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  1. What are the five bones that make up the temporal bone?
    • 1. mastoid process
    • 2. styloid process
    • 3. styloidmastoid foramen 
    • 4. articular fossa and eminence
    • 5. petrous
  2. What is the most medial bone of the orbit?
  3. The ophthalmic nerve leaves the skull through the ______
    superior orbital fissure (of sphenoid bone)
  4. The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the skull though the ______
    foramen ovale (of sphenoid bone)
  5. The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the skull though the ____
    foramen rotundum (of the sphenoid bone)
  6. Name the origin, insertion, and function of the temporalis muscle:
    • O: temporal fossa
    • I: coronoid process
    • F: RETRACT and ELEVATE mandible
  7. Name the origin, insertion, and function of the masseter muscle:
    O: zygomatic arch (cheekbone) I: outer surface of mandibleF: ELEVATE mandible
  8. Name the origin, insertion, and function of the medial pterygoid muscle:
    • O: medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate and max. tuberosity 
    • I: inner surface of the angle of mandible
    • F: ELEVATE and PROTRUDE mandible
  9. Name the origin, insertion, and function of the lateral pterygoid muscle:
    • O: lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate and infratemporal surface of sphenoid bone 
    • I: TMJ disc and neck of condyle
    • F: PROTRUDE and DEPRESS mandible, and allows SIDE to SIDE shift
  10. Name two other names for the mandibular fossa:
    • 1. glenoid fossa
    • 2. articular fossa
  11. Crepitus:
    joint noise due to bone to bone contact (pathological)
  12. (T/F) When there is popping of the jaw that doesn't hurt, it is pathological.
    False, not pathological
  13. Name the origin, insertion, and function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle:
    • O: sternum and clavicle
    • I: mastoid process (of the temporal bone)
    • F: ROTATE and TILT head
  14. Name the origin, insertion, and function of the trapezius muscle:
    • O: occipital and vertebral bones
    • I: scapula ad clavicle
    • F: ROTATE and ELEVATE shoulder
  15. What are the three major branches of the external carotid artery?
    maxillary, lingual, and facial
  16. (T/F) An infection to the cavernous sinus can lead to death.
  17. What vein drains the brain, facial vein, and superficial temporal vein?
    Internal jugular vein
  18. Which nodes drain fluid from the mandibular incisors, tip of tongue, midline of lip, chin, and floor of mouth?
  19. Which nodes drains the all the teeth besides the mand. incisors?
  20. A ________ controls the passage of materials into and out of the cell.
  21. _____ is the watery gel enclosed by the membrane.
  22. ________ stores DNA and directs all cellular activity.
  23. Where is the site of cellular protein synthesis?
  24. ______ packages cellular protein product for secretion.
    golgi bodies  (UPS)
  25. _____ is the center of energy production and cellular respiration.
  26. At which week does the development of the face begin?
    week 3
  27. _______ is formed by the fusion of the median nasal process and right and left maxillary processes.
    upper lip
  28. A which week is the upper lip completely developed?
    within 6-8 weeks
  29. At which week does the palate develop?
    6-12 weeks
  30. Which taste buds are most commonly affected by oral cancer (squamous carcinoma)?
    Foliate (on the lateral sides of tongue)
  31. What is the embryonic origin of the thyroid gland?
    foramen caecum
  32. (T/F) Salivary glands are endocrine glands.
    False; they are exocrine glands which mean they have ducts
  33. Which salivary gland is innervated by cranial nerve IX and produces serous fluid ONLY?
  34. Sublingual carnucle:
    "2 dot structure" that is located at the midline under the tongue and has the duct openings for both the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands
  35. Which tooth structure is similar to bone and is nourished by the PDL?
  36. Specifically, which root of which tooth often has two root canals?
    mesial root of the mandibular first molar
  37. Which tooth has the most unique anatomy?
    PRIMARY 1st mandibular molar
  38. Fetal pressure on what structure can cause orthostatic hypotension?
    Inferior vena cava
  39. Recommending a product without knowledge on it, is a violation of which core value?
  40. Libel:
    WRITTEN defamation (damaging a person's reputation)
  41. Slander:
    VERBAL defamation
  42. Failure to do what a reasonable person would do
  43. OSHA stands for
    Occupational Safety and Health Administration
  44. HIPPA stands for
    Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
  45. What does CDC stand for and where is it located?
    • Center of Disease Control 
    • Atlanta, GA
  46. COBRA stands for
    Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
  47. Informed consent is an example of _____
  48. (T/F) Informed consent includes the cost of the procedure.
