VAQ-133 NATOPS Unit Eval Study

  1. TRUE/FALSE: With the PARK BRK handle set, the generators do not reset following a dual outage
  2. By what method can aircrew pressurize external fuel tanks on deck?
    By placing the respective external fuel tank transfer switch to the ORIDE position
  3. What condition(s) must be met to initiate emergency jettison
    Either LDG GEAR handle UP or WoffW
  4. TRUE/FALSE: A jammed, blocked, or damaged pitot tube/AOA probe may not be annunciated if system errors are not large enough to set a caution, and HUD displayed information may be inaccurate
  5. TRUE/FALSE: The FADEC will prevent hot starts airborne
  6. Negative g for more than ____ seconds is prohibited
  7. TRUE/FALSE: Placing the BATT switch to OFF prior to the amber FLAPS light on shutdown could cause uncommanded flight control movement due to residual hydraulic pressure and FCS keep-alive circuitry
  8. TRUE/FALSE: When pressed, the FIRE EXTGH READY/DISCH light latches into a depressed position similar to the FIRE lights
  9. All flight control surface actuators are powered by one ___ circuit and one ___ circuit, either simultaneously or through hydraulic _____
    HYD 1, HYD 2, Switching Valves
  10. The gear handle light flashes and a continuous rate beeping tone sounds when the gear handle is in the UP position, the aircraft is below ___ KCAS, altitude is less than ___ feet and rate of descent is greater than ___ feet per minute
    175 KCAS; 7500 ft; 250 ft/min
  11. TRUE/FALSE: The exterior lights master switch must be on for operation of the position and formation lights, but not for the strobe lights
  12. Following a drop in primary hydraulic circuit pressure (less than ___), the switching valve automatically shuts off the primary circuit and tests downstream pressure
    900 +/- 100 psi
  13. A bank angle scale and pointer are displayed at the bottom of the HUD for bank angle reference up to ___ degrees. At bank angles in excess of ___ degrees, the bank angle pointer is limited at ___ degrees and _____
    45 deg; 47 deg; 45 deg; flashes
  14. Repeated unexplained MASTER CAUTION lights/tones may be an indication of ____ system degredation
  15. Normal (low gain) NWS will be lost with a FCS CH ___ or ___ failure
    2; 4
  16. With GAIN ORIDE selected, the aircraft is uncontrollable above approximately ___ KCAS
  17. With a dual generator failure, the following voice alert warnings operate from battery power
    • a. APU FIRE
  18. Permanent Magnetic Generators (PMGs) dc sources are available when the engine reaches approximately ___ rpm and are maintained until ___ rpm is reached during spooldown, regardless of generator control switch position
    50%; 20%
  19. Hydraulic system 1A does not power which of the following:

    A)  Leading Edge Flaps
  20. With A/G training codes loaded in the VDEPD on any locked wing station, maximum roll rate is limited to approximately ___ deg/sec
  21. When making an arrested abort, allow time for the arresting hook to extend; as a guide, lower the hook ___ feet before the arresting cable
    1,000 ft
  22. List four events that individually will cause fuel dumping to stop
    • 1. The DUMP switch is placed to off
    • 2. The BINGO caution comes on
    • 3. Tanks 1 and 4 are empty and all available fuel from internal wing and external tanks has been depleted
    • 4. The FUEL LO caution comes on
  23. TRUE/FALSE: An INLET ICE caution during the inlet ice detector test indicates a failure of the detector
  24. TRUE/FALSE: Fuel cannot be dumped with either a BINGO or FUEL LO caution displayed
  25. What five pieces of data does the FCC provide on the HUD?
    • 1. Calibrated Airspeed
    • 2. AOA
    • 3. Mach
    • 4. Vertical Velocity
    • 5. Baro Altitude
  26. Arresting hook retraction is accomplished by raising the HOOK handle. This electrically opens the ___ valve and the ___ valve, routing HYD ___ pressure to the arresting hook retract actuator
    aft isolation valve; arresting hook selector valve; HYD 2B
  27. After emergency extension of the air refueling probe, how is the probe retracted? (will loss of 2A system)
    It cannot be retracted
  28. Hydraulic cautions (HYD 1A, HYD 1B, HYD 2A, HYD 2B) are set when individual hydraulic pressure switches detect circuit pressure below ___ psi
  29. The aft isolation valve and the arming valve are open/closed with WonW and are normally open/closed inflight.... The aft isolation valve is manually opened/closed inflight by hook extension/retraction or by holding the HYD ISOL switch to ORIDE. The arming valve is manually opened/closed inflight by emergency gear or emergency probe extension.
