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CST Exam 4

  1. What is used to retract the spermatic cord during an inguinal herniorraphy?
    Penrose drain

    Explanation: A ¼" or 1/2" Penrose drain is used to gently retract the spermatic cord; it should be placed in saline prior to handing to the surgeon.
  2. Why is an indwelling Foley catheter placed prior to a hysterectomy?
    • Avoid injury to bladder
    • Explanation: To decompress the bladder and prevent injury to the organ during a hysterectomy, an indwelling Foley catheter is preoperatively inserted into the patient.
  3. Which of the following scissors is the best choice for extending an arterial incision?
    Potts-Smith

    Explanation: Potts-Smith scissors are available in various angles which allow for inserting into the incision made with the knife blade and extending. 
  4. Which of the following is used to stain the cervix for a Schiller's test?
    • Lugol's solution
    • Explanation: The Schiller test involves staining the cervix with Lugol's solution. The glycogen in the cervical epithelium takes up the iodine and abnormal tissues that have little to no glycogen do not stain brown, therefore indicating areas of tissue that should be biopsied.
  5. Which of the following arises from the left ventricle of the heart?
    • Ascending aorta
    • Explanation: The portion of the aorta that passes upward behind the pulmonary trunk as it emerges from the left ventricle is called the ascending aorta.
  6. What method is used to confirm the items have been exposed to the sterilization process, but sterility is not guaranteed?
    • Chemical
    • Explanation: Chemical indicators such as autoclave tape are impregnated with a dye that changes color when exposed to the sterilization process
  7. Why would the hair of a patient undergoing craniotomy be bagged, labeled and saved?
    It is patient property

    Explanation: The hair is the patient's property and before he/she may want to have it formed into a wig, require it for religious reasons or it may be a memento.
  8. When preparing a double basin for sterilization the:
    • Basins should be separated by a porous, absorbent towel
    • Explanation: A porous, absorbent towel should be placed between nested basins to absorb condensate, aid in air removal and allow for penetration of steam.
  9. Which structure, during a total hip arthroplasty, requires intramedullary reaming prior to placement of a prosthesis?
    Femoral canal

    Explanation: The femoral canal requires intramedullary reaming prior to placement of prosthesis during a total hip arthroplasty.
  10. Which of the following is the least restrictive form of credentialing?
    Registration

    Explanation: Registration involves a formal process where qualified individuals are listed in a registry.
  11. What drug classification is Demerol®?
    • Analgesic
    • Explanation: Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol®) is an analgesic.
  12. What should be transported to the PACU with a patient who underwent a thyroidectomy?
    • Tracheotomy tray
    • Explanation: A tracheotomy tray should be transported with the patient to the PACU and ward room due to the postoperative risks of inflammation and hemorrhage.
  13. What is the chemical abbreviation for sodium chloride?
    NaCl
  14. Which organelle is responsible for packaging of proteins?
    • Golgi complex
    • Explanation: The Golgi complex, a group of organelles, processes, sorts, packages, and delivers proteins to the plasma membrane, lysosomes, and secretory vesicles.
  15. Which procedure would utilize the instrument shown below?
    Hemorrhoidectomy

    Explanation: The Hirschmann anoscope is one of several types of retractors used to expose the rectal canal during a hemorrhoidectomy.
  16. What types of treatment does a patient authorize when signing a general consent form?
    All routine treatments or procedures

    Explanation: When a patient signs a general consent form, the patient is agreeing to all routine treatments or procedures.
  17. Which medication can be used as a topical jelly during cystoscopy procedures?
    Xylocaine

    Explanation: Lidocaine (Xylocaine) jelly may be put into the urethra as a topical anesthesia for a cystoscopy.
  18. Which of the following is a primary postoperative complication of carotid endarterectomy?
    Stroke

    Explanation: The primary postoperative complication of carotid endarterectomy is stroke; the patient's neurological status must be closely monitored. 
  19. During which procedure would the instrument below be used?
    TAH