    FALSE; procedure, risks and benefits, prognosis, and alternatives, NOT cost
  49. Name the time frame where legal action may occur.
    Statue of limitations
  50. (T/F) The dentist owns the paper on which the records are printed and the patient owns the information.
    Both statements are true
  51. The purpose of the a Professional Code of Ethics is to achieve high levels of _____
    • -practice
    • -decision making
    • -ethical consciousness
  52. Which Core Value states that patients have the right to privacy and freedom of choice?
  53. Providing dental screenings would be an example of what Core Value?
  54. Placing a sealant on a child's tooth without getting parental consent is an example of____
  55. How long does COBRA give individuals the right to keep group health insurance benefits?
    18 months
  56. List the DH process of care steps for both private dental practice and CDH.
    • Private--> CDH
    • Diagnosis= Data analysis
    • Treatment planning= Program planning
    • Treatment= Program operation
    • Payment= Finance
    • Evaluation= Evaluation/Appraisal
  57. Name the organization that focus on health problems on an international level.
  58. ____ focus on health problems of a national population.
  59. DHHS, CDC, and HRSA are all examples of ____
    federal organizations
  60. A disease that occurs regularly in a population as a matter of course.
  61. An expectedly large number of cases of disease in a particular time and place.
  62. An outbreak of disease over a wide geographical area such as a continent.
  63. The number of lives births.
  64. The rate of an illness in a population.
  65. The number of deaths in a population.
  66. The number of new cases in a population at risk during a particular period of time to convey information about the risk of contracting a disease.
  67. The number of new and old cases of a disease in a population in a given period of time to tell how widespread the disease is.
  68. An incidence rate calculated for a particular population for a single disease outbreak.
  69. Describes an epidemic with respect to person, place, and time; determines who, where, when.
    Descriptive study
  70. Name the three analytical studies.
    • 1. retrospective 
    • 2. prospective 
    • 3. longitudinal
  71. Which study is aimed at testing a hypothesis?
    analytical studies
  72. Seeks to compare those diagnosed with a disease with those who do not have the disease.
    Retrospective study
  73. A cohort is classified by exposure to one or more specific risk factors observed into the future to determine the rate of which the disease develops.
    Prospective study
  74. A group is observed over a long period of time.
    Longitudinal study
  75. Studies carried out under controlled situations.
    Experimental studies
  76. What are the only two categories of indices that are reversible?
    • 1. Gingivitis indices
    • (GI or SBI)

    • 2. OHI indices
    • (OHI-S, PII, PHP, VMI)
  77. RCI
    Root caries index
  78. Which index is based on the severity of inflammation and location?
    gingival index (GI)
  79. Which index detects the early signs of gingivitis?
    Sulcular bleeding index (SBI)
  80. Which index measures the prevalence and severity of periodontal disease by measuring the gingiva and attachment loss?
    Periodontal disease index (PDI)
  81. (T/F) Periodontal index (PI) measures the loss of attachment.
    False; each tooth is scored according to the condition of surrounding tissue, NOT bone loss.
  82. Which index requires a special probe to determine the periodontal needs versus the disease status?
    Community periodontal index of treatment needs (CPTIN)
  83. Which index is used to test agents for plaque control and calculus inhibition?
    Volpe-Manhold Index (VMI)
  84. Which index measures an individual's performance in removing debris after toothbrushing?
    Patient hygiene performance (PHP)
  85. Which index measures oral hygiene status?
  86. What is the first and most important step in a community program?
    Needs Assessment 

    (You want to plan the best party)
  87. What is the best choice way to assess large groups?
    through SURVEY
  88. Name the four examination methods:
    • Type I: complete exam w/ everything
    • Type II: limited exam 
    • Type III: exam w/ mirror and light only
    • Type IV: exam w/ tongue depressor and light ONLY
  89. What is the health insurance that aids the elderly and disabled?
  90. What is the health insurance for the poor?
  91. Explain the difference between a block grant and a line grant.
    • block= sum of money to use anyway
    • line= specifies where money should go
  92. A broad statement of what changes will occur as a result of the program.
  93. A specific statement that can be measured.
  94. List in order the stages of learning.
    • Unawareness 
    • Awareness
    • Self-Interest
    • Involvement
    • Action
    • Habit
    • (Ugly, apes, sit, in, a, hut)
  95. (T/F) Tooth shade is the independent variable and toothpaste is the dependent variable.
