CST Exam 5

  1. Which of the following clips is used for scalp hemostasis in cranial procedures?

    Explanation: Bleeding from the scalp can be profuse. The Raney scalp system is used to control the hemorrhage during crani procedures.Image Upload 1
  2. The local freezing of diseased tissue to facilitate removal without bleeding is:
    Cryotherapy unit uses liquid nitrogen, Freon, or carbon dioxide gas to provide extreme cold through a probe directed at the diseased tissue to destroy it without harming adjacent tissue.
  3. In severe aortic stenosis, all of the following are indications of valve replacement except:

    Explanation: Aortic stenosis blocks the complete flow of blood from the left ventricle into the aorta, causing left ventricle hypertrophy, hypertension, myocardial ischemia, angina and eventually heart failure.
  4. In the event a child requires emergency surgery, but the parents cannot be located to sign the surgical consent:
    Consent is signed by two consulting physicians

    Explanation: When the parent(s) or legal guardian(s) cannot be located or contacted, the surgeon will inform two physicians who must agree the patient needs surgery and sign the surgical consent.
  5. Ethylene oxide sterilization destroys microbes by the process of:
    • Alkylation
    • Explanation: EtO is an alkylating agent that destroys microbes by interfering with normal metabolism of protein and reproduction.
  6. What is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm?
  7. What is used to determine the position of cannulated screws during repair of a femoral neck fracture?
    • Guide pins
    • Explanation: Three guide pins are placed in the femoral head and cannulated screws placed over each pin. Image Upload 2
  8. The instruments shown below are used to dilate the:Image Upload 3
    • Cervix
    • Explanation: The Heaney or Hegar uterine dilators are used to dilate the cervix during a D & C procedure.
  9. Prior to being placed in the EtO sterilizer, items must:
    Be completely dry

    Explanation: Items to be placed in the EtO sterilizer must be completely clean, dry and free from lubricating oils; EtO gas cannot penetrate the lubricants.
  10. During general anesthesia induction, which sense is the last to be experienced by the patient?
  11. The purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula is for:
    • Hemodialysis
    • Explanation: Arteriovenous fistula is the direct connection of an artery and vein to create vascular access for long-term hemodialysis.Image Upload 4
  12. What nerve is at greatest risk during a thyroidectomy?
    • Recurrent laryngeal
    • Explanation: The recurrent laryngeal nerve must be identified and protected from injury during a thyroidectomy. Injury to the nerve can result in temporary or permanent hoarseness or loss of voice. Image Upload 5
  13. Which nerve could be compressed against the humerus in the prone position?
    • Radial
    • Explanation: The radial nerve innervates the muscles on the back of the arm. If the forearm hangs over the side of the bed, it could be compressed against the humerus.Image Upload 6
  14. What is the surgical procedure for reducing testosterone in prostate cancer?

    Explanation: To decrease the testosterone level in the presence of prostate cancer, an orchiectomy procedure is performed.
  15. What is the name of the retractor shown below?
    The Harrington "Heart" retractor is a large retractor with smooth edges making it ideal to retract abdominal organs.Image Upload 7
  16. If the broth in the steam sterilization biological indicator is yellow after incubation, what action should be taken?
    • Items must be immediately recalled
    • Explanation: Yellow broth indicates the microbes weren't killed during the sterilization cycle and the items from the load are not sterile; the items must be immediately recalled and reprocessed.
  17. A specimen that is 5 centimeters is equal to:
    2 inches

    Explanation: 2.54 centimeters is equal to 1 inch; therefore, 5 centimeters is about 2 inches (1.97 to be exact).
  18. Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle of the heart?
    Pulmonary artery

    Explanation: The pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle.Image Upload 8
  19. The instrument below is used to:Image Upload 9
    Cut bone

    Explanation: The Lambotte osteotome is available in varying widths and has a sharp end making it ideal for cutting bone
  20. Which area is prepped first when performing the skin prep for a skin grafting procedure?
    Donor site

    Explanation: The donor site is prepped first and is "clean;" the recipient site is prepped last and is considered "dirty" if it is an open wound or potentially contains cancer cells.
  21. Which of the following has legal significance in the mishandling of a bullet?
    Damaging ballistic markings

    Explanation: Bullets must be carefully handled. Do not use forceps or clamps because it could cause damage to ballistic markings
  22. Which of the following procedures requires preoperative high-level disinfection of the endoscope?

