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CST Exam 3

  1. Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia?
    • V
    • Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia arises from the irritation of the fifth cranial nerve. The trigeminal nerve is a nerve responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as biting and chewing; it is the largest of the cranial nerves
  2. What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the dermatome?
    • Mineral oil
    • Explanation: Sterile mineral oil is used to lubricate the skin at the donor site to reduce friction and provide a smooth surface for the dermatome.
  3. Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft?
    Donor site first

    Explanation: Donor site first is an example of proper sterile technique when performing skin prep for a split-thickness skin graft.Image Upload 2
  4. What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic procedure?
    12-15 mm Hg

    Explanation: The intra-abdominal pressure of the carbon dioxide should be maintained between 12-15 mm Hg to avoid damage to the abdomen; however, it should not be allowed to go below 8 mm Hg.
  5. Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object?
    Strabismus

    Explanation: Strabismus is the inability to direct both eyes at the same object due to the lack of coordination of the extraocular muscles.
  6. What procedure is performed to correct chronic cerebral ischemia?
    • Endarterectomy
    • Explanation: Indications for a carotid endarterectomy include transient cerebral ischemia, asymptomatic bruits, and chronic cerebral ischemia. Image Upload 4
  7. According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk?
    • 18%
    • Explanation: According to the Rule of Nines, the percentage assigned to the front and back of the trunk of the body is 18%.Image Upload 6
  8. Which term refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells?
    • Hyperplasia
    • Explanation: An abnormal increase in the number of cells due to an increase in the frequency of cell division is known as hyperplasia.
  9. A second intention wound heals by:
    Granulation

    Explanation: During second intention healing, granulation tissue containing fibroblasts forms in the wound and closes it by contraction with secondary growth of epithelium
  10. Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with:
    Lidocaine

    Explanation: Lidocaine hydrochloride, trade name Xylocaine, is used as an emergency medication during surgery to treat cardiac arrest or ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation.
  11. How many milliliters equal two (2) ounces?
    • 60
    • Explanation: One fluid ounce equals 30 mL; two ounces equals 60 mL.
  12. Covering a sterile table for later use is:
    • Not permissible under any circumstances.
    • Explanation: Covering a sterile table for later use is not permitted because it is nearly impossible to uncover without contaminating the sterile items on the top of the table; additionally, uncovering the table stirs up the dust in the OR
  13. Into which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia?
    Trendelenburg

    Explanation: Hypovolemia is low blood volume.  Patients are placed in the Trendelenburg position to increase blood flow to the upper body.
  14. Which of the following types of suture create the least tissue trauma and drag?
    Swaged monofilament

    Explanation: The use of monofilament suture swaged on a needle is best for minimizing tissue trauma and drag.
  15. Which organization has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place?
    Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is an organization that is dedicated to protecting the health of workers by establishing standards that address issues related to safety in the work place.
  16. Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most applicable to the surgical patient?
    • Physiological and survival
    • Explanation: Physiological and survival is the most applicable to the surgical patient.Image Upload 8
  17. Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves?
    Gloves removed first

    Explanation: The gown is removed first by grasping it near the shoulders and pulling it off.  The circulator aids the effort by untying the back of the gown.  This action slightly turns the inside of the gloves outward to aid in removing them without touching any patient blood or body fluids that are on the outside of the gloves
  18. What type of procedure might require a laparoscopy combination drape?
    Abdominoperineal resection

    Explanation: A laparoscopy combination drape is a combination of laparotomy and perineal sheet.  It is used for abdominoperineal resection.Image Upload 10
  19. Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by:
    • Coagulation of protein
    • Explanation: The thermal (steam) destruction of microbes is due to the denaturation and coagulation of cellular protein.
  20. Which technique is not acceptable when draping?
    • Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table
    • Explanation: Drapes are to be carried to the OR table in folded condition.  If allowed to unfold, it could drag on the floor contaminating the drapes.  The drapes are too large to place on the patient in an unfolded manner without contaminating them.
  21. A patient's fingernail polish is removed to:
    Allow for use of pulse oximeter