    False; tooth shade is DEPENDENT on the type of toothpaste
  96. What is the best sample due to the decrease chances of bias?
  97. Which sample has a high chance of bias?
  98. The outcome of interest; should change in response of intervention.
    dependent variable
  99. The intervention; what is being manipulated.
    independent variable
  100. Arranges data scores form lowest to highest.
    Data matrix
  101. Data is represented in ascending and descending order along with the frequency of each score.
    Ungrouped scores
  102. Variable clumped together in consecutive intervals.
    Grouped scores
  103. Frequency of occurrence of scores up to and including any given value in the data set.
    cumulative scores
  104. What is the most common measure of central tendency?
  105. The most commonly used method of dispersion in oral hygiene research and reflects the range within the data matrix.
    Standard deviation
  106. When more scores fall in the lower range a____ skew is seen.
  107. When morse scores fall in the higher range a ____ skew is seen.
  108. Ability of a test to correctly identify the presence of a disease.
  109. Ability of a test to identify the absence of disease.
  110. A statistical hypothesis test used when comparing the statistical difference between two mean scores.
  111. Used to compare the statistical differences between three or more scores.
  112. The similarity of private practice is similar to community dental care can be demonstrated by what?
    The re-evaluation appointment after scaling and root planing is similar to summative evaluation on a dental health program.
  113. This type of study uses a survey method to measure and describe the presence and distribution of a disease or a health condition in a population or sample at one time.
    Descriptive study
  114. (T/F) The delivery of dental care in the US is mostly a private sector endeavor. Medicare is a federal program insurance to pay medical bills for people over age 65.
    both TRUE
  115. Which type of sample consists of selecting an element according to certain subgroups?
  116. The amount of untreated caries in a population at the time of examination is known as:
    Caries prevalence
  117. The chemical attraction between UNLIKE molecules.
    adhesion  (think "tape")
  118. The chemical attraction between LIKE molecules.
  119. An index which indicates how one material reacts to temperature extremes in relation to another.
    Coefficient of thermal expansion
  120. The force at which a material breaks under pressure.
    compressive strength
  121. Slow dimensional change caused by compression.
  122. The ability to undergo change of form without breaking.
  123. A material's ability to recover its initial shape after undergoing a force.
  124. An electrical current generated by dissimilar metals in an acidic environment.
  125. The process of gelling or solidification by cold.
  126. Absorption of a solvent by a gel.
  127. A material's capacity to be shaped by force or pressure.
  128. The linking, branching, or cross linking of smaller molecules to generate a larger molecule, as seen with composite bonding and impression setting.
  129. The force at which a material cannot return to its original shape.
    proportional limit
  130. Contraction of a gel due to the loss of a solvent.
  131. The force needed to stretch a material to the point of fracture.
    Tensile strength
  132. Resistance to flow.
  133. (T/F) Polishing amalgam increases the surface area to make the restoration last longer.
    False; it DECREASES the surface area to make it last longer
  134. What is added to composites for them to appear radiopaque on a radiograph?
    barium or strontium
  135. (T/F) Liners are used to seal and medicate the pulp, whereas, bases are used to insulate and protect.
    Both TRUE
  136. (T/F) Bases include all cements, because cements are poor thermal conductors and have adequate compressive strength.
  137. Which cement is exothermic upon mixing?
    Zinc phosphate
  138. Which non-aqueous rubber is relatively rigid but unstable in the presence of moisture?
    Polyether rubber
  139. What mineral are all gypsum products made of?
    Calcium Sulfate di-hydrate
  140. (T/F) Gold, platinum, and palladium are all nonprecious metals.
    False; they are all PRECIOUS metals
  141. noble or base metals: which metals are subjected to tarnish and may cause an allergic reaction?
    base metals (silver, copper, nickel, tin, zinc)
  142. (T/F) If the patient has a mild allergy to a base metal, they will have permanent gingivitis around the restoration.
  143. What is the leading case of implant failure?
    MOBILITY caused by lack of osseo-integration (infection) or inadequate bone. Both are Dr. errors.
  144. List the five contraindications to implant placement.
    • 1. Inadequate bone
    • 2. Uncontrolled periodontal disease
    • 3. Smoking
    • 4. Infection
    • 5. Bisphosphonates
  145. What is the active ingredient of tarter control toothpaste?
  146. What is the active ingredient in gum care toothpaste?
  147. What are the three active ingredients found in desensitizing toothpaste?
    • 1. Potassium nitrate
    • 2. Sodium citrate
    • 3. Strontium chloride
  148. What is most commonly put into amalgam alloys to help minimize galvanism?
  149. Which liner is most commonly used to stimulate the development of secondary dentin in the event of pulp exposure?
    Calcium hydroxide
  150. What is the best dental wax used to modify an impression tray?
    Utility wax
  151. A leading cause of dentinal hypersensitivity is due to the incorporation of what ingredient in toothpaste?
Card Set
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