    Explanation: Because the endoscope is inserted through the mouth into the bronchial tubes, a bronchoscopy is considered a clean procedure.
  23. Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus?
    Broad ligament

    Explanation: The broad, uterosacral, cardinal and round ligaments maintain the position of the uterus.Image Upload 10
  24. What device would the surgeon use to preserve facial motor and sensory functions during a parotidectomy?
    Nerve stimulator

    Explanation: The nerve stimulator produces small electric currents that are applied to tissue and aid in identifying essential nerves
  25. If the surgeon uses a knife blade to incise the oral mucosa, the preferred blade is:
    • 12
    • Explanation: One option for the cold dissection of the tonsils is the use of the #12 knife blade. Image Upload 11
  26. The gravity steam sterilization process can be rendered ineffective if the:
    Temperature is below 250°
  27. A suture used to retract a structure to the side of the operative field is a:
    • Traction suture
    • Explanation: Traction sutures are used to retract a structure that cannot be retracted with a handheld or self-retaining retractor.
  28. What must the circulating surgical technologist do when placing the patient in supine position?
    Confirm ankles are not crossed

    Explanation: When a patient is placed in the supine position, the ankles and legs should not be crossed to avoid impairment of circulation and damage to the peroneal nerve.
  29. What body system aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells?

    Explanation: Lymphatic system aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells.
  30. Which of the following is inserted into the tympanic membrane incision during a myringotomy?
    PE tube

    Explanation: Ventilation or pressure equalizing (PE) tube is inserted into the incision to facilitate pressure equalization.
  31. Which organelle contains digestive juices?

    Explanation: Lysosomes contain the enzyme lysozyme that destroys foreign substances ingested by the cell.
  32. During a thyroidectomy, if all parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what complication will occur?
    • Tetany
    • Explanation: Tetany is characterized by severe cramps, convulsions and twitching of the muscles, and extreme flexion of the joints caused by a low level of calcium. Image Upload 12
  33. Which of the following surgical instruments is used to retract the lung?
    • Allison
    • Explanation: The Allison lung retractor (refererred to as the "spatula") is a non-traumatic retractor that is used specifically for the lung.Image Upload 13
  34. Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal polyps?
    Krause nasal snare

    Explanation: The Krause nasal snare is loaded with a flexible wire that is placed around the nasal polyp, and the snare is tightened around the polyp to dissect free.Image Upload 14
  35. What anatomical structure is MersileneTM tape sutured around during a cerclage?
    • Cervix
    • Explanation: Cervical cerclage, also called Shirodkar's procedure, involves placing a large diameter Dacron® or MersileneTM tape around the cervix at the level of the internal os.
  36. What does the suffix -ectomy mean?
  37. What would the preoperative diagnosis be for an infant undergoing craniectomy?
    • Craniosynostosis
    • Explanation: Craniosynostosis is a condition in which infant suture lines prematurely close.
  38. Where is the anterior chamber of the eye located?
    Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the irisImage Upload 15
  39. Which of the following would contraindicate preoperatively setting up the cell saver machine?
    Patient has cancer
  40. Which medication is contraindicated for patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia?
  41. Which of the following is an incision into the tympanic membrane for the removal of accumulated fluid?
  42. Which of the following is not a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position?
    Safety belt is placed below the knees
  43. A tissue specimen being sent to pathology for a frozen section is prepared by placing it into a:
    Container without preservative
  44. The body's first line of defense against infection is:
    Intact skin

    Explanation: The body's first line of defense against infection is skin that has no cuts, scrapes,
  45. Which stapling device would be used to create an anastomosis during a low anterior resection?
    • EEA
    • Explanation: The EEA (end-to-end anastomosis) is a type of intraluminal stapler that is used during resection and reanastomosis of the distal colon or rectum.Image Upload 16
  46. Packing material would be placed as a dressing after surgery on the:

    Explanation: Packing material is used to provide hemostasis, support the wound and eliminate dead space. It is used for rectal, nasal and vaginal procedures.
  47. What is the lining of the thoracic cavity?
    • Pleural
    • Explanation: The pleural membrane lines the thoracic cavity.Image Upload 17
  48. What is the proper method for removing the knife blade from the handle when breaking down the Mayo stand?
    Use a heavy hemostat or needle holder
  49. What route of drug administration is parenteral?
    • Intravenous
    • Explanation: Parenteral refers to the ways in which drugs are administered with a needle.
  50. The vascular, fibrous covering of bone is the:

    Explanation: The fibrous covering that covers bone and provides some degree of protection is the periosteum.Image Upload 18
  51. What type of dressing would usually be used for a laparotomy procedure?
    • Pressure
    • Explanation: Normally a pressure dressing is applied for a laparotomy procedure to provide wound support, eliminate dead space and reduce edema.
  52. To prevent deep-vein thrombosis in the bariatric patient, what preoperative drug is given?

    Explanation: Heparin is usually administered subcutaneously 30 minutes before the procedure begins to aid in preventing DVT.
  53. Which space is entered during a thymectomy?

    Explanation: The thymus is located in the mediastinum between the sternum and aorta.Image Upload 19
  54. Femoral rasps are used for which of the following reasons:
    Prepare the intramedullary space for a prosthesis
  55. Which of the following is part of the immune system?
    • Spleen
    • Explanation: Lymph nodes, tonsils and spleen are all part of the immune system and help the body fight infection.
  56. What incision is frequently used for pediatric aortic coarctation repair?
    • Posterolateral thoracotomy
    • Explanation: Approach for a pediatric aortic coarctation repair is made through the left posterolateral thoracotomy into the third or fourth intercostal space.Image Upload 20
  57. Type and cross match for blood is completed:
    If blood loss with replacement is anticipated.
  58. The purpose of the kidney elevator is to:
    • Increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest
    • Explanation: Turning the patient from the supine to kidney position, the patient is positioned so that the lower iliac crest is just below the lumbar break. The kidney elevator is raised to increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest.Image Upload 21
  59. Which of the following is the proper method for handling disposable suction containers when turning over an OR?
    Wipe down outside of container and place in biohazard bag for disposal
  60. Which of the following can cause lumbrosacral strain in the lithotomy position?
    Buttocks extend past table break
  61. A midline xiphoid to pubis incision is commonly made for a/an
    • Abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy
    • Explanation: The incision for a AAA is xiphoid to pubis in order to gain as much exposure of the artery as possible including bifurcationImage Upload 22
  62. Which item listed below should the surgical technologist confirm is available for a nerve repair?
    • Loupes
    • Loupes are a type of magnifying lenses worn by a surgeon during delicate procedures such as plastic surgery and neurosurgeryImage Upload 23
  63. How often should biological testing of EtO sterilization be conducted?
    Every load
  64. Which of the following is a liquid chemical sterilant often used for sterilizing endoscopes with a cycle time of 30 minutes?
    • Peracetic acid
    • Explanation: Peracetic acid is a strong sterilant that is used with the Steris machine and has a total cycle time of approximately 30 minutes.
  65. When should the first closing sponge, sharp and instrument count be completed?
    Prior to closure of the body cavity
  66. Which of the following skin preps is contraindicated for use around eyes and ears because of potential for corneal abrasions and ototoxicity?
    • Chlorhexidine
    • Explanation: Chlorhexidine is contraindicated using for facial preparation.
  67. A short-acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for preoperative sedation is:
    • Meperidine
    • Explanation: Meperidine (Demerol®) is a short-acting opioid narcotic given intramuscularly for premedication
  68. The leg extensor muscles: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis and the vastus intermedius are collectively called the:
    Quadriceps femorisImage Upload 24
  69. Which of the following instruments is not a retractor used during a prostatectomy?
    A Harrington retractor would not be used during a prostatectomy due to its large size.
  70. What does the term -scopy mean?
  71. How many minutes should a Frazier suction tip be immediate-use sterilized (flash sterilized) in a gravity steam sterilizer?

    Explanation: Since the Frazier suction tip has a lumen, a residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen and immediate-use sterilized (flash sterilized) for 10 minutes.
  72. Which of the following preoperative procedures should be completed for the diabetic patient?
    • Antiembolic stockings placed on patient
    • Explanation: Diabetic patients often have poor circulation of the lower extremities and are prone to thromboembolism; therefore, the antiembolic stockings are worn by the patient.
  73. Induced hypothermia is typically associated with which of the following surgical specialties?