    Explanation: The pulse oximeter cannot properly function with nail polish present.  The light beam from the pulse oximeter is focused to travel through the nail and skin of the finger and nail polish changes the color of the light beam causing it to malfunction.
  22. What is the purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15 - 20 times per hour in the OR?
    Reduce microbial count

    Explanation: Studies have shown that air exchange in the OR at the rate of 15-20 times per hour helps to reduce the microbial count.
  23. How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5-mL balloon on the Foley indwelling catheter?
    • 10 mL
    • Explanation: 10 mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5-mL balloon on the Foley indwelling catheter.
  24. If an ophthalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is it safely performed?
    • Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel
    • Explanation: Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel is used for trimming eyelashes.
  25. What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep?
    Incision site to periphery using circular motion

    Explanation: When performing the patient skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and painted starting at the incision site using a circular motion
  26. The laboratory test that determines the ratio of erythrocytes to whole blood is:
    • Hematocrit
    • Explanation: The percentage or ratio of erythrocytes that is present in the whole blood of the surgical patient is determined by the laboratory test called the hematocrit.
  27. What is the proper procedure to follow when a pack of sponges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR?
    If a sponge pack contains an incorrect number of sponges, the first scrub surgical technologist should hand the sponges to the circulator who will place the sponges in an area of the OR where they will not be thrown away or mixed with other sponges until the end of the procedure and the OR is being cleaned
  28. Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?
    Calculi

    Explanation: Any type of stones, salivary, gallbladder or renal, should be sent dry to pathology. Preservative solutions destroy the stones, making it impossible for pathological examination.
  29. Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts?
    Operative field

    Explanation: The first scrub should begin at the operative field first and work her/his way "backwards;" operative field, Mayo stand, backtable, sponge bucket, floor.
  30. Which of the following catheter tips is used in a patient with a urethral stricture?
    Coude

    Explanation: Coude is a non-retaining catheter tip to maneuver around an obstruction if a patient has a urethral strictureImage Upload 12
  31. Which type of procedure would require a stent dressing?
    Neck

    Explanation: Bolster dressing also referred to as stent dressings are for wounds that are difficult to dress and keep in place, such as the face and neck.  The long ends of sutures are tied over the dressing to keep it in place.
  32. Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy?
    Nerve stimulator

    Explanation: Nerve stimulators create very small electric currents that help to identify and preserve essential facial nerves.
  33. Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?
    • Absorbable collagen
    • Explanation: Absorbable collagen is contraindicated in the presence of infection or in areas where blood or other body fluids have pooled.
  34. During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, the OR table is straightened to facilitate:
    Tissue approximation

    Explanation: To achieve proper wound closure, the table must be straightened to bring the tissue of the incision closer together and avoid tension on the suture and tissues.
  35. Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchoscope?
    • Light source
    • Explanation: A fiberoptic light source is the power source for all fiberoptic instruments and equipment and should be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchoscope.
  36. Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct:
    Coarctation of the aorta

    Explanation: Coarctation of the aorta can be corrected by excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosisImage Upload 14
  37. For which of the following diagnoses would a patient undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?
    • Choledocholithiasis
    • Explanation: An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is performed to visualize the biliary and pancreatic tract so the patient would have the diagnosis of choledocholithiasis. Image Upload 16
  38. The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an:
    Varicocelectomy

    Explanation: The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes done to reduce venous plexus congestion is varicocelectomy.
  39. Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision?
    I and II

    Explanation: Surgical trauma to the first and second cranial nerves would cause loss of the sense of smell and sight. the olfactory nerve (I), the optic nerve (II),
  40. Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy?
    • Culdocentesis
    • Explanation: Culdocentensis is a diagnostic procedure performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy, intraperitoneal bleeding or tuboovarian abscess.  It involves the aspiration of blood, fluid or pus by needle via the posterior vaginal fornix.
  41. Which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?
    • Iridectomy
    • Explanation: Glaucoma can be surgically treated by performing a goniotomy, iridectomy, or cyclodialysis.  Vitrectomy is removal of a portion or all of the vitreous gel.
  42. What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture?
    Arch bar application