    open; closed; opened; retraction; opened
  30. The CG limitations are ___ to ___ MAC
    16.8%; 31.8%
  31. Any rudder input when the aircraft load factor is less than ___ is a prohibited maneuver.
  32. TRUE/FALSE: Throttle movement is mechanically transmitted from the throttle quadrant to each engine.
  33. During cold weather starts, avoid actuating any hydraulic system for ___ after both engines are online
    2 minutes
  34. Airborne, external tank pressurization is terminated when either the ___ switch is in EXTEND, or both ___ and ___ handles are down
  35. Tank ___ supplies fuel to the left engine while tank ___ supplies fuel to the right engine
    2; 3
  36. Each feed tank has a ___ which traps fuel, providing a minimum of ___ of negative g flight at MAX power
    horizontal baffle; 10 seconds
  37. Hydraulic pump output pressure is commanded by the ___ based on the current aircraft flight condition, with ___ psi utilized during high-speed flight with air loads are high
    FCCs; 5,000 psi
  38. What is the cockpit indication(s) of a single transformer rectifier failure?
    There are none
  39. TRUE/FALSE: The Landing Gear Control Unit (LGCU) controls landing gear extension and retraction
  40. What two methods may be used to retain both hydraulic systems inflight if the engine core is rotating:
    • 1. APU
    • 2. Opposite Engine Bleed Air (Crossbleed)
  41. TRUE/FALSE: In the event of a dual generator failure and the 28 vdc essential bus being powered by the battery rather than PMG essential bus backup circuitry, aircrew will be alerted by a BATT SW caution / BATT SW caution light
  42. Hydraulic pump output pressures are ___ and ___ psi
    3000; 5000
  43. The forward isolation valve is opened/closed when the LDG GEAR handle is UP and all three landing gear are up and locked
  44. During engine start, the corresponding ___ switch should be on as it provides primary overspeed cutout protection for the ATS
  45. TRUE/FALSE: Regardless of BATT switch position, the battery charger supplies charging power to the battery anytime the right 115 VAC bus is energized
  46. TRUE/FALSE: The APU switch automatically returns to the OFF position 1 minute after the second generator comes online. (BLEED AIR knob not in AUG PULL)
  47. A GEN TIE caution set during the initial engine start may be an indication of what?
    Parking brake not set
  48. In an unlikely event of a total ac/dc failure inflight, the battery provides approximately ___ minutes of power for the FCCs, after which aircraft control is lost
    5-10 minutes
  49. If the FUEL LO cautions are set, assume at least one ___ is below approximately ___, regardless of the displayed fuel quantity
    feed tank; 1,125 lbs
  50. The STOP position on the EXT TANKS Transfer switch prevents transfer and refueling of controlled external tank(s) except with a ___ caution
  51. An operating engine should be set to a minimum of ___ N2 rpm to ensure that bleed air output is sufficient to crank the opposite engine
  52. For survivability, the left and right fuel feed systems are normally separated but can be interconnected by a normally closed ___ valve and a normally closed feed tank ___ valve.
    Crossfeed; Interconnect
  53. The ___ provides electrical power for APU ignition and start
    Aircraft battery
  54. The primary dc source for each FCC channel is:

    D) Its respective PMG output
  55. When the L or R FIRE warning light is pressed in flight, it electrically  opens/closes the ___ valve and corresponding engine feed ___ valve
    closes; Crossfeed; Shutoff
  56. Usable fuel (JP-5) in Tank 1 is ___
  57. Motive flow ejector pumps are used to transfer internal wing tank fuel to which tank(s)?
    Tank 4
  58. TRUE/FALSE: If the anti-skid system is failed and the ANTISKID caution is present but clears when you cycle the ANTISKID switch, it may take as long as 13.5 seconds for the caution to reappear airborne, and it may remain off on deck, even though the failure still exists
  59. Failure of either wheel speed sensor can lead to a(n) ___ failure, resulting in a complete loss of brakes. Placing the ___ switch to the OFF position or pulling the ___ will bypass the faulty system and restore braking ability
  60. What other indications of NWS failure will the aircrew have available besides MASTER CAUTION light?
    NWS caution and the NWS or NWS HI cue will be removed from the HUD
  61. TRUE/FALSE: In the front cockpit, the hook light remains on except when the hook is up and latches
  62. TRUE/FALSE: The fuel low level indicating system is completely independent of the fuel quantity indicating system
  63. To prevent the loss of aircraft during compound emergencies any ___ procedures should be completed prior to completion of any other procedures
  64. If the launch bar does not return to the up and locked position after catapult launch, or the nose gear indicates WonW, the nose landing gear cannot be retracted. Placing the LDG GEAR handle UP will/will not raise the main landing gear
  65. Normal brake system pressure is provided by HYD ___
  66. TRUE/FALSE: Light bulb integrity can be tested during a LT TEST with ac power applied, and thus it is not important to detect individual bulbs that are not illuminated within the FIRE lights during the fire detection loop test
