271 study guide

  1. The types of periodontal surgery in which the periodontist shapes the alveolar bone with chisels or burs to remove bony defects are called procedures for 
    a. pocket reduction or elimination
    b. access to the root surface
    c. treatment of osseous defects
    d. correcting mucogingival defects
    e. creating new attachment
    treatment of osseous defects
  2. The types of periodontal surgery that increase the predeictability for growth of new tissues of the periodontal apparatus are called procedures for
    a. pocket reduction or elimination
    b. access to the root surface
    c. treatment of osseous defects
    d. correcting mucogingival defects
    e. creating new attachment
    creating new attachment
  3. periodontal surgery is most successful when pocket depths are between 5 mm and 9 mm deep because indications for periodontal surgery are more affected by measurements of clinical attachment loss than by those of pocket depths.

    a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
    b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related.
    c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
    d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
    e. NEITHER the statement nor the reason is correct.
    The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
  4. Drug induced gingival hyperplasia is most likely best treated surgically by gingivectomy. Gingivectomy is an incisional form of periodontal surgery. 

    a. Both statements are TRUE.
    b. Both statements are FALSE.
    c. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE.
    d. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
    The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE.
  5. Regenerative periodontal surgical procedures
    a. selectively encourage the growth of cells of the attachment apparatus.
    b. selectively encourage the growth of the cells of the epithelium of the closely approximated flaps.
    c. selectively discourage the growth of cells of the attachment apparatus.
    d. selectively discourage the growth of the cells of the epithelium on the surface of the excisional wound.
    selectively encourage the growth of cells of the attachment apparatus.
  6. The most common oral site for donor tissue for free gingival graft procedures is the
    a. palate
    b. buccal mucosa
    c. lingual mucosa
    d. tongue
    palate
  7. What is the term for a periodontal bone graft that is made from bovine or porcine bone material?
    a. allograft
    b. alloplast
    c. autograft
    d. xenograft
    xenograft
  8. The following forms of periodontal surgery are examples of incisional surgery EXCEPT
    regeneration surgery.
    a. regeneration surgery
    b. gingivoplasty
    c. mucogingival surgery
    d. pocket reduction surgery
    gingivoplasty
  9. Indications for root amputation include all of the following EXCEPT
    a. isolated severe bone loss on one root of a multi-rooted tooth.
    b. root proximity between adjacent multi-rooted teeth or a single-rooted tooth and a multi-rooted tooth.
    c. unfavorable dental anatomy that precludes creation of a form that the patient can keep clean.
    d. deep class II and/or a class III furcation.
    unfavorable dental anatomy that precludes creation of a form that the patient can keep clean.
  10. A hemisection refers to a
    a. partial thickness (mucosal) flap
    b. full thickness (mucoperiosteal) flap
    c. resection or splitting in half of a mandibular molar
    d. maxillary root removal
    resection or splitting in half of a mandibular molar
  11. Gingivectomy procedures are indicated in the following situations EXCEPT
    a. deep gingival pockets (suprabony) that are formed by enlarged fibrotic tissue.
    b. deep suprabony pockets that have an adequate zone of attached gingiva.
    c. in the reduction of infrabony pockets and pockets extending to or beyond the mucogingival junction.
    d. None of the above.
    in the reduction of infrabony pockets and pockets extending to or beyond the mucogingival junction.
  12. When there is an inadequate zone of attached gingiva present, the treatment of choice is
    a. an apically positioned flap
    b. gingivoplasty
    c. free gingival graft
    d. double papillae graft
    free gingival graft
  13. When root coverage is needed, it may be best obtained by a
    a. free gingival graft
    b. connective tissue graft
    c. gingivectomy
    d. apically positioned flap
    connective tissue graft
  14. Which of the following osseous defects could be expected to have the best chance for osseous regeneration in periodontal regenerative procedures?
    a. One bony wall
    b. Two bony walls
    c. Three bony walls
    d. All would be expected to have an equal chance for regeneration.
    Three bony walls
  15. The most common cause of prolonged root sensitivity following periodontal surgical procedures is
    a. traumatic occlusion
    b. bacterial plaque biofilm
    c. calculus
    d. None of the above
    bacterial plaque biofilm
  16. The function of a barrier membrane used during a Guided Tissue Regeneration (GTR) procedure is to
    a. exclude epithelium.
    b. facilitate plaque biofilm retention.
    c. reduce post-operative pain.
    d. None of the above.
    exclude epithelium.