    Explanation: Arch bar application is used to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture.
  43. Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint?
    • Hip
    • Explanation: An abduction splint is used to immobilize and keep in alignment the hip joint following a total hip arthroplasty.
  44. Untreated acute otitis media may result in:
    Mastoiditis

    Explanation: Untreated acute otitis media can lead to mastoiditis.Image Upload 18
  45. Which of the following is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency?
    Doppler ultrasound

    Explanation: A Doppler ultrasound device is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency.
  46. The instrument shown below would be used during a:Image Upload 20
    Tonsillectomy

    Explanation: The Hurd dissector and Pillar retractor are used during a tonsillectomy.
  47. Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy?
    Carbohydrates

    Explanation: The primary source of energy to the body is carbohydrates acquired through the ingestion of carbohydrate-rich foods and liquids.
  48. What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation?
    Cricoid cartilage

    Explanation: Sellick's maneuver or cricoid pressure is used to prevent aspiration during induction and ET tube placement.
  49. What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body?
    Metastasis

    Explanation: Metastasis is the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body.
  50. The shared passageway for food and air is the:
    Pharynx

    Explanation: The pharynx is a passageway for air and food. Image Upload 22
  51. The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the:
    Epididymis

    Explanation: The epididymis is a comma-shaped organ that lies along the posterior border of the testis.
  52. The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the:
    • Bicuspid
    • Explanation: The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is referred to as either the mitral or bicuspid valve.Image Upload 24
  53. Which characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis?
    An amphiarthrosis refers to a joint that is slightly movable, such as the symphysis pubis
  54. What is the most abundant ion in the body?
    • Calcium
    • Explanation: Calcium is the most abundant ion in the body.
  55. Which of the following is a method of bacterial survival when environmental conditions are not conducive to growth and viability?
    Spore formation

    Explanation: Spore formation happens when environmental conditions are not conducive to growth and viability.
  56. What organ detects changes in the level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose?
    • Pancreas
    • Explanation: The pancreas regulates the concentration of sugar glucose levels in the circulatory system.  When the concentration of blood glucose increases, the pancreas senses the change and releases insulin, causing the glucose to move from the blood and be stored in the liver and muscles.  When the blood level of glucose is too low, the pancreas releases glucagon that causes stored glucose to be released into the circulator system.
  57. What does the term strike-through mean?
    • Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers
    • Explanation: When moisture soaks through a drape, gown or package, "strike-through" occurs, and the item is contaminated.
  58. Which of the following monitoring devices would be used within a vessel?
    Swan Ganz

    Explanation: A Swan Ganz monitoring device is inserted within a branch of the pulmonary artery to measure the central venous pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and cardiac output.Image Upload 26
  59. When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what strength does the drug become?
    0.25%
  60. What action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery?
    If a patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery, then do not transport patient and inform the surgeon.
  61. Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of the following?
    Cross-contamination

    Explanation: Cross-contamination is the contamination of an individual or object upon contact with a contaminated item.
  62. The unsterile size of the perimeter of a sterile wrap is:
    1 inch
  63. A substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microbes on living tissue is a/an:
    Antiseptic

    Explanation: Antiseptic agents are used to perform the patient skin prep as well as used by surgical team members to perform the surgical scrub; the agents are used to "surgically clean" the skin.
  64. What action should be taken by the transporter if a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing unit?
    Do not transport, inform unit supervisor, and OR personnel if there is a discrepancy in the identification of a patient on the nursing unit.
  65. A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to:
    Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect

    Explanation: Studies have shown patients who were asked to shower with antimicrobial soap at home prior to having surgery demonstrate a decrease in the microbial count on the skin.
  66. What are the sequential steps performed prior to entrance into the sterile field?
    Scrub, gown, glove
  67. Which area is prepped last when performing the skin prep for a Bartholin's cystectomy?
    • Anus
    • Explanation: For prepping a Bartholin's cystectomy the anus is prepped last.
  68. The sterile surgical technologist should drape a table from:
    • Front to back
    • Explanation: To avoid contamination and reaching over the non-sterile surface when draping a table, the drape should be placed front to back.
  69. Which of the following can be injured if the arm is placed on the arm board greater than 90 degrees?
    Brachial plexus

    Explanation: If the arm is placed on the arm board at greater than 90 degrees, the brachial plexus is at risk for injury.
  70. What is the purpose of the third lumen in a three-way indwelling Foley catheter?
    Instill irrigation fluids

    Explanation: The third lumen of the three-way indwelling Foley catheter is used for purposes of instilling irrigating fluids into the bladder.
  71. Which of the following enlarges and illuminates the surgical field during cataract procedures?
    Operating microscope enlarges and illuminates the surgical field.
  72. Small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures are
    Cottonoids are small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures.
  73. Which of the following hemostatic agents must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments?
    AviteneTM is a type of collagen material which must be kept dry, or it becomes very sticky and difficult to handle.
  74. Which surgical specialty would utilize a phacoemulsification machine?
    Ophthalmology

    Explanation: Phacoemulsification machine uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens while it irrigates and aspirates the fragments in ophthalmology surgery.
  75. Which of the following lasers would be contraindicated for use in the posterior chamber of the eye?
    • Carbon dioxide
    • Explanation: Carbon dioxide lasers would be contraindicated for the use in the posterior chamber of the eye, because the laser beam cannot travel through clear fluids.
  76. In which structure of the heart are the leads for a permanent pacemaker place?
    Right ventricle

    Explanation: The endocardial electrode is placed in the right ventricle or atrium.Image Upload 28
  77. For which of the following diagnoses would a patient require pancreaticojeunostomy?
    • Alcoholic pancreatitis
    • Explanation: To relieve pain caused by chronic alcoholic pancreatitis and pseudocysts of the pancreas, a pancreaticojejunostomy may be performed.Image Upload 30
  78. In which procedure would a Bookwalter retractor be used?Image Upload 32
    • Retropubic prostatectomy
    • Explanation: The Bookwalter self-retaining retractor may be used for a retropubic prostatectomy.Image Upload 34
  79. Which cranial nerve is severed as a last resort treatment of Meniere's disease?
    • VIII
    • Explanation: Méniére's disease is associated with cranial nerve VIII. Vestibulocochlear nerveImage Upload 36
  80. Brachytherapy is performed to treat
    • Cervical cancer
    • Explanation: Brachytherapy is  used in the treatment of cervical cancer.Image Upload 38
  81. Which procedure is performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia?
    • Radial keratotomy
    • Explanation: Radial keratotomy is a procedure performed to improve vision for patients with myopia (nearsightedness). Image Upload 40
  82. The facial fracture that involves the complete separation of the maxilla from the cranial base is a/an:
    LeFort I fracture is a type of midfacial fracture in which the maxilla is separated from the base of the skull and the upper jaw can be free floating.Image Upload 42
  83. What is the name of this retractor?
    Bennett retractors are frequently used in various types of orthopedic proceduresImage Upload 44
  84. Where is the incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure made?
    • Canine fossa
    • Explanation: Caldwell-Luc procedure involves an incision into the canine fossa of the upper jaw.Image Upload 46 Image Upload 48
  85. The device used for real-time intraoperative assessment of blood flow is a/an:
    A Doppler device measures the movement of blood through a vessel using ultrasonic, high-frequency waves.
  86. The needle holder shown below would be used during a:Image Upload 50
    Craniotomy

