Skel Rad A Lab Final

  1. Which fracture is characterized by the distal radius moving distally & posterior?
    • Colle's Fracture (Dinner Fork Deformity).
    • Fractures are always named according to the movement of the distal fragment.
  2. What are the 2 causes for a missing pedicle?
    • 1. Agenesis: remaining pedicle is brighter & bigger (hypertrophy as compensation).
    • 2. Metastatic disease: spread to the bone & ate it away pedicle in older patients.
  3. Name 5 features indicating a congenital block.
    • 1. Wasp waist.
    • 2. Concavity.
    • 3. One level (usually).
    • 4. Rudementary discs.
    • 5. Lamina & SP's fused (posteriorly).
  4. How can you tell if an oblique view is posterior?
    • closer to body = posterior.
    • closer to spinous = anterior.
    • Remember: marker indicates side touching the bucky.
  5. What are the 3 views that make up a standard cervical study?
    • 1. Lateral cervical neutral.
    • 2. AP-lower cervical.
    • 3. APOM.
  6. How can you differentiate between a PA chest view & an AP thoracic view?
    Chest views are always taken PA so the heart & lungs are closest to the bucky.
  7. Elongated TP's can occur anywhere in the spine. True or false?
    False: only @ C7.
  8. Name some characteristics indicating that a tumor is benign.
    • 1. Well defined.
    • 2. Narrow zone of transition.
  9. Which IVF are you looking at with a RAO?
    Right IVF.
  10. Is a calcified thyroid cartilage clinically significant?
  11. Calcification of the ALL indicates which pathology? Are the disc spaces narrowed or preserved?
    DISH = disc space preserved.
  12. What is normal ADI range for adults? And children?
    • Adult: 1-3 mm.
    • Child: 3-5 mm.
  13. The mitchell marker is in the middle. Is the patient standing or recumbent?
  14. Bone is bright white on which type of imaging?
    • CT!
    • (remember that a transverse cut can be either CT or MRI).
  15. Which structure are you looking at with lumbar obliques?
    • The pars.
    • Put your hands @ a 45* angle on abdomen... you want to see the flat surface of the hand.
  16. What would a spondyloptosis @ L5 that has gone anterior to the sacrum look like?
    • An inverted napolean hat (gendarme's cap).
    • Grade 2+ spondylolisthesis = L5 vertebral body & TP become superimposed over the sacral base & ala.
  17. How can you tell if a film is the original or a copy?
    Copies have a little notch in the corner.
  18. What does CPPD stand for?
    • Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition (Disease).
    • Arthritis with crystals within fibrocartilage.
    • Graniness in the articulation zone.
  19. Describe a Colle's Fracture, a/k/a Dinner Fork Deformity.
    • The distal radius has moved distally & posterior.
    • Remember: fractures are named for the position of the distal fragment.
  20. Which disease is characterized by softening of the bone?
    • Osteomalacia.
    • Rickets in children.
  21. Name 2 pathologies commonly associated with protrusio-acetabuli.
    • 1. Osteomalacia.
    • 2. RA.
  22. Which pathology is associated with a "paint brush mataphysis?"
    • Rickets.
    • Also looking for widened growth plates of long bones.
  23. Which disease is associated with the "White Line of Frankel?"
    • Scurvy.
    • White line of Frankel: a/k/a dense zone of provisional calcification resulting in a delayed conversion to bone.
  24. What is an a/k/a for the characteristic "ring epiphysis" assocaited with scurvy?
    Winberger's Sign.
  25. Name the 4 clinical finding associated with acromegaly.
    • 1. Thick skin = thick heel pad.
    • 2. Skull/facial changes/
    • 3. Large hand & distal tufts.
    • 4. Increased ADI space.
  26. Brown tumors are associated with which pathology?
    • Brown tumors = hyperparathyroidism.
    • Brown tumors are lytic lesions.
    • Hallmark sign/HPTH: subperiosteal resorption of the outer cortex @ ligament/tendon insertions.
  27. Which is more thin, fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage?
    • Hyaline cartilage: thin, linear, parallel to articular cortex.
    • Fibrocartilage: thick, irregular.
  28. Gull Wing Sign is associated with which pathology?
    • Erosive Osteoarthritis (EOA).
    • Presents with: DJD changes with bone erosions... Affecting DIP joints... Central erosions = Gull Wing's Sign.
  29. What type of tissue does RA attack?
    Synovial tissue.
  30. Where are Haygarth's Nodes located?
    MCP joints.
  31. "Rat Bites" are associated with which pathology?
  32. In regards to RA, which joint presents with the "Zigzag Deformity?"
    The wrist (carpal bones).
  33. Which pathology is "Rugger Jersey Sign" associated with?
  34. What is the a/k/a for a lemellated periosteal reaction?
  35. Image Upload 1
    CT or MRI?
    • MRI!
    • Bone is bright white on CT!
  36. Image Upload 2
    Name this view.
  37. What is characteristic of a compression fracture?
    • The anterior height is less than the posterior height.
    • Patients may elect to have vertebroplasty = bright white on film.
  38. Ward's Triangle is associated with which pathology?
  39. Rickets is associated with both paint brush meatphysis & the white line of frankel. True or false?
    • False.
    • Rickets: paint brush metaphysis.
    • Scurvy: white line of frankel.
  40. Which pathology is associated with both Brown Tumors & the characteristic Salt & Pepper Skull?
Card Set
Skel Rad A Lab Final
Lab Final