  17. Subsequent to root debridement and closure of a gingival flap with sutures, which cells are the first to migrate apically and effect wound closure?
    a. Fibroblasts
    b. Epithelial cells
    c. Osteocytes
    d. None of the above
    Epithelial cells
  18. Subsequent to surgical treatment of an infrabony defect, progenitor cells from the periodontal ligament (PDL) compete with epithelial cells and bone-forming cells to close the wound. If epithelial cells win the “race”, what type of attachment results?
    a. A long junctional epithelium
    b. Regeneration of the PDL
    c. A fibroblast adherence
    d. None of the above
    Regeneration of the PDL
  19. Exclusion of cells other than progenitor cells from the PDL allows these cells to enter the wound and differentiate into
    a. fibroblasts which produce a PDL attachment to the previously diseased root surface.
    b. cementocytes which produce cementum covering the previously diseased root surface.
    c. Both a and b are correct.
    d. None of the above.
    Both a and b are correct.
  20. What is the advantage of silk braided sutures?
    They are easy to manipulate
  21. They types of periodontal surgery in which the periodontist shape the alveolar bone with chisels or burs to remove cony defects are called procedures for
    treatment of osseous defects
  22. Which of the following procedures is necessary before performing gingival curettage?
    Sharpening instruments, periodontal probing, determining the need for anesthetic, scaling and root plaining
  23. When does a mucogingival problem exist?
    The base of the pocket extends apically to the mucogingival junction
  24. Which situation would be an indication for regenerative periodontal surgery?
    An infrabony pocket of 6 mm on the distal aspect of tooth #30
  25. A clinician performs gingival curettage for a patient. Histologically, the patient’s gingival tissues are most likely to exhibit which of the following?
    Long rete pegs
  26. What situation would be an indication for gingivectomy?
    A fibrotic area of free gingiva that covers part of the occlusal of #31
  27. The purpose of deliberate gingival curettage is to remove
    Chronically inflamed granulation tissue
  28. What are the objectives of periodontal pocket elimination?
    Remove diseased tissue and assist the client in daily plaque control
  29. The purpose of placing sutures after periodontal flap surgery is to
    Hold the soft tissue in place, maintain the blood clot, protect the wound, and prevent food impaction into the wound area
  30. Gingival curettage serves to accomplish each of the following except?
    Reduce fibrotic tissue
  31. Following gingival curettage, healing begins with
    Blood clot formation
  32. Gingival curettage is performed using all except
    Placing the cutting edge on the tooth/root surface
  33. Regenerative periodontal surgical procedures
    Selectively encourage the growth of cells of the attachment apparatus
  34. Periodontal surgery is most successful when pocket depths are between 5 mm and 9 mm deep because indications for periodontal surgery are more affected by measurements of the clinical attachment loss than by those of pocket depths. T/F?
    The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
  35. The types of periodontal surgery that increases the predictability for rowth of new tissues for the periodontal apparatus are called procedures for
    Guided tissue regeneration
  36. Incidental (inadvertent) gingival curettage removes which of the following?
    Sulcular epithelium
  37. Coincidental curettage is a deliberate procedure performed separately from scaling and root planing. T/F?
    False
  38. When is a gingivectomy primarily used?
    When there is an adequate zone of attached ginigva
  39. Gingival enlargement is a common side effect of
    a. Nitroglycerin
    b. corticosteroids
    c. local anesthetics
    d. endogenous epinephrine
    e. calcium channel blockers
    calcium channel blockers
  40. A differential diagnosis of generalized destruction of alveolar bone in a 6-year old child would include all of the following except one. Which of the following is the exception?
    a. Prepubertal periodontitis (periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease)  
    b.Cystic Fibrosis  
    c. Down Syndrome  
    d. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
    Cystic Fibrosis
  41. Tobacco is a strong risk factor for all except which of the following conditions?
    a. Periodontal Diseases  
    b.Tooth Loss  
    c. Oral Cancer  
    d. Gingival Bleeding
    Gingival Bleeding
  42. Severe attachment loss is often associated with all of the following diseases except one. Which of the following is the exception?
    a. cyclic neutropenia  
    b.uncontrolled diabetes  
    c. hypophosphatasia  
    d. hyperparathyroidism
    hyperparathyroidism
  43. Why are systemic factors important in the pathogenesis of periodontal disease?
    a. Healthy individuals have little to no periodontal disease.  
    b.Periodontal diseases most frequently are caused by systemic diseases.  
    c. If systemic factors are addressed, periodontal disease can be eliminated. d. Systemic factors usually determine the pattern of bone loss.  
    e. Systemic factors can intensify the response of the periodontium to local factors.