    Explanation: Induced hypothermia is the deliberate lowering of the body's core temperature and is an adjunctive therapy for using during open-heart surgery.
  74. What block involves medication being injected into the subarachnoid space?

    Explanation: Intrathecal (spinal) block is a method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the subarachnoid space affecting a portion of the spinal cord.Image Upload 25
  75. Which of the following conditions might require use of a Silastic® urethral catheter?
    Latex allergy
  76. A patient receives preoperative instructions to remove nail polish to:
    Prevent pulse oximeter malfunction
  77. How often should the steam sterilizing machine's strainer be cleaned?
  78. What is the smallest microorganism that requires a host cell for replication?
    Viruses are a non-living particle that completely rely on the host cell for survival.
  79. Which surgeon might provide the operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transsphenoidal approach to the sella turcica?
    • Otorhinolaryngologist
    • Explanation: Otorhinolaryngologists are commonly called ear, nose and throat surgeons, and might assist by providing the operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transsphenoidal approach to the sella turcica.Image Upload 26
  80. An intraoperative mutagenic and carcinogenic hazard of laser use is:
    Laser plume
  81. What type of solution is recommended for cleaning the OR floors during room turnover?

    Explanation: An EPA-registered detergent-disinfection solution is recommended for use in cleaning the OR floor during turnover in preparation for the next procedure.
  82. Which of the following is used to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP?
    The Ellik evacuator is used intermitently by the surgeon to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP; a Toomey syringe can be used for the same purpose.
  83. A patient is instructed to be NPO for 8 hours prior to surgery to prevent:

    Explanation: The presence of food or fluids in the stomach  predisposes the patient to vomiting due to all the drugs and anesthesia which can cause pneumonia and death. Image Upload 27
  84. The essential element of hemoglobin is:

    Explanation: Iron is an essential ingredient of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in blood.
  85. In which procedure would the instrument shown below be used?Image Upload 28

    Explanation: Heaney hysterectomy and Heaney-Ballantine hysterectomy clamps, collectively referred to as ligament clamps, are heavy tissue clamps that are excellent for placing across the uterine ligaments during dissection.
  86. A large, bony process found on the femur is a:

    Explanation: A trochanter is a large, bony process found on the femur.Image Upload 29
  87. Which of the following incisions would be performed for repair of a liver laceration?

    Explanation: The initial incision is a long midline incision that may be extended to a thoracoabdominal incision.
  88. Just before the surgeon makes the skin incision, which of the following must be performed?
  89. The pulse rate of pregnant patients:

    Explanation: The pulse rate of pregnant patients increases to compensate for the increase in circulatory volume that is necessary to support the fetus.
  90. Which portion of the stomach is superior to the esophageal sphincter?

    Explanation: The fundus is the portion of the stomach located above the level of the upper esophageal sphincter.Image Upload 30
  91. A linen pack to be steam sterilized must not weigh more than:
    12 lbs.
  92. The closing sponge count should be initiated at the:
    • Operative field
    • The recommended sequence for performing the closing count is operative field, Mayo stand, backtable, basin, off the sterile field.
  93. During which of the following procedures is it imperative that the surgical technologist maintain the sterility of the backtable and Mayo stand until the patient is transported out of the OR?
    • Tonsillectomy
    • Explanation: Procedures that involve the oral cavity and neck predispose the patient to complications such as hemorrhage and airway difficulties, and an emergency tracheostomy may have to be performed.
  94. Which of the following statements concerning peel-packs is correct?
    When labeling with felt-tip marker write on the plastic side

    Explanation: When using a felt-tip marker to label the peel pack, write only on the plastic side; ink can leak through the paper causing the items to be unsterile.
  95. Which two structures are identified and ligated during a cholecystectomy?
    Cystic artery and cystic duct

    Explanation: The cystic artery and then cystic duct are double clamped, double ligated and divided. Image Upload 31
  96. What is the primary responsibility of the first scrub surgical technologist during a cardiac arrest in the OR?
    Protect the sterile field
  97. What does pneumonectomy mean?
    Removal of the lung
  98. How many hours must the steam biological indicator be incubated before recording the results?
  99. Which of the following is responsible for causing transmission of spongiform encephalopathy?
    • Prion
    • Explanation: Prion is a protein substance that is responsible for causing transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.
  100. The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the:
    • Isthmus
    • Explanation: The two lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by the isthmus that lies just above the second tracheal ring.Image Upload 32
  101. A sustained contraction produced by rapid stimuli is called:

    Explanation: Tetany is a sustained contraction of a muscle produced by several rapid stimuli. Image Upload 33
  102. What type of heart rate does tachycardia describe?
  103. Which of the following would be the least likely complication of suprapubic prostatectomy?
    • Acute phlebitis
    • Explanation: Hemorrhage, embolism and acute epididymitis are all postoperative complications of a suprapubic prostatectomy.
  104. When is the surgical consent typically signed?
    Before preoperative medications are administered

    Explanation: The surgical consent must be signed prior to the patient receiving any medications/drugs that could alter the patient's mental state, causing the inability to fully understand the surgeon's explanations and what he/she is signing.
  105. Which of the following is the order for postoperative case management?
    Remove drapes; preserve sterile field until patient leaves OR; remove gown and gloves; don non-sterile gloves to break down backtable
  106. What type of needle is used when suturing the skin?
    • Reverse cutting
    • Explanation: Reverse cutting needles are used for closing the skin, because the needle has a flat edge in the direction of pull which decreases the damage to the skin.
  107. Which of the following ultrasonic devices can be used intraoperatively to assess the patency of arterial blood flow?
    Doppler probe

    Explanation: The Doppler is an ultrasonic device used to assess the flow of blood through arteries and veins; a sterile probe can be used within the sterile field.
  108. The instrument shown below is used to:Image Upload 34
    • Dissect periosteum from bone
    • Explanation: The name Key periosteal elevator provides how the instrument is used; during open procedures the Key is used to dissect or "elevate" the periosteum from the bone.
  109. The area of the brain that controls respiration is the:
    Medulla oblongataImage Upload 35
  110. Which of the following factors is used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet?
    Patient's age

    Explanation: The three factors used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet are patient's age, circumference of the extremity, and systolic blood pressure.
  111. Which of the following describes the time from incision to the dressing application?
  112. At the end of a procedure, and after the patient has been transported out of the OR, the surgical technologist should remove the:
  113. The instrument shown below is used during a:Image Upload 36

    Explanation: The Green retractor is often used during thyroidectomy and other procedures where gentle retraction of friable tissue is needed.
  114. What is considered the operative stage of anesthesia?
    • Third
    • Explanation: The operative stage of general anesthesia is the third stage.Image Upload 37
  115. When performing the surgical scrub, the hands and arms are considered:
    Surgically clean
  116. Which of the following is an obstetric complication resulting from overstimulation of the clotting processes?
    Disseminated intravasular coagulation

    Explanation: Pregnancy can trigger disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a pathology where the normal clotting mechanisms fail.
  117. What does the term symbiosis mean?
    Relationship between unlike species of organisms

    Explanation: Symbiosis is a constant relationship between two or more unlike species of organisms.
  118. Which of the following statements is true concerning cleaning OR walls between surgical procedures?
    Clean areas of wall splashed with blood or debris

    Explanation: During room turnover, spot clean the wall(s) that were splashed with blood or debris
  119. Which anatomical structure is removed during a total hip arthroplasty?
    Femoral head

    Explanation: The femoral head and neck are resected and replaced by the femoral component.
  120. Wound dressings should be opened:
    After last count is completed

    Explanation: The circulator should not open and dispense the sterile dressings until the final closing count is completed and verified as being correct.
  121. A stent may be placed to identify the ureter during which of the following procedures?
    Right colectomy

    Explanation: One of the complications of any type of colon resection (ie, left hemicolectomy, transverse hemicolectomy, abdominoperineal resection) includes ureteral injury.  To help to prevent the injury, a ureteral stent may be inserted to identify the ureter.Image Upload 38
  122. A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation is:
    • Anectine®
    • Explanation: Succinylcholine chloride (Anectine®) is a rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation in short cases.
  123. A general consent form authorizes:
    Routine medical treatment