  67. What three air sources can be used to power the ATS for engine crank/start?
    • 1. APU compressor air
    • 2. Opposite engine bleed air (crossbleed)
    • 3. External air
  68. TRUE/FALSE: Placing the wing fold switch to FOLD position in flight will cause the wings to fold as the aircraft transitions to WonW during landing once the ailerons fair
  69. TRUE/FALSE: A BRK ACCUM caution inflight is not normal and may indicate a possible leak in the HYD 2B system. Do not select HYD ISOL to ORIDE.
  70. TRUE/FALSE: In ECS AUTO, with WonW and at least one throttle advanced to approximately 74% N2 rpm, the avionics ground cooling fan secures, and avionics cooling is provided solely by the ECS
  71. TRUE/FALSE: Stalls occur at lower AOA with GAIN ORIDE selected
  72. To prevent an APU running engagement and to prevent APU exhaust torching, a minimum of ___ must elapse between APU shutdown and another APU start
    2 minutes
  73. How can the aircrew tell when the fire extinguisher has been discharged?
    The green DISCH light comes on
  74. TRUE/FALSE: With no electrical power applied, in the front cockpit a 1/8 inch thick border of yellow and black stripes around a FIRE light indicates that the FIRE light has been pressed
  75. The L/R BLD OFF cautions indicate that the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve(s) are commanded ___. The cautions are/are not an indication of actual valve position.
    closed; are not
  76. TRUE/FALSE: On the ground, the APU fire extinguishing system operates automatically whenever an APU fire is detected
  77. When reservoir fluid level drops to approximately ___, RLS shuts off circuit a (HYD 1A or HYD 2A caution). If fluid level continues to deplete to approximately ___, RLS restores circuit A and shuts off circuit B (HYD 1B or HYD 2B caution). If alternate circuit shutdown fails to isolate the leak, RLS restores circuit B (no cautions) at approximately ___, providing hydraulic pressure to both systems until fluid depletion (both cautions)
    50%; 30%; 15%
  78. TRUE/FALSE: Visual inspection of the landing gear can confirm locked gear, as well as obvious damage and general position of the gear
  79. What conditions must be met to utilize the emergency jettison button?
    WoffW or LDG GEAR handle up
  80. TRUE/FALSE: With an air-to-ground store or tank on a wing station (not HUNG), maximum roll rate is automatically reduced
  81. TRUE/FALSE: Failure to select the OXY FLOW knob OFF with emergency O2 selected may prevent emergency oxygen from reaching the breathing regulator
  82. Selective jettison requires ARM conditions satisfied and all landing gear up and locked. ARM conditions are satisfied with?
    • 1. WoffW
    • 2. Gear handle - up
    • 3. Master Arm switch - ARM
    • 4. SIM - Unboxed
  83. TRUE/FALSE: If an engine is shut down before placing the BLEED AIR knob to OFF, the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve may not fully open, resulting in residual engine fumes in the cabin on subsequent start of that engine
  84. A loss of boost pressure downstream of the motive flow/boost pump sets the L or R ___ caution and opens the ___ valve, allowing output from the good motive flow/boost pump to supply fuel to the opposite engine at rates sufficient for MIL/MAX power
  85. Electrical power from the ___ is required to operate the fire detection and extinguishing systems. The systems can operate on ___ alone with the ___ switch ON
    28 vdc essential bus; battery power; BATT
  86. On takeoff, accelerating with the flaps switch in HALF, at what speed will the flaps begin AUTO scheduling?
    240 KCAS
  87. TRUE/FALSE: Removing the mask without placing the OXY flow knob to OFF can overwhelm the system capacity and  may result in an OBOGS DEGD caution
  88. TRUE/FALSE: Automatic functioning of the BALD system may extinguish the L or R BLEED warning lights prior to aircrew recognition and may not trigger the appropriate voice alerts. In this case cycling the BLEED AIR knob to remove the L or R BLD OFF caution(s) may cause extensive damage and/or fire.
