the new last test

  1. What are the elements in a cordon and search operation?
    Command, securtity, search/ assualt, and support
  2. What does engagement criteria do?
    • A It tells Marines what to fire, when to fire, and why.X
    • B It tells Marines when to disengage.
    • C It tells Marines how to engage.
    • D It tells Marines to get engaged.
  3. Which of the following is a mission typically assigned top the reserve
    Reinforce remain effort success
  4. The United States is party to the so-called _______________, which accords a neutralized and protected status to historic monuments, museums, scientific, artistic, educational, and cultural institutions in the event of war.
    • A Geneva Convention.
    • B Hauge Convention.
    • C Roetich Pact.x
    • D Wilson Pact.
  5. What are the priorities of work in the Defense?
    • A Security, Automatic Weapons, Fields of fire, Entrapment, Supplementary positions, obstacles, and Camouflage.
    • B Security, Automatic Weapons, Fields of fire, Entrenchment, Secondary positions, obstacles, and Camouflage.
    • C Security, Automatic Weapons, Fields of fire, Entrenchment, Supplementary positions, obstacles, and Cover.
    • D Security, Automatic Weapons, Fields of fire, Entrenchment, Supplementary positions, obstacles, and Camouflage.X
  6. From the list below, select the definition of an intelligence requirement (IR).
    • A A question about the enemy and the environment, the answers to which a commander requires to make sound decisions.x
    • B A six-step process by which information is converted into intelligence and made available to users.
    • C An item of information which reflects the intention or capability of a potential enemy to adopt or reject a course of action.
    • D Those intelligence requirements for which a commander has an anticipated and stated priority in the task of planning and decision making.
  7. What are the 10 fundamentals of the defense?
    Manuver, preparation, mass and concentration, flexibility use of terrain, mutual support, defense in depth, knowledge of enemy, and surprise , local securtity
  8. What are the three purposes for the law of land warfare?
    • A Protecting combatants and noncombatants; safeguarding human rights of prisoners of war, the wounded and sick, and civilians; and facilitating the restoration of peace. X
    • B Protecting combatants; safeguarding human rights of prisoners of war; and facilitating the restoration of hostilities.
    • C Protecting noncombatants; safeguarding human rights of the wounded and sick, and civilians; and safeguarding the restoration of peace.
    • D Protecting combatants and noncombatants; safeguarding civilians; and facilitating the restoration of hostilities.
  9. Which of the following NOT are consideration for a covert patrol base?
    Positioned to allow grazing fire.
  10. What is the purpose of an objective rally point?
    • A A location where patrol makes initial preparation prior to approaching the objective.
    • B A location within friendly lines where a patrol can rally if it becomes separated.
    • C A location where a patrol makes final preparation prior to approaching the objective.x
    • D A location within enemy lines where a patrol can rally if it becomes separated.
  11. Which element is responsible for isolating the objective within a target area during a cordon and search operation?
    • A Headquarters element.
    • B Security element.x
    • C Search element.
    • D Assault element.
  12. Which of the following is a key insight of MOUT?
    • A Armor operating inside a built up area must operate alone.
    • B Isolation of an urban defender ultimately ensures his defeat.x
    • C Intelligence is unnecessary to success in urban warfare.
    • D Maneuver warfare doctrine does not apply to a MOUT environment.
  13. What search is conducted by the designated search team without the aid of a family member or worker?
    • A Host nation only search.
    • B U.S. only search. x
    • C Informant assisted search.
    • D Police assisted search.
  14. What capabilities does an engineer unit provide in the defense?
    Survivability, mobility and counter mobility
  15. What are the classifications of patrols in regards to mission?
    • A Combat and reconnaissance.x
    • B Raid and reconnaissance.
    • C Route, area, and zone.
    • D Contact and economy of force.
  16. From the list below, identify what is a non-organic attachment.
    • A Motor-T mechanic.
    • B Messman.
    • C Law enforcement professional.x
    • D Medical officer.
  17. What are the maneuver considerations when dealing with mechanized operations?
    • A Tanks lead, infantry mounted, and infantry dismounted.x
    • B LAVs lead, infantry mounted, and infantry dismounted.
    • C Tanks lead, infantry mounted, and CAAT rear security.
    • D CAAT lead, infantry mounted, and infantry dismounted.