    Systemic factors can intensify the response of the periodontium to local factors.
  44. The primary cause of inflammatory periodontal disease in diabetic patients is
    a. hypoglycemia.  
    b.hyperglycemia.  
    c. dental plaque biofilm.  
    d. defective neutrophils.
    dental plaque biofilm.
  45. Which of the following reflects our current state of knowledge on the connection between diabetes control and periodontal health
    a. Periodontal infection or severe periodontitis has an adverse effect on glycemic control.
    b.There is universal conclusion that periodontal treatment will result in improved glycemic control.  
    c. Diabetes mellitus does not modify any form of periodontitis.  
    d. There is a specific diabetes-mellitus form of periodontitis under the list of systemic diseases in the AAP Periodontal Classification of Periodontal Diseases.
    Periodontal infection or severe periodontitis has an adverse effect on glycemic control.
  46. Generally the 'normal' numeric range for fasting blood sugars is 80-120. Consistent fasting reading greater than 150 may indicate the patient is a diabetic and follow up with a physician is recommended. T/F?
    True
  47. If a HIV positive patient's viral load is 200,000 a medical consult is recommended. T/F?
    True
  48. The relationship between periodontal complications and diabetes is more difficult to establish in the elderly because
    a. elderly people neglect to go to dentists.
    b.they as a rule take more medications, making the diagnosis more difficult.  
    c. the prevalence of both chronic periodontitis and diabetes increases with age.  
    d. not enough research or clinical trials have been conducted on the subject.
    the prevalence of both chronic periodontitis and diabetes increases with age.
  49. A pt taking phenytoin develops drug-induced hyperplasia. The gingival tissues extend 4-6 mm coronal to the cementoenamel junction and the radiographic survey does not indicate osseous loss. The pockets noted during a clinical examination of this patient are probably:
    a. Subcrestal
    b. Infrabony/vertical bone loss
    c. Horizontal bone loss
    d. No answers are correct bc there is no osseous loss
    No answers are correct bc there is no osseous loss
  50. Custom cast framework is placed beneath the periosteum. This implant can be used in both maxillary and mandibular arches
    subperiosteal
  51. Is used only in the mandibular arch to anchor the prosthesis; no direct bone anchorage is provided
    transosteal
  52. Is placed in the bone and can be a blade-shaped or a root-form implant
    endosseous
  53. Type 2 diabetes is characterized by
    a. Presence of white matter lesions in the brain
    b. Increased cellular nonresponsiveness to insulin
    c. Autoimmue destruction of pancreatic islet cells
    d. Occurrence in adolescents and young adults
    Increased cellular nonresponsiveness to insulin
  54. To remove light calculus covering implant abutments
    a. Scale with a sonic instrument bc it has a lower frequency than the ultrasonic instrument
    b. Polishing with a coarse, abrasive paste is all that is needed
    c. Plastic, nylon, graphite, or titanium instrumnets (scalers/curettes) are the instruments of choice
    d. Scale with high carbon steel instruments using very light pressure
    Plastic, nylon, graphite, or titanium instrumnets (scalers/curettes) are the instruments of choice
  55. The crestal bone around a healthy implant is located approximately how far from the top of the implant fixture when viewed on radiographic images?
    a. 0.1- 0.5 mm
    b. 2- 4 mm
    c. 0.5- 1 mm
    d. 0.5- 3 mm
    0.5- 3 mm
  56. All of the following oral hygiene tools can be used safely for home care of the dental implant except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Rubber tip stimulator
    b. Floss, yarn, or gauze
    c. Proxy brushes with a metal wire
    d. Brushes, such as interproximal and single-tufted
    Proxy brushes with a metal wire
  57. The most common shape for implants is
    a. Hexagonal
    b. Peg-shaped and hollow
    c. Blade shaped
    d. Cylindrical
    Cylindrical
  58. In a dental implant, what functional tissue entity is created that adapts to the titanium abutment?
    a. Biologic seal (aka the perimucosal seal)
    b. Chemical seal
    c. Titanium seal
    d. Osseointegration seal
    Biologic seal (aka the perimucosal seal)