    Explanation: The Ferris-Smith tissue forceps is a heavy duty instrument with teeth that are ideal for use during a total abdominal hysterectomy.
  20. When is it acceptable to open surgical dressing sponges?
    After final count
  21. What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterilized rigid instrument container is opened and condensation is observed?
    Don't use; return to Sterile Processing Department
  22. Which method of sterilization requires an aeration cycle?
    EtO

    Explanation: The aeration cycle is necessary to remove the toxic EtO from the sterile packages and items. Ethylene oxide
  23. Elevated IOP in a glaucoma patient is a result of excess:
    • Aqueous humor
    • Explanation: Intraocular pressure is produced chiefly by the aqueous humor.
  24. Where should the grounding pad be placed on a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has a right hip prosthesis?
    Left anterior thigh

    Explanation: The grounding pad should be positioned on the left anterior thigh of a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has a right hip prosthesis to avoid having the electrical current travel through the metal and cause a patient burn.
  25. The instrument below is used during a:
    Vaginal hysterectomy

    Explanation: The Auvard weighted vaginal speculum is placed with the blade along the posterior vaginal wall to provide exposure
  26. The Trendelenburg position is often used for surgery on the:
    Lower abdomen and pelvis
  27. The large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm is the:
    Subclavian

    Explanation: The subclavian artery arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm.
  28. Lesions in which part of the brain may affect balance and coordination?
    Cerebellum

    Explanation: The cerebellum is at the base of the brain and is responsible for balance and coordination.
  29. Which of the following utilizes the process of cavitation?
    • Ultrasonic cleaner
    • Explanation: The ultrasonic cleaner uses the process of cavitation to dislodge minute particles of soil and debris from surgical instruments.
  30. Which of the following is the name for a dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius?
    • Colles'
    • Explanation: Colles' fracture is the name for a dorsally angulated fracture and is usually repaired by closed reduction with the use of the C-arm and casting
  31. During which procedure would the instrument shown below be used?
    • Cholecystectomy
    • Explanation: The Ferguson gallstone scoop can be used to remove gallstones during a cholecystectomy.
  32. Which ligament is transected during surgery for De Quervain's disease?
    • Dorsal carpal
    • Explanation: De Quervain's is caused by inflammation of the tendons in the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. The dorsal carpal ligament is cut to release the tendons.
  33. In order to minimize mucosal irritation during urinary catheterization, the tip of the catheter is dipped in which of the following?
    K-Y jelly is used to lubricate the catheter tip to aid in insertion and minimize mucosal irritation.
  34. How often is a medication prescribed as QID to be taken per day?
    • 4 times
    • Explanation: QID is an abbreviation meaning 4 times per day.
  35. What type of external dressing would be used to eliminate dead space?
    A pressure dressing is a type of three-layer dressing to which it is used to eliminate dead space.
  36. In the prone position, patients are placed on chest rolls to prevent:
    Compromised ventilation

    Explanation: Prone position places pressure on the thorax and abdomen making it difficult to breathe; chest rolls are placed to slightly elevate the patient's upper torso to facilitate ventilation.
  37. Which of the following positions would be used for an LAVH?
    • Lithotomy
    • Explanation: For a LAVH (Laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectomy) , the patient is placed in the lithotomy position.
  38. A left subcostal incision would be used to expose the:
    The spleen is located on the left upper quadrant and a left subcostal incision is used for exposure.
  39. Intraoperatively, lidocaine with epinephrine may be contraindicated in patients who are:
    Hypertensive

    Explanation: Lidocaine with epinephrine is contraindicated in patients who are hypertensive since epinephrine increases the blood pressure.
  40. What approach is used for the removal of a small acoustic neuroma that is located in the internal auditory canal?
    • Middle fossa
    • Explanation: The middle fossa approach provides good extradural exposure for small tumors.
  41. Which of the following must be obtained from a patient undergoing surgical procedures, fertility treatments, chemotherapy, or experimental treatment?
    Special written consent
  42. What drug is used to treat hypotension and shock?
    • Levophed
    • Explanation: Levarterenol (Levophed) is used to treat hypotension and shock.
  43. The agent used to expand blood plasma volume is:
    • Dextran
    • Explanation: Dextran is a plasma volume expander that acts by drawing fluid from tissues, thus decreasing blood viscosity
  44. What does the term chole/ refer to?
    Bile
  45. When preparing instruments for sterilization, all the following are completed with the exception of:
    Lining the tray with a nonwoven disposable wrapper

