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  1. What are the objectives of periodontal pocket elimination?
    Remove diseased tissue and assist the client in daily plaque control
  2. (T/F) Coincidental curettage is a deliberate procedure performed separately from scaling and root planing.
    False
  3. The most common oral site for donor tissue for free gingival graft procedures is the
    palate
  4. Following gingival curettage, healing begins with
    blood clot formation
  5. What is the advantage of silk braided sutures?
    They are easy to manipulate
  6. Gingival curettage is performed using all EXCEPT which of the following?
    Placing the cutting edge on the tooth/root surface
  7. Incidental (inadvertent) gingival curettage removes which of the following?
    Sulcular epithelium
  8. A clinician performs gingival curettage for a patient. Histologically, the patient's gingival tissues are most likely to exhibit which of the following?
    Long rete pegs
  9. The purpose of placing sutures after periodontal flap surgery is to
    • 1. Hold the soft tissue in place
    • 2. Maintain the blood clot
    • 3. Protect the wound
    • 4. Prevent food impaction into the wound area
  10. Regenerative periodontal surgical procedures
    selectively encourage the growth of cells of the attachment apparatus
  11. When is a gingivectomy primarily used?
    When there is an adequate zone of attached gingiva
  12. What situation would be an indication for a gingivectomy?
    A fibrotic area of free gingiva that covers part of the occlusal of #31
  13. When does a mucogingival problem exist?
    The base of the pocket extends apically to the mucogingival junction
  14. (T/F) Periodontal surgery is most successful when pocket depths are between 5mm and 9mm deep because indications for periodontal surgery are more affected by measurements of the clinical attachment loss than by those of pocket depths.
    The statement is CORRECT, but the reason is NOT.
  15. The purpose of deliberate gingival curettage is to remove
    chronically inflamed granulation tissue
  16. Which of the following procedures is necessary before performing gingival curettage?
    All of the procedures are necessary prior to performing gingival curettage.

    (scaling and root planing, sharpening instruments, periodontal probing, determining the need for anesthetic)
  17. The types of periodontal surgery that increases the predictability for growth of new tissues for the periodontal apparatus are called procedures for
    guided tissue regeneration
  18. The types of periodontal surgery in which the periodontist shapes the alveolar bone with chisels or burs to remove bony defects are called procedures for
    treatment of osseous defects
  19. Gingival curettage serves to accomplish each of the following except one. Which of the following is the EXCEPTION?
    Reduce fibrotic tissue
  20. Which situation would be an indication for regenerative periodontal surgery?
    an infrobony pocket of 6mm on the vital aspect of tooth #30
  21. To remove light calculus covering implant abutments,
    plastic, nylon, graphite, or titanium instruments (scares/curettes) are the instruments of choice
  22. (T/F) The location of an implant influences its success fate. Smoking may affect the success of an implant.
    Both statements are TRUE
  23. Investigations comparing peri-implant soft tissues with the periodontal tissues surrounding the natural tooth indicate that the peri-implant soft tissues have
    impaired defense because of the lower fibroblast content
  24. What is placed in the bone and can be a blade-shaped or a root-form implant?
    Endosseus
  25. What is used only in the mandibular arch to anchor the prosthesis; no direct bone anchorage is provided.
    Transosteal
  26. What custom cast framework is placed beneath the periosteum. This implant can be used in both maxillary and mandibular arches.
    Subperiosteal
  27. It is known that the highest risk exposure category for children in the United States is which of the following?
    Mother with or at risk for HIV infection
  28. The interface or biologic seal found around an implant is created by the formation of a long junctional epithelium that is attached to the implant surface by
    hemidesmosomes
  29. Diabetes is a systemic disease affecting which of the following metabolic processes or conditions?
    Carbohydrate metabolism
  30. Type 2 diabetes is characterized by
    increased cellular non responsiveness to insulin
  31. The term "loading" refers to which aspect of implant therapy?
    a placement of abutments and restorations on implants for function
  32. Type I diabetes is usually
    insulin dependent and early onset
  33. All of the following are potential risks associated with having dental implant except for one. Which of the following is the exception?
    Client may have a decreased bone resorption
  34. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the Human Immunodefiency Virus (HIV)?
    Risk of acquiring HIV infection from providing dental hygiene care to infected individuals is extremely high.
  35. Acute HIV infection occurs usually within about 2 weeks of exposure and is characterized by which of the following conditions?
    All answers are correct.

