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What are the elements in a cordon and search operation?
Command, securtity, search/ assualt, and support
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What does engagement criteria do?
- A It tells Marines what to fire, when to fire, and why.X
- B It tells Marines when to disengage.
- C It tells Marines how to engage.
- D It tells Marines to get engaged.
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Which of the following is a mission typically assigned top the reserve
Reinforce remain effort success
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The United States is party to the so-called _______________, which accords a neutralized and protected status to historic monuments, museums, scientific, artistic, educational, and cultural institutions in the event of war.
- A Geneva Convention.
- B Hauge Convention.
- C Roetich Pact.x
- D Wilson Pact.
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What are the priorities of work in the Defense?
- A Security, Automatic Weapons, Fields of fire, Entrapment, Supplementary positions, obstacles, and Camouflage.
- B Security, Automatic Weapons, Fields of fire, Entrenchment, Secondary positions, obstacles, and Camouflage.
- C Security, Automatic Weapons, Fields of fire, Entrenchment, Supplementary positions, obstacles, and Cover.
- D Security, Automatic Weapons, Fields of fire, Entrenchment, Supplementary positions, obstacles, and Camouflage.X
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From the list below, select the definition of an intelligence requirement (IR).
- A A question about the enemy and the environment, the answers to which a commander requires to make sound decisions.x
- B A six-step process by which information is converted into intelligence and made available to users.
- C An item of information which reflects the intention or capability of a potential enemy to adopt or reject a course of action.
- D Those intelligence requirements for which a commander has an anticipated and stated priority in the task of planning and decision making.
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What are the 10 fundamentals of the defense?
Manuver, preparation, mass and concentration, flexibility use of terrain, mutual support, defense in depth, knowledge of enemy, and surprise , local securtity
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What are the three purposes for the law of land warfare?
- A Protecting combatants and noncombatants; safeguarding human rights of prisoners of war, the wounded and sick, and civilians; and facilitating the restoration of peace. X
- B Protecting combatants; safeguarding human rights of prisoners of war; and facilitating the restoration of hostilities.
- C Protecting noncombatants; safeguarding human rights of the wounded and sick, and civilians; and safeguarding the restoration of peace.
- D Protecting combatants and noncombatants; safeguarding civilians; and facilitating the restoration of hostilities.
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Which of the following NOT are consideration for a covert patrol base?
Positioned to allow grazing fire.
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What is the purpose of an objective rally point?
- A A location where patrol makes initial preparation prior to approaching the objective.
- B A location within friendly lines where a patrol can rally if it becomes separated.
- C A location where a patrol makes final preparation prior to approaching the objective.x
- D A location within enemy lines where a patrol can rally if it becomes separated.
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Which element is responsible for isolating the objective within a target area during a cordon and search operation?
- A Headquarters element.
- B Security element.x
- C Search element.
- D Assault element.
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Which of the following is a key insight of MOUT?
- A Armor operating inside a built up area must operate alone.
- B Isolation of an urban defender ultimately ensures his defeat.x
- C Intelligence is unnecessary to success in urban warfare.
- D Maneuver warfare doctrine does not apply to a MOUT environment.
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What search is conducted by the designated search team without the aid of a family member or worker?
- A Host nation only search.
- B U.S. only search. x
- C Informant assisted search.
- D Police assisted search.
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What capabilities does an engineer unit provide in the defense?
Survivability, mobility and counter mobility
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What are the classifications of patrols in regards to mission?
- A Combat and reconnaissance.x
- B Raid and reconnaissance.
- C Route, area, and zone.
- D Contact and economy of force.
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From the list below, identify what is a non-organic attachment.
- A Motor-T mechanic.
- B Messman.
- C Law enforcement professional.x
- D Medical officer.
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What are the maneuver considerations when dealing with mechanized operations?
- A Tanks lead, infantry mounted, and infantry dismounted.x
- B LAVs lead, infantry mounted, and infantry dismounted.
- C Tanks lead, infantry mounted, and CAAT rear security.
- D CAAT lead, infantry mounted, and infantry dismounted.