    Explanation: A nonwoven disposable wrapper should not be used to line the bottom of the tray since the water-repellent wrapper would cause condensate to collect.
  46. Which of the following is an initial incision for abdominoplasty?
    Low transverse

    Explanation: The skin incision for an abdominoplasty is a low transverse.
  47. When performing a rhinoplasty, the exostosis in the nose is removed with a:
    Chisel

    Explanation: Two surgical instruments commonly used to remove the midline hump in the nose are chisel or rasp.
  48. Which type of sterilization requires the use of the Bowie-Dick test?
    Prevaccum steam

    Explanation: The Bowie-Dick test is used for prevacuum sterilizers to confirm there is no air entrapment occurring.
  49. What is the first federal act to establish patient privacy standards?
    Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

    Explanation: HIPAA took effect in 2003; it is the first federal legislation to establish privacy standards for patients.
  50. What should the surgical technologist wear when transporting a patient with tuberculosis from PACU to the isolation patient room?
    Respirator

    Explanation: The CDC and NIOSH recommend the use of a respirator when caring for a TB patient.
  51. How is the informed consent signed if a patient is illiterate?
    When a patient is illiterate, but understands the verbal explanation, he/she marks the informed consent with an "x".
  52. Which of the following agents should not be used to disinfect endoscopes?
    • Isopropyl alcohol
    • Explanation: Isopropyl alcohol should not be used to clean endoscopes because it breaks down the cement.
  53. Which of the following is used to expose the meatus during urethral catheterization?
    Non-dominant hand
  54. What muscle is commonly used for TRAM reconstruction in a mammoplasty?
    • Rectus abdominis
    • Explanation: The use of the transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous (TRAM) flap is a type of pedicle flap reconstruction in which the tissue is transferred but remains attached to its blood supply.
  55. The patient is never positioned until the:
    Anesthesia provider gives permission
  56. Which of the following is the second phase of wound healing?
    Proliferation

    Explanation: Phase 2 of wound healing is proliferation which begins approximately on the third postoperative day.
  57. What term refers to cell "drinking"?
    • Pinocytosis
    • Explanation: In pinocytosis, "cell drinking," the engulfed material is a tiny droplet of extracellular fluid rather than a solid.
  58. What does hypertension mean?
    High blood pressure
  59. Which type of fire extinguisher should be available when using a laser?
    The halon fire extinguisher is recommended because of its low toxicity and residue is not produced.
  60. What is the major side effect of thrombolytics?
    Hemorrhage
  61. If a sterile glove becomes contaminated during a procedure, what action should the surgical technologist take?
    • Circulator pulls off glove; surgical technologist is regloved by another sterile team member
    • Explanation: The surgical technologist should step away from the sterile field, circulator grasps glove and pulls off leaving hand exposed; he/she is regloved by another member of the sterile team.
  62. What type of suture technique is used to invert the stump of the appendix during an appendectomy?
    Purse-string

    Explanation: The stump of the appendix is inverted into the colon, and a circular purse-string suture is placed to maintain the inverted stump.
  63. Which of the following is the proper procedure for removing a laparotomy drape?
    Surgical technologist (ST) holds dressing in place; rolls drape head to feet
  64. Gerota's fascia is located:
    Around the kidney
  65. What activity can aggravate the symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia?
    Chewing

    Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by severe pain in the face and is paroxysmal. Chewing usually aggravates the symptoms
  66. What is the purpose of maintaining 20% to 60% relative humidity in the OR?
    Decrease static electricity
  67. What surgical instrument is used to thread the drilled hole for the screw during an ORIF?
    Tap
  68. Which of the following pathology would be treated by transsphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure?
    • Pituitary neoplasm
    • Explanation: Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is the procedure of choice for pituitary tumors.
  69. The muscles that cause strabismus are the:
    • Extrinsic
    • Explanation: The six extrinsic muscles work together to move the eye in various directions; strabismus is due to problems with coordinated eye muscle movement.
  70. What is the minimum required number of people to transfer a patient from the OR table to the stretcher?
    4
  71. When used as a skin prep, which of the following should be allowed to thoroughly dry if electrocautery will be used?
    Alcohol and tinctures

    Explanation: Alcohol and solutions with alcohol should be allowed to thoroughly dry to prevent the flammable fumes from collecting under the sterile drapes and possibly igniting when electrocautery is used.
  72. Healthcare-acquired infections (HAI) are most commonly associated with which of the following?
    Use of urinary catheters
  73. What is the technical term for robotic arms?
    • Manipulator
    • Explanation: The technical term for the robotic arms is manipulator.
  74. In which of the following procedures would the surgeon check for anastomotic leaks by injecting air into the rectum, looking for bubbles in the fluid-filled peritoneal cavity?
    Low anterior resection

    Explanation: Before the surgical wound is closed, the lumen of the bowel is insufflated to check for air leaks from the anastomosis.
  75. What are varicosities of the rectum and anus?
    Hemorrhoids
  76. Vitamins A, D, E and K are absorbed in the:
    Intestine

    Explanation: Vitamins A, D, E and K are absorbed in the small intestine
  77. The preoperative exsanguination of an extremity prior to inflating a tourniquet is accomplished with:
    Esmarch
  78. Which of the following vessels is harvested for use during a CABG?
    • Internal mammary artery
    • Explanation: The internal mammary artery or saphenous vein is anastomosed to the affected coronary artery during a CABG.
  79. Which of the following retractors would be used to retract the muscles during a hip pinning?
    • Bennett
    • Explanation: Bennett retractors are frequently used to retract the muscles during a hip pinning due to the angle of the head of the retractor.
  80. The surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens is called a:
    Vasovasostomy
  81. Which type of laser is used to remove polymethyl methacrylate from a cemented joint implant during a revision arthroplasty?
    • Carbon dioxide
    • Explanation: The carbon dioxide laser is used to vaporize polymethyl methacrylate to aid in the removal of the prosthesis.
  82. Sound waves travel through the external auditory canal and strike the:
    • Tympanic membrane
    • Explanation: Sound waves collect in the auricle and pass on to strike the tympanic membrane. 
  83. In large abdominal wounds that require frequent dressing changes, which of the following will minimize the skin break-down?
    • Montgomery straps
    • Explanation: Montgomery straps are utilized for surgical wounds that require frequent dressing changes. It consists of two sections, the first has an adhesive side that sticks to the skin and a nonadhesive side with strings that are tied over the intermediate dressing layer and can be untied to perform the dressing change.
  84. Which of the following positioning devices would be used for a LAVH?
    • Allen stirrups
    • Explanation: Allen stirrups, which aid in placing the patient in low lithotomy position, are used for the LAVH (Laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectomy) procedure. 
  85. The term mentoplasty refers to surgery of the:
    Chin

    Explanation: Mentoplasty is the medical term that refers to plastic surgery of the chin.
  86. Which of the following situations could cause a patient's signature on a surgical informed consent to be challenged in court?
    Patient received preoperative medications

    Explanation: If the patient received preoperative medications prior to signing the surgical informed consent this can be challenged in court.
  87. What is the importance of humidity when using EtO sterilization?
    • Hydrate spores and bacteria
    • Explanation: Moisture hydrates bacteria and spores to reduce their resistance to the gas
  88. What is the purpose of polymethyl methacrylate during a cranioplasty?
    Filling cranial defects. Polyethyl methacrylate is an alloplastic material used to repair cranial defects caused by accidents, tumors and other trauma.
  89. The appropriate location when placing the grounding pad is over a:
    Fleshy area