    Explanation: The Castroviejo needle holders are a type of microsurgical instrument that is used during delicate cardiothoracic and vascular procedures, and neurosurgery.
  87. A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food is:
    • Catabolism
    • Explanation: The chemical reactions that break down complex organic compounds into simple ones are known as catabolism.Image Upload 52
  88. Which structure of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?
    • Semicircular canals
    • Explanation: The semicircular canals work to maintain the equilibrium of the body.Image Upload 54
  89. The first step of urine production in which fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called:
    • Glomerular filtration
    • Explanation: The first step in the production of urine is called glomerular filtration.Image Upload 56
  90. The adipose tissue overlying the symphysis is the:
    Mons pubis

    Explanation: The elevated adipose tissue over the symphysis is called the mons pubis.
  91. The cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the:
    • X
    • Explanation: The vagus cranial nerve (X) regulates the secretion of gastric juicesImage Upload 58
  92. Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of which line of defense?
    • Second
    • Explanation: Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of the body's second line of defense.
  93. When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner:
    Away from self

    Explanation: When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the corner farthest from the body first.  The unsterile person must avoid reaching over a sterile field.
  94. Which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshes?
    • Polyester fiber
    • Explanation: Polyester fiber mesh is the least inert of the synthetic meshes.
  95. What radiopaque contrast medium is used intraoperatively when the patient is allergic to iodine?
    • Renografin®
    • Explanation: Renografin® is used when a patient is allergic to iodine.
  96. Which of the following legal terms would apply to a case when a non-English speaking patient signs a surgical informed consent in English, but does not fully understand it?
    • Assault and battery
    • Explanation: If a non-English speaking patient signs a surgical informed consent in English and does not fully understand it, assault and battery would apply to the situation. (the crime of threatening a person together with the act of making physical contact with them)
  97. Which of the following psychosocial factors is important for the surgical team to address for pediatric patients?
    Separation anxiety
  98. What is the surgical technologist's role during the transfer of the patient from the OR bed to the stretcher?
    • Maintains sterility and integrity of backtable
    • Explanation: The scrub person should remain sterile and maintain the sterility of the backtable until the patient has left the OR.  If any complications should occur in the immediate postoperative period in the OR, the scrub person is prepared to assist.
  99. When breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technologist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in which of the following?
    Basin with sterile water

    Explanation: The dirty instruments should be placed in a basin of water for transport to the decontamination room.  Saline will damage the coating on the instruments.  The instruments should not be transferred dry to the decontamination room allowing the debris to dry making it difficult to clean.
  100. How many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumens sterilized at 270 degrees F?
    Instruments that are unwrapped with no lumens can be sterilized at 270 degrees F for 3 minutes.
  101. What is the recommended method of hair removal from an operative site?
    Clippers with disposable heads
  102. Which of the following must be in the chart prior to the patient being taken to the OR per The Joint Commission?
    • History and physical
    • Explanation: Certain information and results of tests should be found in the patient's chart such as lab results, radiology reports, consent form for surgery, previous pathology reports, history and physical reports, allergies, handicaps or other limitations.
  103. An identification bracelet is placed on a surgical patient upon admission to the:
    Facility

    Explanation: Upon admission to the facility the identification bracelet is placed on the surgical patient.
  104. To maintain control of the stretcher, the patient should be transported to the OR:
    Feet first
  105. At what point is it appropriate to lower the leg when draping for a knee arthroscopy?
    After the tourniquet has been inflated
  106. Which structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye?
    The iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye and assists in obtaining a clear image.Image Upload 60
  107. A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:
    The glomerulus is a capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter. Image Upload 62
  108. The kidneys are located in the:
    Since the kidneys are located behind the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity, they are retroperitoneal organs.
  109. The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is:
    Sodium is the most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses.
  110. The set of teeth that erupts at about 6 months of age and is later replaced is the:
    Deciduous teeth (baby teeth) erupt at about 6 months of age and are lost usually between 6 and 12 years of age.
  111. What is a frequently used IV barbiturate for general anesthesia induction?
    • Thiopental
    • Explanation: Thiopental sodium (Pentothal) is a commonly used induction drug.
  112. Which of the following arteries does not arise directly from the aorta?
    The celiac, mesenteric, and common carotid arteries arise directly from the aorta. The vertebral arteries arise from the subclavian arteries.Image Upload 64
  113. How long is an item immersed in glutaraldehyde to be sterile?
    10 hours