    Explanation: The general consent is for treatment defined in the broadest terms including general medical treatment and diagnostic procedures.
  124. During which step of an abdominal hysterectomy would the instrument shown below be used?
    • Make last cut to free the uterus
    • Explanation: The last three steps of the procedure entail cutting the uterosacral ligaments, cut the uterus with the knife in preparation for removal, and final cut with the Jorgenson scissors to remove the uterus.Image Upload 39
  125. Which of the following must be completed preoperatively if a patient underwent a barium study the day of surgery?
    • Enema
    • Explanation: A preoperative enema must be performed to eliminate the barium because it predisposes the patient to postoperative fecal impaction.Image Upload 40
  126. Which of the following sutures is contraindicated in the presence of infection?
  127. When the surgical technologist is breaking down the backtable, instruments with ratchets should be:
    Placed in a basin with enzymatic solution in open position for transport to decontamination
  128. The cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:
    • Calyces
    • Explanation: The cup-like extensions of the kidney pelvis that collect urine are calyces.Image Upload 41
  129. Which of the following is a type of one-layer dressing?

    Explanation: Steri-stripsTM are a type of one-layer dressing used to maintain approximation of the wound edges. They may be used alone or as part of another dressing.
  130. Braided nonabsorbable sutures should not be used in infected wounds because suture crevices:
    Can harbor bacteria that travel length of suture
  131. What postoperative complication can result from excess or prolonged plantar flexion?
    Foot drop
  132. What immediate postoperative complication most often occurs with pediatric patients?
    Airway difficulty
  133. Another name for a corneal transplant procedure is:
    • Keratoplasty
    • Kerat/o is a combining form meaning cornea. Keratoplasty refers to a corneal transplant.
  134. Fertilization normally occurs in the:
    • Fallopian tube
    • Explanation: Fertilization of an ovum usually takes place in the fallopian tubes.Image Upload 42
  135. What is the name of the instrument shown below?Image Upload 43

    Explanation: The Kocher clamp is easily distinguished by the single tooth on the end, making it a good instrument for grasping heavy tissue
  136. The inner layer of an artery is the:

    Explanation: The inner layer of an artery is called the intima or tunica intimaImage Upload 44
  137. Which laser can be used on light and dark tissues?
    • Carbon dioxide
    • Explanation: Carbon dioxide energy is absorbed by the cellular water content. The absorption does not depend on tissue color or consistency.
  138. What implant is used for individuals with sensorineural deafness?
    Cochlear implant

    Explanation: A cochlear implant is a prosthetic replacement of the cochlea located in the inner ear. It is implanted in individuals suffering from sensorineural deafness.Image Upload 45
  139. Splenectomy places the patient at an increased risk for:
    • Infection
    • Explanation: The spleen functions as part of the immune system, and its removal can impair the immunologic response.
  140. In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is:
  141. Dark blood in the sterile field could indicate:

    Explanation: Hypoxia is a deficiency in oxygen and is indicated by dark blood.
  142. Which instrument will the surgeon use to free the entrapped orbital fat during repair of an orbital floor fracture?

    Explanation: The periorbital fat and other entrapped tissue are released with the use of the Freer elevator or scissors and tissue forceps.Image Upload 46
  143. A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of what type of infection?
    Healthcare-associated infection
  144. Which of the following is a type of meniscal tear?
    • Bucket handle
    • Explanation: The meniscus can sustain various type of tears, but a common type is the bucket handle characterized by an incomplete longitudinal tear.Image Upload 47
  145. Which surgical procedure may require a suprapubic catheter to drain the urinary bladder?
    • Prostatectomy
    • Explanation: A suprapubic catheter is placed into the bladder through an opening in the abdominal wall and may be required after a prostatectomy
  146. Which one of these microorganisms is least likely to be associated with wound infections?
    Treponema pallidum

    Explanation: Treponema pallidum is associated with syphilis
  147. Liquid agents used to reduce microorganisms on the patient's skin are:

    Explanation: Antiseptics are solutions used by surgical team members to perform the surgical scrub as well as used on the patient for skin preparation.
  148. Which closed wound drainage device requires being connected to a bulb evacuator?
    • Jackson-Pratt
    • Explanation: The Jackson-Pratt is a type of active drain that consists of a drainage tube and an evacuator shaped like a bulb often called the grenadeImage Upload 48
  149. What term refers to items remaining sterile indefinitely until the wrapping is compromised?
    Event-related sterility

    Explanation: Event-related sterility means that the sterility of an item is determined by how it is handled and that contamination is event related, not time related.
  150. Which of the following veins would be harvested during a CABG?