  89. The BRK ACCUM caution is displayed when the brake accumulator pressure drops below ___ PSI, indicating that approximately ___ full brake applications remain before the brake accumulator is empty
    2000 psi; 5 full brake applications
  90. TRUE/FALSE: A L/R AMAD PR caution indicates high AMAD oil pressure
  91. A blanking EFD before or during engine start may be an indication of:

    B) A low battery
  92. TRUE/FALSE: If the ANTI SKID switch is not placed to off with an ANTISKID caution displayed, normal braking will be lost
  93. TRUE/FALSE: At 25 degrees AOA and above, rudder pedal deflections no longer provide yaw control inputs but instead act entirely as a roll controller (identical to lateral stick inputs)
  94. An approximately ___ minute supply (depending on altitude) of gaseous oxygen is contained in a bottle in the seat survival kit. Oxygen duration increases/decreases with lower altitude. Flow is activated automatically upon ejection or manually by pulling the ___. Activation may/may not be deactivated at aircrew discretion by pushing down on the release tab to immediately forward of the green ring.
    10-20 minute; decreases; EMERGENCY OXYGEN GREEN RING; may
  95. TRUE/FALSE: When the wings are observed to be folded during preflight, ensure the ailerons are faired or outboard to avoid damage to the ailerons and TEFs
  96. Catapult with partially-full external fuel tank(s) (between ___ lbs and ___ lbs) may cause structural damage to the tanks, pylons, and/or airframe.
    between 100 lbs and 2700 lbs
  97. TRUE/FALSE: As mechanized, there is no hazard associated with multiple FCS reset attempts to regain an Xd surface following a hydraulic circuit failure
  98. If the arresting hook is unlocked (HOOK handle down) but fails to leave the up position, pulling the ___ de-energizes the hook selector valve and ensures HYD ___ pressure is removed
    HOOK circuit breaker; HYD 2B
  99. TRUE/FALSE: The FCS reset button does not fix a detected failure; it merely allows components to be restored and failure indications to be removed
  100. What cabin pressure is maintained between 8,000 and 24,500 feet aircraft altitude?
    8,000 ft
  101. Reduced Authority Thrust System (RATS) can be overridden by advancing the throttles to ___
    Full Afterburner (THA within 2 degrees of MAX stop)
  102. Depending on aircraft attitude and power setting, the fuel dump rate is about ___ pounds/minute
    1,300 lbs/min
  103. Failure of the power transmission shaft (PTS) results in the display of the associated ___ and both ___ circuit cautions.
  104. TRUE/FALSE: If a THERMAL caution is present in conjunction with a L/R FUEL HOT caution, the fuel management system engages to regulate fuel system temperatures
  105. At least ___ is required to maintain ___ rpm for a windmill air-start.
    350 KCAS; 12%
  106. TRUE/FALSE: Upon a successful arrestment, engine thrust will be automatically reduced to approximately 70% of MIL power using the Reduced Authority Thrust System (RATS)
  107. What are the two sources of over-speed cutout protection for the ATS?
    Corresponding generator and frequency sensing relay (FSR)
  108. TRUE/FALSE: The oil pressure indication on the EFD and the L/R OIL PR caution are both operated by the same transducer
  109. TRUE/FALSE: A FADEC reset should not be attempted inflight because any degrade in ENG status is most likely due to the failure of a mechanical component
  110. Never actuate the ___ inflight, as ejection would then be impossible and the aircrew would be unrestrained during landing
    Manual Override Handle
  111. TRUE/FALSE: The SEAWARS does not operate in freshwater
  112. Two hydraulic accumulators are provided in the ___ circuit: the ___ accumulator and the ___ accumulator
    HYD 2B; APU accumulator; BRAKE accumulator
  113. In the event of HYD 2 failure with emergency brakes selected, back-up hydraulic pressure for emergency braking is provided by the BRAKE/APU/BRAKE and APU accumulator(s)
    BRAKE and APU
  114. TRUE/FALSE: A FADEC OP GO inflight will be replaced by DEGD on landing rollout, when slowing below 80 KCAS
  115. TRUE/FALSE: In the event of a FADEC Channel control system failure the FADEC automatically selects the channel with a better capability
  116. For high altitude ejection, in the event of partial or total failure of the electronic sequencer, a barostatic release unit will deploy the parachute between ___ and ___ feet
    14,000 and 16,000 feet
  117. If a shutdown engine is crossbled airborne ___ the FIRE WARNING LT being depressed, the engine feed shutoff valve remains open/closed. The motive flow/boost pumps downstream of this valve provide adequate boost pressure to remove the ___ caution and subsequently open/close the crossfeed valve. Additionally, motive flow pressure is reintroduced to the shutdown side of the fuel system, which opens/closes the feed tank interconnect valve. These two valves' actions allow/prevent the transfer of fuel from the bad engine's feed tank.