    Explanation: To be considered sterile an item must be completely submerged in glutaraldehyde for 10 hours.
  114. Which chemical substance causes the immune system to form antibodies?
    • Antigens
    • Explanation: Antigens are chemical substances that react with the body and cause the formation of antibodies.
  115. What is a surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media?
    • Myringotomy
    • Explanation: Myringotomy is an incision into the tympanic membrane in order to suction the infectious fluids and place PE tubes.  This is performed for the treatment of chronic acute otitis media. Image Upload 66
  116. How is the patient positioned on the OR table for a knee arthroscopy?
    Supine, knee at lower break
  117. Which of the following instrument sets will be needed when a frontal sinus fracture repair is performed?
    • Craniotomy
    • Explanation: A craniotomy approach is often used for front sinus repair requiring the use of craniotomy instruments.
  118. Which of the following procedures is performed for cervical incompetence?
    • Shirodkar
    • Explanation: The placement of a collar suture at the internal cervical os to prevent spontaneous abortion is called a Shirodkar procedure.  Another term for the procedure is cerclage and involves the placement of a polyester (Mersilene®) tape around the internal os and tied.Image Upload 68
  119. What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during a TURP?
    Resectoscope

    Explanation: The resectoscope is a combination of a cutting instrument and an endoscope.  The surgeon utilizes a loop electrode that excises the prostatic tissue and the endoscope provides visualization of the prostate.Image Upload 70
  120. Which of the following facilitates exposure for thyroidectomy?
    Interscapular pillow
  121. Which of the following needles would be used for a liver biopsy?
    A Tru-Cut biopsy needle would be used for obtaining a liver tissue biopsy.Image Upload 72
  122. Why is cardioplegia used?
    Cause diastolic arrest

    Explanation: Cardioplegia is used during some open heart procedures to arrest the heart and allow the surgeon the ability to perform the procedure
  123. What is the risk if a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time?
    Tissue necrosis

    Explanation: Tissue necrosis can occur if the tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time.
  124. What type of specialty equipment uses liquid nitrogen and is often utilized to repair retinal detachments?
    Cryotherapy unit

    Explanation: The cryotherapy unit uses liquid nitrogen to deliver extreme cold through an insulated probe to the diseased tissue without damaging the adjacent tissues and is often used to repair retinal detachments.
  125. What is done to the umbilicus during the abdominal skin prep?
    • Prepped separately with cotton applicators
    • Explanation: The umbilicus is prepped last or separately since it is considered a contaminated area.
  126. An axillary role is placed for lateral positioning to:
    • Facilitate respiration
    • Explanation: An axillary role is placed for lateral positioning to facilitate respiration.
  127. Which nerve could be damaged by improperly padded stirrups?
    Peroneal

    Explanation: The peroneal nerve innervates the lateral surface of the lower leg and dorsal surface of the foot. The straps of the stirrups that hold the foot in place that are improperly placed or inadequately padded can cause undue pressure on the nerve causing temporary or permanent damage.Image Upload 74
  128. Frozen sections are sent to pathology:
    Immediately without preservative

    Explanation: Formalin or normal saline will alter the tissue that is indicated for frozen sections.  Therefore, the tissue must be sent in a container with no preservative.
  129. Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient in the lateral position?
    Nephrectomy

    Explanation: For a nephrectomy, the patient is positioned in the lateral position, non-operative site down.
  130. Which heat-resistant, spore-forming Bacillus does the steam sterilization biological indicator contain?
    • B stearothermophilus
    • Explanation: The biological indicator for steam sterilization contains the B. stearothermophilusspore; it is harmless to humans, but is highly resistant to destruction by steam sterilization.
  131. The process by which blood cells are formed is known as:
    Hemopoiesis