    (Lymphadenopathy, headache, rash, fever)
  36. All of the following are possible contraindications for patients considering implants except one. Which contraindication is the exception?
    Adults over 60 years of age
  37. What is the major cause of failure in most joint prosthesis replacements?
    infection
  38. (T/F) Data suggest that uncontrolled diabetes increases the risk for periodontal infections. A controlled-diabetic has the same predisposition for periodontal disease as a healthy individual.
    Both statements are TRUE
  39. Severe attachment loss is often associated with all of the following diseases except one. Which of the following is the exception?
    hyperparathyroidism
  40. Mrs. Jones is seated in the dental chair for supportive periodontal therapy. The dentist has written in her chart that her implant failed because of a hole in the buccal or labial play of the alveolar process. The hole in the bone is known as which of the following?
    Dehiscence
  41. All of the following oral hygiene tools can be used safely for home care of the dental implant except one. Which one is the exception?
    proxy brushes with metal wire
  42. Why are systemic factors important in the pathogenesis of periodontal disease?
    Systemic factors can intensify the response of the periodontium to local factors
  43. (T/F) The initial treatment during the first appointment for a patient with NUP includes thorough and complete debridement of all plaque, calculus and debris.
    False
  44. A flap of tissue covering, or partly covering an erupting tooth is called
    operculum
  45. Which of the following descriptions best characterizes orthofunction?
    Adaptive capacity of the orofacial complex
  46. (T/F) Pain from a periapical abscess is usually characterized as sharp, severe, intermittent, and difficult to localize. Pain from a periodontal access is usually constant, localized and less severe.
    Both statements are TRUE
  47. What is the term for an abscess that is found on the marginal gingiva and is not involved in the deeper periodontium?
    Gingival abscess
  48. All of the following are diagnostic of occlusal trauma except for one. Which of the following is the exception?
    Increased loss of attachment
  49. (T/F) Occlusal trauma without periodontal disease present will cause loss of attachment.
    True
  50. A periapical abscess that is  draining can resemble which of the following?
    acute periodontal abscess
  51. Radiographic indicators of occlusal trauma include
    All answers are correct

    (widened PDL space, root resorption, bone loss)
  52. The term for heavy occlusal forces that have caused injury to tissues and bone in a normal periodontium is called
    primary traumatic occlusion
  53. The temporomandibular joint is the articulation of the junction of the
    temporal bone and mandible
  54. The etiology of temporomandibular disorder is described as
    multifactoral
  55. Which of the following factors contributes to the development of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
    smoking and stress
  56. An acute periodontal abscess can occur as the result of all of the following except for one. Which is the exception?
    Antibiotic usage
  57. (T/F) Acute pericoronitis usually occurs around erupting third molars.
    True
  58. Which of the following is NOT a sign of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
    fibrosis
  59. The normal jaw should achieve an opening distance of at least
    40mm
  60. Each of the following usually results from parafunctional occlusal habits except one. Which one is the exception?
    periodontal pockets
  61. Centric relation is
    the position of the upper to the lower jaw
  62. A patient with deep infra bony pockets and furcation involvement is scheduled for root planing. What emergency has the most potential to occur after the first scaling appointment?
    acute periodontal abscess
  63. Uses bone from another person (cadaver bone)
    Allograft
  64. Provides root coverage
    subepithelial connective tissue graft
  65. Indicated for drug-induced gingival hyperplasia
    gingivectomy
  66. Donor site is typically the palate
    free autogenous gingival graft
  67. Uses donor bone from the patient
    Autograft
  68. Acellular Dermis Graft
    Alloderm
  69. What is the term for a periodontal bone graft that is made from bovine or porcine bone material?
    xenograft
  70. The function of a barrier membrane during guided tissue regeneration (GTR) procedure is to
    exclude epithelium
  71. Donor tissue accessed from adjacent tooth or papilla
    Lateral pedicle graft
  72. Uses synthetic bone materials
    Alloplast
  73. The soft tissue crevice around an implant is lined with
    sulcular epithelium
  74. What structure is absent in the soft tissue surrounding an implant?
    Periodontal ligament
  75. The destructive inflammatory response around an implant is ________ that around a tooth.
    greater than
  76. What is the most effective way to remove plaque from the undersurface of a non removable hybrid denture?
    All of the above.

    (interdental brush, floss, end tuft brush)
  77. Instrument selection is based on:
    The component needing debridement
  78. Which instrument is the most appropriate when heavy calculus on the abutment is present and access is difficult?
    • Not sure...