  59. Gingival enlargement is a common side effect of
    a. Corticosteroids
    b. Endogenous epinephrine
    c. Local anesthetics
    d. Calcium channel blockers
    e. Nitroglycerin
    Calcium channel blockers
  60. The term “loading” refers to which aspect of implant therapy?
    a. Placement of abutments and restorations on implants for function
    b. Placement of the implant into the bone
    c. Bulk of the bone at the implant site
    d. Size and shape of the implant
    Placement of abutments and restorations on implants for function
  61. The interface or biologic seal found around an implant is created by the formation of a long junctional epithelium that is attached to the implant surface by
    a. hemidesmosomes
    b. osteoblasts
    c. connective tissue
    d. glycosaminoglycans
    hemidesmosomes
  62. A clear resin device containing holes used by the oral and maxillofacial surgeon (or periodontitist) to maintain the angulation and the axis for drilling the bone and for placement of the fixture is called a/an:
    a. implant guide
    b. surgical guide stent
    c. superstructure guide
    d. bone guide
    surgical guide stent
  63. Type I diabetes is usually
    a. insulin dependent and early onset
    b. non-insulin dependent associated with obesity
    c. early onset and associated with obesity
    d. non-insulin dependent and early onset
    insulin dependent and early onset
  64. Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)?
    a. H2O2 mouth rinses are contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals
    b. HIV infection is a disease that severly suppresses the host’s immune response
    c. Risk of acquiring HIV infection from providing dental hygiene care to infected individuals is extremely high
    d. Most periodontal disease in HIV-positive individuals is indistinguishable from disease patterns seen in HIV-negative clients.
    Risk of acquiring HIV infection from providing dental hygiene care to infected individuals is extremely high
  65. Data suggests that uncontrolled diabetes increases the risk for periodontal infections. A controlled-diabetic has the same predisposition for periodontal diseases as a healthy individual.
    a. Both statements are FALSE.
    b. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE.
    c. Both statements are TRUE.
    d. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
    Both statements are TRUE.
  66. HIV can be transmitted by all of the following except one. Which one is the expetion?
    a. Non-sterilized dental instruments
    b. Sharing contaminated needles
    c. Unprotected sexual contact
    d. Aerosols from sneezing
    e. Blood from infected mothers to newborns
    Aerosols from sneezing
  67. During the examination of a pt, you notice mobility of a two-stage implant. Percussion of the implant does not cause discomfort to the pt. Gentle probing yields 4-5 mm probing depths, consistent with baseline records. The tissue has normal contour and color and there is no bleeding or suppuration on probing. Radiographic exam shows no peri-implnat radiolucency or crestal bone loss. Clinical observations indicate
    a. A loose abutment
    b. The implant is failing
    c. Excessive occlusal forces
    d. Signs of peri-implantitis
    A loose abutment
  68. Acute HIV infection occurs usually within about 2 weeks of exposure and is characterized by which of the following conditions
    a. fever
    b. headache
    c. lymphadenopathy
    d. all answers are correct
    e. rash
    all answers are correct
  69. When occlusal trauma is reversed from a tooth without disease, the bone will return to its original height. T/F?
    True
  70. Each of the following usually results form parafunctional occlusal habits except one. Which is the exception?
    a. Wear facets
    b. Mobile teeth
    c. Periodontal pockets
    d. Uneven wear patterns
    Periodontal pockets
  71. Which of the following descriptions best characterizes orthofunction?
    a. Ordinary masticatory forces
    b. Few or no occlusal interferences
    c. Adaptive capacity of the orofacial complex
    d. Proper arch form in a Class I occlusal relationship
    Adaptive capacity of the orofacial complex
  72. Radiographic indicators of occlusal trauma include
    a. Widened PDL space
    b. bone loss
    c. root resorption
    d. All of the above
    All of the above
  73. Loss of tooth structure in the cervical area may result from all of the following except one. Which is the exception?
    a. Erosion
    b. Abfraction
    c. Attrition
    d. Abrasion
    Attrition
  74. Occlusal trauma without periodontal disease present can cause bone loss. T/F?
    True
  75. The etiology of temporomandibular disorders is described as
    a. Behavioral
    b. Neurologic
    c. Psychologic
    d. Multifactorial
    Multifactorial
  76. What are the four primary symptoms of temporomandibular disorders?
    a. Muscle pain, muscle swelling, jaw pain, and dyskinesia.
    b. Muscle pain, clicking, headache, and uncomfortable bite.
    c. Muscle pain, jaw pain, clicking, and limited motion.
    d. Muscle pain, jaw pain, dyskinesia, and limited motion.