    Explanation: The two vessels commonly harvested for use during a CABG are the internal mammary artery or saphenous vein.Image Upload 49
  151. When incubated, the EtO biological indicator can be read after:
    24 hours

    Explanation: The EtO BI can be read after 24 hours. However, it must be incubated for 48 hours.
  152. The structure that facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetus and mother is the:
  153. When helping to turn over an OR between patients, the surgical technologist should:
    Use a clean mop head
  154. Vitrectomy is the removal of the:
    • Gel from the eye
    • Explanation: Vitrectomy is a microsurgical procedure when the vitreous gel is removed. It is the initial step to repair retinal disorders.Image Upload 50
  155. When using EtO sterilization, the recommended aeration time for an aerator set at 140°F is:
    • 8 hours
    • Explanation: The recommended aeration at 140° F is for a minimum of 8 hours.
  156. Where should the biological indicator test be placed on the steam sterilizer cart?
    • Bottom front
    • Explanation: The BI test should be placed at the bottom front of the sterilizer cart since that is the coldest point of the autoclave chamber.
  157. Which of the following vessels empties into the right atrium?
    • Superior vena cava
    • Explanation: The right atrium receives blood from three veins: coronary sinus, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava.Image Upload 51
  158. Knife blades should be loaded onto the handle with:
    Needle holder

    Explanation: The surgical technologist should practice sharps safety and always load the knife blade onto the handle typically using a needle holder.
  159. Which of the following vitamins is essential for the clotting process?
    Vitamin K is essential for the clotting process.
  160. From where do most intracranial aneurysms arise?
    Circle of Willis

    Explanation: Most common sites of cerebral aneurysm arise in the Circle of Willis.Image Upload 52
  161. Which of the following types of equipment would require preoperative draping by the surgical technologist?

    Explanation: The upper portion of the C-arm is positioned over the sterile drapes covering the patient. The surgical technologist should  cover the upper arm with a specialized sterile C-arm drape.
  162. What dietary substance enhances the production of collagen?
    • Protein
    • Explanation: Collagen fibers consist of the protein collagen which has the highest percentage in the body.
  163. The normal range of intraoperative pressure for the insufflator during a laparoscopy is:
    12 - 15 mm Hg.
  164. Where should the EtO biological indicator be placed in the load?
    • Center
    • Explanation: The EtO BI should be placed in the center of the load on its side since that is the location most difficult for the gas to reach.
  165. What is the proper way to remove a patient from the lithotomy position?
    Lower legs together slowly in unison

    Explanation: When moving a patient out  of the lithotomy position, the legs must be lowered together slowly to the OR table to avoid injury to the muscles and nerves of the lumbar region of the back and prevent hypotension.
  166. What procedure should the first scrub surgical technologist set up for when a female patient is undergoing a repair for a cystocele and rectocele?
    Anterior and posterior colporrhaphy

    Explanation: Cystoceles and rectoceles are prolapses of the bladder and rectum into the vaginal vault. The anterior repair is for the cystocele and posterior repair for the rectocele.
  167. Which vein drains the small intestine?
    • Hepatic portal
    • Explanation: The hepatic portal vein drains blood from the pancreas, spleen, stomach, intestines and gallbladder.Image Upload 53
  168. What specialized retractors are used during a rotator cuff repair?
    • Bankart
    • Explanation: The Bankart shoulder retractors were specifically developed for use during shoulder procedures.Image Upload 54
  169. The concave notch of the kidney through which the ureter exits is the:
    The hilum, also called the renal hilum, is a notch near the center of the concave border of the kidney through which the ureter leaves.Image Upload 55
  170. The large artery found posterior to the knee is the:

    Explanation: The popliteal artery is located behind the knee joint.Image Upload 56
  171. Proper placement of the Foley catheter is confirmed prior to balloon inflation by which of the following?
    Urine flowing out of catheter

    Explanation: Urine flowing out of a Foley catheter confirms proper placement prior to balloon inflation.
  172. Which portion of the small intestine joins to the large intestine?
    • Ileum
    • Explanation: The ileum is the portion of the small intestine that joins the large intestine. Image Upload 57
  173. Which tank would be brought into the OR if a surgical technologist is preparing an oscillating saw?
    Compressed nitrogen

    Explanation: Most large power instruments, such as saws and drills use either electricity (rechargeable power batteries) or nitrogen.
Card Set
CST Exam 5