    • either hoe graphite or implacare 4R/4L
  79. The ultrasonic insert with plastic sheath should be used on a titanium abutment surface with:
    low power
  80. What is the instrument of choice on an exposed coated implant fixture with heavy calculus?
    Graphite reinforced curette
  81. What is the instrument of choice when an exposed machine-threaded implant fixture has only plaque and soft debris?
    Plastic instrument
  82. The most rigid plastic instruments are reinforced with the following:
    Graphite
  83. The microflora in the acute periodontal abscess is predominantly
    gram negative and anaerobic
  84. The periodontal abscess is characterized by all of the following symptoms except one. Which is the exception?
    bleeding
  85. An acute periodontal abscess can occur as the result of all of the following except one. Which is the exception?
    antibiotic use
  86. Which disease may have oral characteristics similar to those found in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?
    leukemia
  87. What is the term for an abscess that is found on marginal gingival and is not involved in the deeper periodontium?
    gingival abscess
  88. What is the term for an abscess that is the result of a pulpal infection from caries or trauma?
    periapical abscess
  89. A perioapical abscess that is draining can resemble which of the following?
    acute periodontal abscess
  90. (T/F) A periapical abscess must be treated as soon as possible BECAUSE infection from this lesion could be life-threatening.
    Both the statement and the reasons are correct.
  91. An intraoral examination of the gingiva reveals a clinical picture of punched-out papillae. The patient complains of pain and a bad taste. The history indicates that the patient's diet is poor, he has been under stress and he has had little rest. The course of action would be to
    apply a therapeutic course and debride the mouth, recommend hydrogen peroxide mouthiness and possibly systemic antibiotics
  92. Which disease is highly infectious?
    acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
  93. What is the term for an abscess that is associated with partially erupted teeth?
    pericoronitis
  94. Which of the following condition is not found in cases of ANUG or NUP?
    presence of vesicles
  95. Which of the following clinical findings should be taken into consideration when determining the differentiation between an acute periodical abscess and a periodontal abscess?
    All of the above

    (probing depths, history of gingivitis, extensive caries, radiographs, recession, and tooth vitality testing)
  96. An otherwise health patient has an oral abscess. Which of the following symptoms necessitates instituting antibiotic therapy?
    fever
  97. Which of the following bacteria are characteristically associated with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
    fusiforms and spirochetes
  98. Which of the following alterations in papillary contour is a sign of previous infection with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
    cratering
  99. A tooth is extremely sensitive to percussion and feels "high" during mastication. Likely causes include
    • occlusal trauma
    • periapical abscess
    • periodontal abscess
    • vertical root fracture
  100. The types of periodontal surgery that increase the predictability for growth of new tissues of the periodontal apparatus are called procedures for
    creating new attachment
  101. (T/F) Drug induced hyperplasia is most likely best treated surgically by gingivectomy. Gingivectomy is an incisional form of periodontal surgery.
    There first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE.
  102. The following forms of periodontal surgery are examples of incisional surgery EXCEPT.
    gingivoplasty
  103. Indications for root amputation include all of the following EXCEPT
    unfavorable dental anatomy that precludes creation of a form that the patient can keep clean
  104. A hemisection refers to a
    resection or spitting in half of a mandibular molar
  105. Gingivectomy procedures are indicated in the following situations EXCEPT
    in the reduction of infra bony pockets and pockets extending to or beyond the mucogingival junction
  106. When there is an inadequate zone of attached gingiva present, the treatment of choice is
    free gingival graft
  107. When root coverage is needed, it may be best obtained by a
    connective tissue graft
  108. Which of the following osseous defects could be expected to have the best chance for osseous regeneration in periodontal regenerative procedures?
    Three bony walls
  109. The most common cause of prolonged root sensitivity following periodontal surgical procedures is
    bacterial biofilm
  110. Subsequent to root debridement and closure of the gingival flap with sutures, which cells are the first to migrate apically and effect wound closure?
    epithelial cells
  111. Subsequent to surgical treatment of an infra bony defect, progenitor cells from the periodontal ligament (PDL) compete with epithelial cells and bone-forming cells to close the wound. If epithelial cells win the "race," what type of attachment results?
    a long junctional epithelium
  112. Exclusion of cells other than progenitor cells from the PDL allows these cells to enter the wound and differentiate into
    both a and b are correct

    fibroblasts which produce a PDL attachment to the previously diseased root surface and cementocytes which procedure cementum covering the previously diseased root surface
  113. (T/F) An internal beveled incision is used in most flap procedures to remove the pocket epithelium, epithelial attachment, and a portion of the inflamed connective tissue.