    Muscle pain, jaw pain, clicking, and limited motion.
  77. Myalgia is best described as
    a. Pain in the muscle
    b. Clicking in the joint
    c. Crepitus in the joint
    d. Incoordination of the jaw
    Pain in the muscle
  78. The temporomandibular joint is the articulation of the junction of the
    a. Temporal and zygomatic bones
    b. Temporal bone and mandible
    c. Temporal bone and temporalis
    d. Mandible and masseter
    Temporal bone and mandible
  79. Acute periocoronitis usually occurs around erupting third molars. T/F?
    True
  80. The initial phase of therapy for acute periocoronitis should include thorough curettage or surgical procedures. T/F?
    False
  81. The initial treatment during the first appointment for a client with Necrotizing Ulcerative Periodontitis includes thorough and complete debridement of all plaque biofilm, calculus and debris (complete scaling and root planing procedures). T/F?
    False
  82. One major difference between a chronic and an acute periodontal abscess is pain. T/F?
    True
  83. All pulpal problems have symptoms. T/F?
    False
  84. In most circumstances where there is an endo/perio problem, the periodontal tx is started first. T/F?
    False
  85. Periodontitis cannot cause a pulpal problem. T/F?
    False
  86. As periodontitis advances apically, there becomes an increasingly greater chance of pulpal inflammation by way of lateral or accessory canals. T/F?
    True
  87. With a combined endodontic/periodontal infection, it may be difficult to diagnose which created the main defect/pathology; the endo or the perio problem. T/F?
    True
  88. Regeneration of the alveolar bone and PDL cannot be accomplished on an endodontic tooth. T/F?
    False
  89. A vitalometer used on a multi-rooted tooth may provide a false response if there is vitality in one root and not another. T/F?
    True
  90. The symptoms of a tooth with cracked tooth syndrome generally include a dull, lingering, throbbing sensation with no apparent stimuli. T/F?
    False
  91. The treatment intervention for a tooth presenting with cracked tooth syndrome is to place a crown. T/F?
    True
  92. The diagnostic test best used on a tooth presenting with pulpitis is a tooth slooth. T/F?
    False
  93. A tooth slooth is particularly effective in detecting caries. T/F?
    False
  94. The microflora in the acute periodontal abscess is predominantly
    a. gram-negative and anaerobic
    b. gram-positive and aerobic
    c. gram-negative and aerobic
    d. gram-positive and anaerobic
    gram-negative and anaerobic
  95. The periodontal abscess is characterized by all of the following symptoms except one. Which is the exception?
    a. bleeding
    b. pain
    c. swelling
    d. tenderness
    bleeding
  96. An acute periodontal abscess can occur as the result of all of the following except one. Which is the exception?
    a. dental procedures
    b. a popcorn hull or berry seed
    c. subgingival scaling
    d. antibiotic use
    antibiotic use
  97. Which disease may have oral characteristics similar to those found in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?
    a. primary herpes
    b. mononucleosis
    c. leukemia
    d. nonthrombocytopenia
    e. secondary herpes
    leukemia
  98. What is the term for an abscess that is found on marginal gingival and is not involved in the deeper periodontium?
    a. acute periodontal abscess
    b. chronic periodontal abscess
    c. gingival abscess
    d. periapical abscess
    e. pericoronitis
    gingival abscess
  99. What is the term for an abscess that is the result of a pulpal infection from caries or trauma?
    a. acute periodontal abscess
    b. chronic periodontal abscess
    c. gingival abscess
    d. periapical abscess
    e. pericoronitis
    periapical abscess
  100. A periapical abscess that is draining can resemble which of the following?
    a. acute periodontal abscess
    b. allergic reaction
    c. pericoronitis
    d. linear gingival erythema
    acute periodontal abscess
  101. A periapical abscess must be treated as soon as possible BECAUSE infection from this lesion could be life-threatening.