    Explanation: Hemopoiesis is the process by which blood cells are formed.
  132. The pacemaker of the heart is/are the:
    • SA node
    • Explanation: The sinoatrial (SA) node establishes the rhythm of the heart.Image Upload 76
  133. Thought processes take place in the:
    Cerebral cortex

    Explanation: The cerebral cortex, where thought processes occur, is located on the surface of the cerebrum and contains billions of neurons
  134. Kantrex, bacitracin or Ancef® mixed with saline for irrigation would do which of the following?
    Inhibit surgical site infection

    Explanation: Kantrex, bacitracin and Ancef® are antibiotics that are mixed with saline irrigation for purposes of irrigating the surgical wound to prevent a surgical site infection.
  135. Which of the following sterilizers operates with condition, exposure, exhaust and dry cycles?
    • Gravity air displacement
    • Explanation: Gravity displacement sterilizers have four cycles: condition, exposure, exhaust and dry.
  136. Preoperative bladder drainage prior to a D & C would be performed with which of the following catheters?
    • 14 Fr. Robinson
    • Explanation: 14 Fr. Robinson should be used prior to a D & C.Image Upload 78
  137. In the OR, HEPA is a type of:
    • Air filter
    • Explanation: HEPA filters are used in the OR due to the ability to remove bacteria as small as 0.5-5 mm.
  138. What precaution is utilized to prevent cardiovascular complications when positioning an anesthetized patient?
    • Move patient slowly
    • Explanation: An anesthetized patient should be moved slowly to allow the cardiovascular system to adjust due to the preoperative and intraoperative drugs the patient has received that affect the system.
  139. Why is the orientation of the vein graft reversed during a CABG?
    • Presence of valves
    • Explanation: The valves within the lumen of the saphenous vein can prevent the flow of blood; therefore, the vein must be reversed when used during a CABG (Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting).Image Upload 80
  140. Which of the following neurosurgical retractors is handheld?
    Cushing

    Explanation: Cushing is a handheld neurosurgical retractor.Image Upload 82
  141. Which of the following incisions may be used for the repair of a zygomatic fracture?
    • Below lower eyelid
    • Explanation: For zygomaticomaxillary and zygomaticofrontal suture fractures, the incision is placed below the lower eyelid.
  142. The principal male hormone produced in the testes is:
    Testosterone
  143. All of the following statements are true for paper-plastic peel packs, except:
    • Staples are an acceptable method of closing peel packs
    • Explanation: Staples must not be used to seal a peel pack; the staples create small holes that create an opening for microbes to enter.
  144. Following a TURP, a patient may have which of the following placed for bladder irrigation and compression?
    • 3-way Foley
    • Explanation: 3-way Foley may be placed following a TURP.Image Upload 84
  145. Which of the following is a correct statement when using the closed-gloving technique?
    Hand must not extend beyond cuffs

    Explanation: For closed-gloving, the hand must not extend beyond cuffs.
  146. Which drainage device is preferred for a radical neck dissection?
    • Jackson-Pratt
    • Explanation: A Jackson-Pratt drain is preferred for a radical neck dissection when a moderate amount of drainage is expected. Image Upload 86
  147. Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?
    • Iliac
    • Explanation: The iliac arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.Image Upload 88
  148. The basic unit of the nervous system is the:
    Neuron

    Explanation: The basic unit of the nervous system is the neuron.
  149. The correct sterilization times required to render specific items sterile are initially established by the:
    Equipment manufacturer

    Explanation: The sterilization time for an item(s) is established by consulting the manufacturer's recommendations.
  150. What procedure involves a series of treatments that result in permanent placement of prosthetic teeth?
    • Dental implants
    • Explanation: Dental implants is a series of treatment that results in a placement of a prosthetic tooth.
  151. In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what other factor determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
    Pressure
  152. The inner lining of the uterus is the:
    Endometrium
  153. Which of the following sterilizing processes is most economical?
    Steam