    True
  114. (T/F) A gingivectomy removes the epithelial attachment whereas a gingivoplasty does not.
    True
  115. (T/F) The periodontal flap procedure is used in the treatment of periodontal pockets that extend to or beyond the mucogingival junction and infabony pockets.
    True
  116. (T/F) In osseous regeneration, the infrabony pocket is eliminated by the regeneration of lost alveolar bone rather than by removing the bone that is creating the defect.
    True
  117. (T/F) Osteoplasty refers to the process of recontouring alveolar bone that is not directly supporting the tooth.
    True
  118. (T/F) The primary objective of the Modified Widman Flap procedure is not pocket elimination per se, but maximum healing of periodontal pockets with minimum loss of tissues.
    True
  119. (T/F) The primary objective of osseous surgery is pocket elimination so there is better access for the client and therapist to maintain the treated areas.
    True
  120. (T/F) Open flap curettage, along with regenerative procedures work best in advanced bone loss cases.
    True
  121. (T/F) Esthetics and root sensitivity are not a problem in periodontal flap procedures.
    False
  122. (T/F) The goal of gaining access and visibility for debridement of the pocket may provide a better rationale for surgery than pocket elimination.
    True
  123. (T/F) Guided tisse regeneration (GTR) is most predictable when connective tissue is excluded from the wound area in order to allow epithelium to migrate apically and seal off the osseous graft material placed in the osseous defect.
    False
  124. (T/F) Guided tissue regeneration is the most predictable with Class II furcation defects in mandibular molars.
    True
  125. (T/F) Goretex is a resorbable material used in GTR which does not need to be removed.
    False
  126. (T/F) Free gingival grafts are the treatment of choice for obtaining root coverage.
    False
  127. (T/F) The periodontal ligament and bone are important sources of cells in guided tissue regeneration in order to obtain wound healing.
    True
  128. (T/F) Free gingival grafting is the treatment of choice to establish a zone of attached gingiva in order to prevent recession when root coverage is not the primary goal.
    True
  129. (T/F) Horizontal bone loss responds well to guided tissue regeneration procedures.
    False
  130. (T/F) Class III furactions are less predictable with GTR than class II furcations.
    True
  131. (T/F) Maintenance of space under the GTR barrier membrane is critical to the success and predictability in wound healing.
    True
  132. (T/F) In advanced periodontal disease, osteotomy has limited applicability.
    True
  133. (T/F) One major difference between a chronic and an acute periodontal abscess is pain.
    True
  134. (T/F) All plural problems have symptoms.
    False
  135. (T/F) In most circumstances where there is an endo/perio problem, the periodontal treatment is started first.
    False
  136. (T/F) Periodontitis cannot cause a plural infection.
    False
  137. (T/F) As periodontitis advances apically, there becomes an increasingly greater chance of pulpal inflammation by way of lateral or accessory canals.
    True
  138. (T/F) With a combine endodontic/periodontal infection, it may be difficult to diagnose which created the main defect/pathology; the endo or the period problem
    True
  139. (T/F) Regeneration of the alveolar bone and PDL cannot be accomplished on an endodontic tooth.
    False
  140. Gingival enlargement is a common side effect of
    calcium channel blockers
  141. A differential diagnosis of generalized destruction of alveolar bone in a 6 year old child would include all of the following except one. Which of the following is the exception?
    Cystic Fibrosis
  142. Tobacco is a strong risk factor for all except which of the following conditions?
    gingival bleeding
  143. Why are systemic factors important in the pathogenesis of periodontal disease?
    Systemic factors can intensify the response of the periodontium to local factors
  144. The primary cause of inflammatory periodontal disease in diabetic patient is
    dental plaque biofilm
  145. Which of the following reflects our current state of knowledge on the connection between diabetes control and periodontal health?
    Periodontal infection or sever periodontitis has an adverse effect on glycemic control
  146. (T/F) If a HIV positive patient's viral load is 200,000 a medical consult is recommended.
    True
  147. The relationship between periodontal complications and diabetes is more difficult to establish in the elderly because
    the prevalence of both chronic periodontitis and diabetes increases with age
Author
dancincourt
ID
338632
Card Set
Over it
Description
no
Updated