    a. both the statement and the reasons are correct
    b. both the statement and the reasons are correct but NOT related
    c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
    d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
    e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
    both the statement and the reasons are correct
  102. An intraoral examination of the gingiva reveals a clinical picture of punched-out papillae. The patient complains of pain and a bad taste. The history indicates that the patient’s diet is poor, he has been under stress and he has had little rest. The course of action would be to
    a. perform culture and laboratory studies
    b. apply a therapeutic course and debride the mouth, recommend hydrogen peroxide mouthrinse and possibly systemic antibiotics
    c. immediately refer the patient to a periodontist
    d. perform periodontal therapy, including extensive root planing and stain removal           
    e. send the patient for a complete blood cell count
    apply a therapeutic course and debride the mouth, recommend hydrogen peroxide mouthrinse and possibly systemic antibiotics
  103. Pain from a periapical abscess is usually characterized as sharp, severe, intermittent and difficult to localize. Pain from a periodontal abscess is usually constant, localized and less severe.
    a. both statements are TRUE
    b. both statements are FALSE
    c. the first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
    d. the first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE
    both statements are TRUE
  104. Which disease is highly infectious?
    a. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
    b. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
    c. acute periodontal abscess
    d. periapical abscess
    e. pericoronitis
    acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
  105. What is the term for an abscess that is associated with partially erupted teeth?
    a. acute periodontal abscess
    b. chronic periodontal abscess
    c. gingival abscess
    d. periapical abscess
    e. pericoronitis
    pericoronitis
  106. A flap of tissue covering, or partially covering, an erupting tooth is called a/an
    a. col      
    b. operculum
    c. fistula
    d. gingival flap
    operculum
  107. Which of the following conditions is not found in cases of ANUG or NUP?
    a. swollen lymph nodes
    b. presence of vesicles
    c. presence of pseudomembrane
    d. sore, bleeding gums
    w. fetid odor
    presence of vesicles
  108. Which of the following clinical findings should be taken into consideration when determining the differentiation between an acute periapical abscess and a periodontal abscess?
      1. probing depths
      2. history of gingivitis
      3. extensive caries
      4. radiographs
      5. recession
      6. tooth vitality testing
    a. 1, 2, 3 and 5
    b. 1, 3, 4 and 5
    c. 1, 3, 4 and 6
    d. all of the above
    all of the above
  109. An otherwise healthy patient has an oral abscess. Which of the following symptoms necessitates instituting antibiotic therapy?
    a. fever
    b. erythema
    c. swelling
    d. local pain
    fever
  110. Which of the following bacteria are characteristically associated with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
    a. cocci and chains
    b. filaments and rods
    c. fusiforms and spirochetes
    d. gram-positive bacteria
    fusiforms and spirochetes
  111. A patient with deep infrabony pockets and furcation involvement is scheduled for root planing. What emergency has the most potential to occur after the first scaling appointment?
    a. cellulitis
    b. pericoronitis
    c. herpes labialis
    d. acute pulpitis
    e. acute periodontal abscess
    acute periodontal abscess
  112. Which of the following alterations in papillary contour is a sign of previous infection with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
    a. edema
    b. atrophy
    c. cratering
    d. recession        
    e. enlargement
    cratering
  113. A tooth is extremely sensitive to percussion and feels “high” during mastication. Likely causes include
      1. sarcoma
      2. ankylosis
      3. occlusal trauma
      4. periapical abscess
      5. periodontal abscess
      6. vertical root fracture
    a. 1, 2 and 4
    b. 1, 2 and 5
    c. 2, 4 and 6
    d. 3, 4 and 5
    e. 3, 5 and 6
    f. 3, 4, 5 and 6
    3, 4, 5 and 6
  114. Which of the following is not a sign of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
    a. pain
    b. odor
    c. fibrosis
    d. sloughing of tissue
    spontaneous bleeding
    fibrosis
  115. Which of the following factors contribute to the development of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
      1. stress
      2. smoking
      3. pregnancy      
      4. drug idiosyncrasy            
    a. 2, 3, and 4
    b. 1, 3 and 4
    c. 1, 2, and 4
    d. 1 and 2
    e. 1 and 3
    f. 1 and 4
    1 and 2
  116. All the following are diagnostic of occlusal trauma except for
    Increased loss of attachment
  117. Centric relation is
    The position of the upper to the lower jaw
  118. The normal jaw should achieve an opening distance of at least
    40 mm
  119. The etiology of TMD is believed to be caused by which of the following?
    No absolute etiologic factor has been proven to be responsible for TMD
  120. Occlusal trauma without perio disease present will cause loss of attachment T/F?
    False
  121. All of the following muscles are used during mouth closure except
    Lateral (external) pterygoid
  122. What is the term for an abcess that is the result of a pulpal infection from caries or trauma?
    Periapical abscess
Author
mroberts
ID
338630
Card Set
271 study guide
Description
271 study guide
Updated