    Explanation: The pad should be applied to a fleshy area, preferably over a clean and dry muscle mass.
  90. Which catheter is used for an angioplasty?
    Fogarty
  91. A hernia that presents through Hesselbach's triangle is a/an:
    • Direct
    • Explanation: Direct hernia is a type of inguinal hernia that presents within Hesselbach's triangle.
  92. The medial malleolus is part of which bone?
    • Tibia
    • Explanation: The medial malleolus is part of the tibia.
  93. What is performed prior to implantation of a Dacron® knit polyester graft?
    • Preclotting
    • Explanation: Due to the porosity of the material that allows blood to seep through, Dacron® knit polyester grafts require preclotting.
  94. Which structure articulates with the head of the femur?
    Acetabulum
  95. An abnormal bending backward of the uterus is called:
    • Retroflexion
    • Explanation: The ligaments that maintain the position of the uterus are flexible enough to allow the uterus to become malpositioned; retroflexion is a harmless malposition.
  96. What type of clip is a Raney?
    • Scalp
    • Explanation: The Raney scalp clip is applied to the edges of the incised scalp to control bleeding during cranial procedures
  97. The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?
    • Vascular
    • Explanation: The ciliary body is located in the anterior portion of the vascular tunic. 
  98. Which of these drugs is a miotic?
    • Pilocarpine
    • Explanation: Miotics are pupil-constricting agents and pilocarpine hydrochloride is a common miotic used for this purpose.
  99. Which of the following is a violation of Standard Precautions during postoperative case management?
    Retrieve reusable trocar from sharps container

    Explanation: No item should ever be retrieved from the sharps container to avoid a sharps accident.
  100. Which type of monitoring equipment is a noninvasive assessment of oxygen saturation of arterial blood?
    Pulse oximetry
  101. How are femoral shaft fractures in an adult repaired?
    Intramedullary nailing

    Explanation: Femoral shaft fractures in adults are repaired with either compression plating or intramedullary nailing.
  102. Which of the following instruments would be used to dilate the male urethra?
    Van Buren

    Explanation: Van Buren is a type of male urethral dilator that is available in diameters that increase in size. 
  103. To determine the process for preparing surgical instruments for use on tissue and within a body cavity, they are classified as:
    Critical

    Explanation: Surgical instruments and other items that will come into contact with the patient's tissues and/or be used within a body cavity are categorized as critical and must be sterile.
  104. The Harrington retractor allows for gentle retraction of which anatomical structure?
    • Liver
    • Explanation: Harrington retractor is a large, deep retractor and allows for gentle retraction of the liver.
  105. What is the term for the division of a reproductive cell into two cells with chromosome cells?
    • Meiosis
    • The division of a reproductive cell into two cells with 23 chromosomes each is called meiosis
  106. What does the term dys- mean?
    Difficult
  107. After the patient is extubated, which device is often used to maintain the airway around the relaxed tongue?
    • Oropharyngeal airway
    • Explanation: Upon extubation, the ET is usually replaced with an oropharyngeal airway to lift the tongue forward or nasal airway to lift the soft palate from the back of the oropharynx. 
  108. Which of the following accelerates the coagulation cascade?
    • Topical thrombin
    • Explanation: Topical thrombin aids in speeding up the coagulation cascade.
  109. Which breast procedure describes a mastectomy?
    Surgical removal

    Explanation: Mastectomy means removal of the breast.
  110. What is done to the common bile duct during a choledochojejunostomy?
    Anastomosed

    Explanation: Choledochojejunostomy is an anastomosis between the common bile duct and jejunum to reestablish flow of bile.
  111. In which of the following procedures would a tourniquet be unnecessary?
    Hip arthroplasty

    Explanation: In a hip arthroplasty, a tourniquet would be unnecessary.
  112. Which of the following anatomical sites would be prepped last when performing a skin prep for a colostomy reversal procedure?
    Stoma

    Explanation: When prepping for a colostomy reversal procedure, the stoma site is prepped last since it is considered contaminated.
  113. What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?
    Endoscopic carpal tunnel release