  18. When does the presence of protected persons render certain points or areas immune from military operations?
    • A Never.x
    • B When operations may affect the safety of protected persons.
    • C When operations may affect the property of protected persons.
    • D Both B and C.
  19. What are the three types of defensive operations?
    Mobile defense, area defense and retrograde
  20. What are the foremost limits of a series of areas in which ground combat units are deployed, excluding the areas in which covering or screening forces are operating?
    • A Security Area.
    • B Forward Edge of the Battle Area.x
    • C Limit of Advance.
    • D Forward Edge of the Command Area.
  21. Which of the following is the general organization of a combat patrol?
    Headquarters ambush support and security
  22. What is a location on the ground where the enemy comes within the effective range of a given weapon system?
    • A Kill Line.
    • B Trigger Line.x
    • C Escalation of Force Line.
    • D Max Effective Range.
  23. What type of defense is oriented on the destruction of the enemy through offensive action?
    • A Area.
    • B Mobile.x
    • C Position.
    • D Reverse slope.
  24. What are the four levels of urbanized terrain?
    • A Air level, subterranean level, roof top level, and street level.
    • B Alley level, subterranean level, building level, and street level.
    • C Air level, subterranean level, building level, and street level.x
    • D Air level, sewer level, building level, and street level.
  25. What is the Company task organization for elements of a defense?
    Main effort, supporting effort and reserve
  26. A prisoner of war is defined as a ________________________.
    • A Member of an armed forces of a party to the conflict as well as members of militias or volunteer corps forming part of such armed forces.
    • B Members of regular armed forces who profess allegiance to a government or an authority not recognized by the detaining power.
    • C Persons who accompany the armed forces without actually being members thereof, such as civilian members of military aircraft crews, war correspondents, or supply contractors.
    • D All of the above.x
  27. What are the three type of obstacles
    Tactical obstacles, protective obstacles, and situational obstacles
  28. What are the phases of an attack in an urban environment?
    • A Raid, isolate, gain a foothold, and seize.
    • B Recon, isolate, gain a foothold, and suppress.
    • C Raid, incorporate, gain a foothold, and seize.
    • D Recon, isolate, gain a foothold, and seize.x
  29. When should a sick or wounded member of the enemy population not receive needed medical attention from the opposing force?
    • A If their wounds or illness was not caused by the opposing force.
    • B If a member of the opposing force has a wound or illness more serious than the sick or wounded enemy.x
    • C If the sick or wounded person is determined to be a civilian noncombatant.
    • D If the sick or wounded person is determined to be a combatant militia member.
  30. What are intelligence gaps or information needs labeled formally?
    • A Intelligence requests.
    • B Intelligence characteristics.
    • C Intelligence reports.
    • D Intelligence requirements.x
  31. From the list below, select the definition of an intelligence indicator.
    • A The activities that reveal the intended threats/adversaries COA.X
    • B Geographical area wherein a commander is directly capable of influencing operations by maneuver or fire support systems normally under the commander's command and control.
    • C All information of importance to commanders and staffs in the exercise of command and control.
    • D A map showing the tactical or the administrative situation at a particular time.
  32. WHAT IS NOT A PURPOSE OF DEFENSE?
    To permit friendly forces to rest and refit
  33. The ________ occurs when there is not enough time or the enemy threat is too high to complete a thorough TSE.
    • A Tactical TSE.
    • B Hasty TSE.x
    • C Area TSE.
    • D Deliberate TSE.
  34. The _____________ method consists of an infantry attack to seize the obj while the tanks support the attack by fire?
    Support by fire
  35. From the list below, select the definition of a Priority Intelligence Requirement (PIR).
    • A Any subject, general or specific, upon which there is a need for the collection of information, or the production of intelligence.
    • B An intelligence requirement associated with a decision that will critically affect the overall success of the command's mission.
    • C A description of the indicators and activity expected to occur in each named area of interest.
    • D In intelligence usage, appraisal of an item of information in terms of credibility, reliability, pertinence, and accuracy.
  36. What is defined as "activities that reveal the intended threats/adversaries Course of Action (COA)?"
    • A Intelligence Requirement.
    • B Named Area of Interest.
    • C Priority Intelligence Requirement.
    • D Intelligence Indicator.X
Author
jcampos0311
ID
338622
Card Set
the new last test
Description
last one
Updated