    Explanation: Steam sterilization is the most economical and least expensive method of sterilization.
  154. The basic, living structural and functional unit of the body is known as the:
    The basic functional unit of the body that makes up tissues and organs is the cell.
  155. The roof of the mouth is formed by the:
    Hard and soft palates
  156. In what position would a patient be placed following a tonsillectomy?
    • Lateral
    • Explanation: Postoperatively a patient is placed in lateral position to prevent postoperative aspiration of blood and venous engorgement.
  157. What classification of drug reduces tissue inflammation?
    Steroids
  158. What is the result of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic?
    Prolong anesthetic effect When added to a local anesthetic, epinephrine prolongs the anesthetic effect since it is a vasoconstrictor.
  159. Which of the following is not a type of sterilizing agent?
    The destruction of microbes, including spores, can be accomplished with steam under pressure, chemical agents such as ethylene oxide, electron bombardment or ultraviolet radiation. not  Boiling water
  160. A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is known as a:
    A prostatic needle biopsy is a diagnostic procedure performed when prostatic cancer is suspected.
  161. How many hours is the steam biological indicator incubated?
    24

    Explanation: The steam biological indicator that was put through the steam sterilization process is incubated for 24 hours before the reading is recorded.
  162. What agent is used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a CABG?
    Heparinized saline

    Explanation: The saphenous vein is flushed with heparinized saline to identify branches that may have been missed.
  163. In which of the following cases might the surgeon use a Gigli saw?
    Craniotomy

    Explanation: Gigli saw is used during a craniotomy.  It is included in a basic neurologic instrument set.Image Upload 90
  164. Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but typically do not destroy:
    Spores

    Explanation: Low level disinfecting agents kills most bacteria, fungi and viruses, but they are not effective in destroying spores and M. tuberculosis.
  165. Polymethyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the following procedures?
    • Total knee arthroplasty
    • Explanation: Polymethyl methacrylate, also known as bone cement, is used for total joint arthroplasty performed on the knee and hip.
  166. Which of the following items should not be sterilized by dry heat?
    Linen packs

    Explanation: Dry heat is a type of sterilization process used for sterilizing oils, powders and petroleum gauze that will be used in surgery.
  167. What is a Verres needle used for during a laparoscopy?
    Instill CO2

    Explanation: The pneumoperitoneum is established by inserting a Verres needle and tubing from the needle is attached to the insufflator for the instillation of carbon dioxide
  168. Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens?
    Phacoemulsification
  169. In which of the following procedures would fine hooks of various angles be used?
    Stapedectomy

    Explanation: Fine hooks available in varying angles are essential dissecting instruments to perform a stapedectomy.
  170. Which incisional approach would be used for a splenectomy?
    Left subcostal

    Explanation: Incisions commonly used for splenectomy include subcostal, left paramedian, and midline.Image Upload 92
  171. During a strabismus correction, resection has a greater effect on which muscle?
    • Lateral rectus
    • Explanation: When performing a resection for the correction of strabismus, a portion of the lateral rectus muscle is excised and the two ends reanastomosed. Image Upload 94
  172. What is the best site for obtaining cortical bone graft?
    The iliac crest, the superior portion of the ilium that flares outward, is an excellent source of cancellous and cortical bone for grafting purposes.
  173. Which of the following is a non-electrolytic and isotonic solution used during a TURP?
    Glycine

    Explanation: Glycine is a non-electrolytic and isotonic solution that is used during a TURP; since it is non-electrolytic it can be used in conjunction with the resectoscope.
  174. The structure that allows the eardrum to vibrate freely and connects the middle ear and the oropharynx is the:
    • Eustachian tube
    • Explanation: The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx of the throat.  It ensures that the eardrum vibrates freely when struck by sound waves.Image Upload 96
  175. Which of the following procedures may require use of a manometer to check CSF pressure?
    Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

    Explanation: Ventriculoperitoneal shunt is a procedure that may require the use of a manometer to keep track of the intraoperative CSF pressure.Image Upload 98
Author
BrOleg
ID
339202
Card Set
CST Exam 3
Description
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