    Explanation: A carpal tunnel release involves surgically releasing the transverse carpal ligament to relieve pressure on the median nerve.
  114. What is the proper procedure for turning the sterile gown?
    Hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown
  115. What does the term "os" mean?
    • Opening
    • Explanation: An opening or mouth is an "os."
  116. Which of the following is not a function of the trachea?
    • Amplify speech
    • Explanation: The trachea does not assist in ampliflying speech.
  117. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of floating spots before the eyes?
    Retinal detachment

    Explanation: The sudden onset of the appearance of floating spots before the eyes is one of the initial symptoms of a retinal detachment.
  118. One of the most effective germicidals for cold sterilization is:
    2% glutaraldehyde

    Explanation: Glutaradehyde is an agent that is used for disinfection and sterilization purposes.
  119. From which laminectomy instrument would intervertebral disc fragments be cleaned?
    Pituitary

    Explanation: Pituitary rongeur, bone drill and nerve hook are all commonly used during a lumbar laminectomy. 
  120. What type of suture is used for vascular reanastomosis?
    Nonabsorbable monofilament
  121. What is the name of the suction tip?
    Frazier

    Explanation: The Frazier suction tip is useful for small incisions and pediatric procedures.
  122. What molecule is broken down when body cells require energy?
    ATP
  123. Which of the following represents a saddle joint?
    • Thumb and trapezium
    • Explanation: An example of a saddle joint is the joint between the trapezium of the carpus and metacarpal of the thumb.
  124. During an EtO sterilization cycle, humidity is maintained at:
    • 20-80%
    • Explanation: Humidity is maintained at 20-80% within the EtO sterilizer to hydrate the bacteria and spores
  125. An emergency drug given to stabilize ventricular fibrillation is:
    • Isoproterenol
    • Explanation: Isoproterenol hydrochloride (Isuprel®) is used to treat ventricular fibrillation that occurs during surgery.
  126. Creating a positive-pressure air supply for each OR will:
    Minimize airborne bacteria entering room

    Explanation: To prevent contamination of the air in the OR from air outside the room, pressure in the OR should be positive.
  127. Which is an acceptable antiseptic solution for a skin prep?
    Povidone-Iodine

    Explanation: Povidone-Iodine (commercial name Betadine) is an ideal agent to use for the patient skin prep; however, a patient can be allergic to the solution.
  128. During a total hip arthroplasty, which instrument is used after intramedullary reaming to reshape the proximal femoral canal?
    Rasp
  129. Which of the following assesses the electrical activity of the nervous system?
    • Electroencephalogram
    • Electroencephalogram is a display and recording of the brain electrical activity of the brain through the placement of electrodes on the scalp.
  130. The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the:
    Nephron
  131. Which of the following is an intermediate-level disinfectant?
    Isopropyl alcohol

    Explanation: Isopropyl alcohol is tuberculocidal, bactericidal, virucidal and fungicidal, but not sporidical.
  132. In which vein of an infant patient is a central venous catheter inserted?
    External jugular

    Explanation: In neonates and infants, a cutdown approach to the external jugular is preferred for insertion of a central venous catheter.
  133. After the patient leaves the OR, the reusable items should be taken to the decontamination room:
    • Inside a closed case cart
    • Explanation: To prevent cross contamination and airborne microbes, instruments are placed within a closed case cart to transport.
  134. A clamp used for occluding a peripheral vessel is:
    • DeBakey
    • Explanation: There are several type of DeBakey clamps, and the DeBakey peripheral vascular clamp is angled with smooth serrations making it ideal for clamping blood vessels without damaging the tissue.
  135. During a total hip arthroplasty, which type of device prevents polymethyl methacrylate from filling the medullary canal distal to the prosthesis?
    Restrictor

    Explanation: The cement restrictor is placed at the end of the reamed femoral canal prior to injecting the bone cement to prevent it from entering the medullary canal.
  136. Which of the following is proper technique when applying a grounding pad?
    • Avoid placing pad on buttocks
    • Explanation: Placing the pad on the buttocks should be avoided since uneven and incomplete contact with the skin will most likely occur.
  137. Which of the following sutures are packaged in alcohol to maintain pliability?
    Natural absorbable