    WITHOUT; open; BOOST LO; close; closes; prevent
  118. TRUE/FALSE: Above 1.23 IMN, it is normal for engine rpm to remain at MIL power levels even when the throttles are reduced below MIL
  119. TRUE/FALSE: The APU provides an alternate air source for the environmental control system (ECS)
  120. TRUE/FALSE: With wings spread and locked, pressing and holding the nosewheel steering button will select the high mode and NWS HI is displayed on the HUD
  121. Ignition (both main engine and afterburner) is commanded during what 4 conditions?
    • 1. N2 RPM between 10% and 45% during engine start
    • 2. Flameout occurs
    • 3. Throttle is advanced to AB, remaining on until AB light off is sensed
    • 4. Any wing pylon mounted A/A or forward firing A/G weapon is launched. Ignition remains on for 5 seconds.
  122. If the pilot wants to have maximum "g" available during a turning maneuver (e.g., the merge), Mach in the HUD should be less than ___ (with wing tanks or A/G stores) or ___ (clean or with A/A stores) to keep out of the g-bucket
    0.905 M; 0.94 M
  123. TRUE/FALSE: The canopy can be jettisoned closed, open, or in any intermediate position
  124. What two ways can you stop any BIT test in progress and return the equipment to normal operation?
    • 1. Pressing the STOP button
    • 2. Pressing the MENU button
  125. If a ___ caution is set with a valid oil pressure readout, actual engine oil pressure is below scheduled limits. If the cockpit readout is zero with no caution set, the oil pressure ___ has failed and the pressure switch is inhibiting the caution
    L/R OIL PRESS; transducer
  126. What two things happen when the APU FIRE light is pressed?
    • 1. FIRE EXTGH Arms
    • 2. Fuel to APU is secured
  127. If thunderstorm penetration is unavoidable, fly at optimum cruise airspeed but not less than ___ if above 35,000 feet MSL
    250 KCAS
  128. How can aircrew operate the dry bay fire suppression (DBFS) system?
    The DBFS system is totally automatic and requires no aircrew action
  129. TRUE/FALSE: Aircraft shall be free of ice, snow, slush, or frost prior to takeoff
  130. TRUE/FALSE: When failed, the NWS system reverts to a 360 degree free-swiveling mode
  131. External fuel is transferred by ___
    regulated engine bleed air pressure
  132. TRUE/FALSE: The fire detection and extinguishing systems can operate on battery power alone with the BATT switch ON
  133. If an APU fire or overheat condition is detected on the ground, the APU fire extinguishing automatically shuts the APU down and, after ___ seconds, discharges the extinguisher bottle
    10 seconds
  134. TRUE/FALSE: When the throttle is at or above IDLE, the FADEC transfers control to the other channel only if the requested channel's health is no worse than the channel in control
  135. TRUE/FALSE: If an AV AIR HOT caution cannot be cleared with the ECS MODE switch in AUTO, maintenance action is required
  136. TRUE/FALSE: Emergency oxygen flow cannot be stopped once the green handle is pulled
  137. List the seven cockpit circuit breakers
    • 1. Launch Bar
    • 2. Hook
    • 3. Landing Gear
    • 4. FCS CH 1
    • 5. FCS CH 2
    • 6. FCS CH 3
    • 7. FCS CH 4
  138. What occurs when the unlighted MASTER CAUTION light is pressed?
    It stacks the cautions (The uncorrected caution and advisory displays to reposition to the left and to a lower level, provided there is available space vacated by a corrected caution and advisory displays)
  139. Under less than optimal conditions, as few as ___ of emergency oxygen may be available
    3 minutes
  140. When the generator comes online at ___ N2 rpm, it removes power from the ATSCV and the FSR, which releases the ENGINE CRANK switch.
  141. The exterior lights master switch is located on the outboard side of the ___ grip
    Left Throttle
  142. What is the military and afterburner thrust of the F414-GE-400 engine?
    • MIL: 13,900
    • MAX AB: 20,700
  143. Putting the PROBE switch to EXTEND extends the inflight refueling probe, energizes the probe light, and ___ all internal and external tanks
  144. The total internal fuel (JP-5) is ___ lbs.
    13,970 lbs
  145. TRUE/FALSE: The emergency oxygen supply is activated automatically upon ejection
  146. TRUE/FALSE: When activated, the emergency jettison system jettisons all stores (2-10), launchers, and racks
  147. RATS logic, resident in ___, declares a successful arrestment and sends a signal to the FADECs, which reduce thrust to approximately ___ of MIL power
    MC1; 70%
Card Set
VAQ-133 NATOPS Unit Eval Study
VAQ-133 NATOPS Unit Eval Study Bank