and hemostasis of the bladder following a TURP?
Explanation: Continuous irrigation of the bladder following a TURP is accomplished by inserting an indwelling 3-way 24 Fr. 30 cc Foley balloon catheter. The balloon also applies pressure on the operative site to help reduce hemorrhaging.
Pancreatic digestive secretions are collected in the:
- Duct of Wirsung
- Explanation: The duct of Wirsung is the main duct of the pancreas
Which of the following is a portion of the stomach?
Explanation: The fundus, antrum, and the body are parts of the stomach.
Which of the following types of fractures result in several bony fragments?
Explanation: A fracture with more than two pieces of bone fragment is a comminuted fracture; often a significant amount of tissue trauma is associated with this type of fracture.
Which of these heart valves has two cusps?
- Explanation: The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle.
In which anatomical structure does an inguinal hernia defect occur?
Explanation: The defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the transversalis muscle and fascia.
What type of dilators is used for male urethral dilation?
Which of the following clamps would not be found in an intestinal tray?
- Explanation: The full name is Sarot bronchus clamp; it is found in a cardiothoracic instrument set.
Which procedure is performed to correct the congenital deformity cheiloschisis?
Cleft lip repair
Explanation: Cheiloschisis is a cleft lip and palatoschisis is a cleft palate. Cleft lip repair is performed to correct cheiloschisis.
Which of the following self-retaining retractors has the most parts/attachments?
Explanation: The Bookwalter has the most parts and when performing the instrument count all parts should be counted.
The procedure of choice for a detached retina is a:
- Scleral buckling
- Explanation: Scleral buckling is the commonly performed procedure to treat a detached retina in which a buckle (tire) is positioned to push on and close the retinal break.
Which of the following surgical instruments is a vaginal speculum?
Explanation: An Auvard is a type of weighted vaginal speculum in which the blade is placed within the vaginal vault to facilitate exposure of the organs during vaginal procedures.
What term means a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate?
Explanation: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate and the preoperative diagnosis for a TURP.
Which procedure restores function of a nerve by freeing it from adhesions?
- Explanation: Neurolysis involves freeing a nerve from surrounding adhesions to provide the patient relief from pain and restore function
To obtain direct arterial pressure the catheter is inserted into which artery?
- Explanation: An indwelling catheter line is inserted to measure radial and femoral artery pressure.
Which scissors are commonly used to extend an arteriotomy?
Explanation: The 45° angled Potts-Smith scissors is the instrument of choice to extend the arteriotomy such as during a carotid endarterectomy.
What is used to increase the size of a split-thickness graft?
Mesh graft device
Explanation: The split-thickness skin graft is placed on a plastic "carrier" and inserted into the mesh graft device that will expand the size of the skin graft.
What procedure involves the surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum?
- Explanation: Orchiopexy is performed to treat testicular torsion and undescended testicle.
Which of the following procedures is a partial gastrectomy?
- Billroth I
- Explanation: A subtotal gastrectomy is called a Billroth I or II procedure.
A type of cataract extraction in which the lens and its capsule are removed is:
- Explanation: The lens and its capsule are removed in an intracapsular cataract extraction.
A Keller arthroplasty or McKeever procedure is performed to treat which of the following?
- Explanation: Keller and McKeever are two types of surgical procedures that are used to treat bunions. The procedure that is performed depends on the degree of toe deformity.
What is the name of the surgical procedure that resects the dorsal root of a spinal nerve for relief of trigeminal neuralgia?
- Explanation: Surgical interruption of selected spinal nerve root between the ganglion and the cord is called a rhizotomy.
For which of the following procedures would a HUMI cannula be used?
- Explanation: There are various types of cannulas that can be used during a tuboplasty procedure and the HUMI cannula is one type.
Which of the following surgical instruments would be found on a nasal setup?
Explanation: Freer elevator, bayonet forceps and Cottle speculum are all on a nasal setup.
Why is an A-V fistula performed for long-term dialysis?
Explanation: Arteriovenous (A-V) fistula is preferred over an external arteriovenous shunt for long-term shunt dialysis since the external shunt carries a high risk of thrombosis and infection.
What is the medical term for painful menstruation?
Explanation: Pain attributed to painful menstruation is called dysmenorrhea. Dys- is a prefix meaning "painful"; meno is a root word referring to the menses; and -rrhea is a suffix meaning "discharge, flow".
Which procedure involves reattachment of the anterior capsule of the shoulder to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures?
- Explanation: Bankart procedure involves reattachment of the anterior capsule of the shoulder to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures.
In which of the following surgical procedures would a low-lithotomy position be used?
Explanation: An abdominoperineal resection is performed for a lower sigmoid or rectal malignancy that requires an abdominal and rectal incision. It is performed when an anastomosis is not possible. The patient is placed in a low-lithotomy position.
Which kind of cast completely immobilizes a femoral shaft fracture?
- Hip spica
- Explanation: A hip spica cast is applied to provide complete immobilization of a fracture of the femoral shaft.
Which of the following is the medical term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus covering the cervical internal os?
- Explanation: Placenta previa is the term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus and prevents delivery of the fetus; therefore, a cesarean section is performed
Which instrument is used to measure intraocular pressure?
Explanation: A tonometer is used to measure the intraocular pressure in the physician's office, preoperatively and intraoperatively
Which type of drain is normally used following orthopedic procedures?
Explanation: When drainage is expected after a major orthopedic procedure, a Hemovac is the most common closed-wound drainage system used.
Which position is used when performing a gynecologic laparoscopy?
Explanation: A patient is placed in the lithotomy position for a gynecologic laparoscopy in order to gain access to the vaginal opening in which to insert instruments in order to manipulate the cervix during the procedure.
Pedicle screws are used to correct which of these conditions?
- Spinal degeneration
- Explanation: Pedicle screw fixation has been used most often in degenerative processes
Which of these terms describes the surgical correction of a deviated septum?
Explanation: Surgical correction of a deviated septum is a septoplasty
What procedure is performed to correct talipes valgus or talipes varus?
- Triple arthrodesis
- Explanation: When a patient suffers from severe talipes valgus or varus, the procedure that is performed is a triple arthrodesis to relieve the pain, aid in correcting the stance and walking of the patient, and to immobilize the ankle.