    Explanation: Most natural absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol-water based solution to maintain their pliability.
  138. What procedure should be followed for securing consent for surgery for an unconscious patient requiring emergency surgery whose family members or guardian cannot be contacted?
    Two consulting physicians agree

    Explanation: When an unconscious patient requires emergency surgery and the family members or guardian cannot be contacted, two consulting physicians must agree that the surgery is needed.
  139. What gynecologic procedure includes removal of the reproductive organs, bladder and rectum?
    • Pelvic exenteration
    • Explanation: A radical pelvic procedure performed for highly invasive, persistent carcinoma and only performed if it offers the possibility of a cure is pelvic exenteration.
  140. Isopropyl alcohol is bactericidal, which means it:
    Kills bacteria

    Explanation: Bacter/i refers to bacteria and -cidal means kill/destroy.
  141. Use of a one-step applicator with little or no pressure on skin would be indicated in which of the following conditions?
    Abdominal aortic aneurysm

    Explanation: To prevent rupturing the delicate aneurysm, very little pressure should be placed on the abdomen and the prep should be gently performed.
  142. A postoperative anesthesia complication when extubating a patient is:
    Laryngospasm

    Explanation: When the patient is extubated, laryngospasm can occur due to irritation and/or inflammation of the airway by the endotracheal tube.
  143. The process by which glucose is stored as glycogen is:
    • Glycogenesis
    • Explanation: If glucose is not required for ATP production at once, it is mixed with other molecules of glucose to form glycogen, which is then stored in the liver and skeletal muscle fibers, referred to as glycogenesis.
  144. The large, leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage that acts as a "trap door" over the larynx is the:
    Epiglottis

    Explanation: The epiglottis is a large, leaf-shaped piece of cartilage that moves freely over the larynx.
  145. Use of Van Buren sounds might be necessary for urethral catheterization in patients with which of the following
    • Urethral stricture
    • Explanation: In the presence of a urethral stricture, the use of a Van Buren dilator may be necessary prior to inserting the catheter.
  146. The four fluid-filled spaces of the brain are:
    Ventricles
  147. For which surgical procedure would bupivicaine with epinephrine be contraindicated?
    • Trigger finger release
    • Explanation: Trigger finger release is the procedure that bupivacaine with epinephrine would be contraindicated. may cause ischemia (poor blood flow)
  148. What term describes an individual who harbors a pathogen but displays no signs or symptoms?
    Carrier

    Explanation: Someone who carries a pathogen without manifesting symptoms is called a carrier.
  149. Which of the following procedures is performed before completing an ileal conduit?
    • Cystectomy
    • Explanation: When the entire bladder is removed (cystectomy), a urinary bladder diversion procedure is required. Ileal conduit is the standard procedure performed after a cystectomy.
  150. Which of the following is the recommended postoperative handling of reusable instruments used on a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
    Place in biohazard bag and destroy

    Explanation: The recommendation by the WHO is to place the instruments in an impervious container, place in biohazard bag, label "possible CJD" and destroy the instruments.
  151. In what anatomical structure would a T-tube most likely be placed?
    Common bile duct

    Explanation: The T-tube, due to its configurations, is best used for placement in the common bile duct for drainage of the biliary system.
  152. What type of procedure is performed to treat tumors of the pituitary gland
    • Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy
    • Explanation: The pituitary gland is accessed through an incision in the upper gum or nasal cavity, and the sphenoid sinus is incised to reach the pituitary gland. 
  153. Which of the following would be an inappropriate manner for the handling of surgical specimens?
    Frozen sections are sent to pathology on a Raytec® sponge

    Explanation: A counted sponge, such as a Ray-Tec® sponge, must never be used for passing off and transporting a specimen.
  154. Which of the following instruments would be used during a suprapubic prostatectomy?
    Bladder retractor