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When does the presence of protected persons render certain points or areas immune from military operations?
- A Never.x
- B When operations may affect the safety of protected persons.
- C When operations may affect the property of protected persons.
- D Both B and C.
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What are the three types of defensive operations?
Mobile defense, area defense and retrograde
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What are the foremost limits of a series of areas in which ground combat units are deployed, excluding the areas in which covering or screening forces are operating?
- A Security Area.
- B Forward Edge of the Battle Area.x
- C Limit of Advance.
- D Forward Edge of the Command Area.
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Which of the following is the general organization of a combat patrol?
Headquarters ambush support and security
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What is a location on the ground where the enemy comes within the effective range of a given weapon system?
- A Kill Line.
- B Trigger Line.x
- C Escalation of Force Line.
- D Max Effective Range.
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What type of defense is oriented on the destruction of the enemy through offensive action?
- A Area.
- B Mobile.x
- C Position.
- D Reverse slope.
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What are the four levels of urbanized terrain?
- A Air level, subterranean level, roof top level, and street level.
- B Alley level, subterranean level, building level, and street level.
- C Air level, subterranean level, building level, and street level.x
- D Air level, sewer level, building level, and street level.
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What is the Company task organization for elements of a defense?
Main effort, supporting effort and reserve
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A prisoner of war is defined as a ________________________.
- A Member of an armed forces of a party to the conflict as well as members of militias or volunteer corps forming part of such armed forces.
- B Members of regular armed forces who profess allegiance to a government or an authority not recognized by the detaining power.
- C Persons who accompany the armed forces without actually being members thereof, such as civilian members of military aircraft crews, war correspondents, or supply contractors.
- D All of the above.x
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What are the three type of obstacles
Tactical obstacles, protective obstacles, and situational obstacles
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What are the phases of an attack in an urban environment?
- A Raid, isolate, gain a foothold, and seize.
- B Recon, isolate, gain a foothold, and suppress.
- C Raid, incorporate, gain a foothold, and seize.
- D Recon, isolate, gain a foothold, and seize.x
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When should a sick or wounded member of the enemy population not receive needed medical attention from the opposing force?
- A If their wounds or illness was not caused by the opposing force.
- B If a member of the opposing force has a wound or illness more serious than the sick or wounded enemy.x
- C If the sick or wounded person is determined to be a civilian noncombatant.
- D If the sick or wounded person is determined to be a combatant militia member.
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What are intelligence gaps or information needs labeled formally?
- A Intelligence requests.
- B Intelligence characteristics.
- C Intelligence reports.
- D Intelligence requirements.x
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From the list below, select the definition of an intelligence indicator.
- A The activities that reveal the intended threats/adversaries COA.X
- B Geographical area wherein a commander is directly capable of influencing operations by maneuver or fire support systems normally under the commander's command and control.
- C All information of importance to commanders and staffs in the exercise of command and control.
- D A map showing the tactical or the administrative situation at a particular time.
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WHAT IS NOT A PURPOSE OF DEFENSE?
To permit friendly forces to rest and refit
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The ________ occurs when there is not enough time or the enemy threat is too high to complete a thorough TSE.
- A Tactical TSE.
- B Hasty TSE.x
- C Area TSE.
- D Deliberate TSE.
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The _____________ method consists of an infantry attack to seize the obj while the tanks support the attack by fire?
Support by fire
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From the list below, select the definition of a Priority Intelligence Requirement (PIR).
- A Any subject, general or specific, upon which there is a need for the collection of information, or the production of intelligence.
- B An intelligence requirement associated with a decision that will critically affect the overall success of the command's mission.
- C A description of the indicators and activity expected to occur in each named area of interest.
- D In intelligence usage, appraisal of an item of information in terms of credibility, reliability, pertinence, and accuracy.
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What is defined as "activities that reveal the intended threats/adversaries Course of Action (COA)?"
- A Intelligence Requirement.
- B Named Area of Interest.
- C Priority Intelligence Requirement.
- D Intelligence Indicator.X
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