    Explanation: A bladder retractor is often used to aid in visualization of the interior of the bladder during the procedure
  155. A tumescent solution is used in which of the following procedures?
    • Suction lipectomy
    • Explanation: A tumescent solution is used in the suction lipectomy procedure. a procedure which removes fat cells through small incisions utilizing surgical suctioncatheters. The goal of surgery is to improve body contour by removing localized accumulations of fat.
  156. Which of the following is a type of non-retaining catheter?
    • Whistle
    • Explanation: The Whistle is a type of non-retaining catheter used to obtain urine specimen or decompress the bladder.
  157. The walls of the vagina are lined with:
    • Mucosa
    • Explanation: The vagina is a tubular, fibromuscular organ lined with mucous membrane.
  158. Which drug counteracts metabolic acidosis?
    Sodium bicarbonate

    Explanation: Sodium bicarbonate is used to correct metabolic acidosis during cardiac arrest.
  159. Which of the following wound classifications would be assigned to a compound fracture?
    Contaminated

    Explanation: Compound or open fracture would have a wound classification as contaminated.
  160. What type of dye is used intravenously to verify patency of the fallopian tubes during a pelvic procedure?
    • Methylene blue
    • Explanation: Methylene blue is used intravenously to verify patency of the fallopian tubes.
  161. Pneumoperitoneum is utilized during a laparoscopy to do which of the following?
    Create safe working space

    Explanation: Pneumoperitoneum is established to provide a working space in the abdomen and allow the intestines to fall away from the anterior of the abdominal cavity to prevent perforation by the trocars upon insertion.
  162. What is the required pressure for a steam sterilizer set at a temperature of 250°F?
    • 15 - 17
    • Explanation: The pressure for a steam sterilizer set at 250°F must be 15 - 17 with a minimum exposure of 15 minutes.
  163. What is the most commonly used thermal method of hemostasis in cranial neurosurgery?
    • Bipolar electrosurgery
    • Explanation: Bipolar electrosurgery is the most commonly used method of thermal hemostasis in cranial surgery; cottonoid strips and bone wax are frequently used non-thermal methods of hemostasis.
  164. A wrapped instrument set that will be run in the steam prevacuum sterilizer at 270° must be sterilized for a minimum of:
    4 minutes

    Explanation: A wrapped instrument set placed in a steam prevacuum sterilizer at 270° F must be exposed to that temperature for a minimum of 4 minutes.
  165. A patient that has sudden onset of shortness of breath in the PACU may indicate:
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • Explanation: Pulmonary embolism is a primary cause of death intra-and postoperatively.
  166. Which of the following sutures is a nonabsorbable monofilament frequently used in vascular procedures?
    Polypropylene

    Explanation: Polypropylene is used frequently in vascular procedures.
  167. Which of the following defines anaerobic?
    Without oxygen

    Explanation: Anaerobic means without oxygen.
  168. Which nerve in the lower leg must be protected from pressure when placing the patient in the lithotomy position?
    Peroneal

    Explanation: To prevent foot drop, the peroneal nerve should be padded since it rests on the stirrups in the lithotomy position.
  169. Exophthalmos due to Graves' disease is associated with which gland?
    Thyroid

    Explanation: A primary characteristic of Graves' disease is hyperthyroidism. Other symptoms include weight loss, fatigue, palpitations, increased metabolic rate, and exophthalmos.
  170. Where should the Foley indwelling catheter drainage bag be positioned after insertion of the catheter?
    Lower than the level of the bladder
  171. The sutures of the adult skull are examples of:
    Synarthroses
  172. A ventilation system that provides a unidirectional positive-pressure air flow at a high air exchange rate in the OR is:
    Laminar air flow

    Explanation: Laminar air flow is a high-flow unidirectional, air-blowing ventilation system.
  173. Catabolism of fats produces:
    Ketone bodies
  174. What is the principal reason for performing a preoperative skin prep?
    Remove transient flora and reduce resident flora

    Explanation: The principal reason for performing preoperative skin prep is to remove transient flora and reduce resident flora.
  175. What is the part of the brain that is responsible for controlling the body temperature?
    Hypothalamus

    Explanation: The hypothalamus detects changes in temperature and triggers heat-conserving and generating activities, or activities that promote the loss of heat. 
Author
BrOleg
ID
339273
Card Set
CST Exam 4
Description
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Updated

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