aa test

  1. What is a disadvantage of using a tank in anti-armor operations?
    • A The 120mm cannon can not penetrate MBT.
    • B The 120mm cannon has a slow rate of fire.
    • C It is easy to suppress with artillery fire.
    • D The width and weight restrict positioning options. X
  2. What is an advantage to anti-tank guided missiles?
    • A The gunner is protected from fire while engaging the enemy.
    • B ATGM possesses a high hit probability.X
    • C It is easy fired through vegetation.
    • D It has a faster rate of fire than a MBT.
  3. CLU Weight.
    12.77 LBS w/o battery
  4. What is a disadvantage of using a light anti-armor weapon?
    • A The gunner has to be within close proximity to the threat.X
    • B It is not man-portable.
    • C It has an extended exposure time to the gunner.
    • D None of the above.
  5. What are the methods of anti-armor engagement?
    • A Massed surprise fire and volley fires.
    • B Artillery, ATGM, and AT-4s.
    • C HAW-MAW-LAW, and massed surprise fires.X
    • D CAS, Javelin, and main battle tank.
  6. What are the weapons of HAW-MAW-LAW categorized by?
    • A Range.X
    • B Diameter of warhead.
    • C Weight of projectile.
    • D Maneuverability of system.
  7. The weight of Launcher w/Dual Mode Rocket.
    29.34 lbs
  8. What is a disadvantage of massed surprise fires?
    • A Leaves you vulnerable for counter-attack.
    • B Momentum of the enemy may still carry the force into friendly positions.X
    • C Produces less initial kills.
    • D Requires greater stand-off.
  9. A(n) __________ is a designated area along a likely avenue(s) of approach where the commander intends to destroy an enemy force through massed, converged fires.
    • A Engagement area.X
    • B Forward Edge of a Battle Area (FEBA).
    • C Phase line.
    • D Ambush position.
  10. The __________ is key to organizing an anti-armor defense.
    • A Forward Edge of a Battle Area (FEBA).
    • B Engagement area.  X
    • C Phase line.
    • D Ambush position.
  11. The __________ should be where enemy armored formations are vulnerable to anti-armor fires, such as open areas or choke points.
    • A Forward Edge of a Battle Area (FEBA).
    • B Phase line.
    • C Ambush position.
    • D Engagement area.X
  12. An engagement area is identified by __________.
    • A Prominent terrain features around the area or four phase lines.
    • B Four phase lines or a target reference point at the corners of the area.
    • C Prominent terrain features around the area or a target reference point at the corners of the area.X
    • D Prominent terrain features around the area or an objective area beyond the FEBA.
  13. What are the methods of delay?
    • A Successive positions, alternate positions.X
    • B Primary positions, alternate positions.
    • C Primary positions, supplementary positions.
    • D Successive positions, supplementary positions.
  14. The technique for delaying in which the entire delaying unit's forces are positioned in a single echelon is __________.
    • A Alternate positions.
    • B Primary positions.
    • C Successive positions.X
    • D Firing positions.
  15. The technique in which a unit delays in sector with sub-units deployed in depth is __________?
    • A Firing positions.
    • B Alternate positions.X
    • C Primary positions.
    • D Successive positions.
  16. What is the purpose of the Javelin weapon system?
    • A Short range bunker engagement.
    • B Short range armor vehicle engagement.
    • C Medium range armor vehicle engagement.X
    • D Long range bunker engagement.
  17. What is the magnification of the Javelin command launch unit daysight?
    • A 1.5X
    • B 2.5X
    • C 3X.
    • D 4X. X
  18. M98A2 Javelin command launch unit battery will discharge in about ______________ when used at temperatures above 120 degree Fahrenheit.
    • A 1 hour.
    • B 30 minutes.X
    • C 4 hours.
    • D 45 minutes.
  19. What is the magnification of a M98A2 Javelin command launch unit seeker?
    • A 2.5X
    • B 4X
    • C 6X
    • D 9X X
  20. What is the magnification of a M98A2 Javelin command launch unit night vision sight in wide field of view?
    • A 2.5X
    • B 4X X
    • C 4.2X
    • D 9.2X
  21. What is the magnification of a M98A2 Javelin command launch unit night vision sight in narrow field of view?
    • A 12X. X
    • B 4X.
    • C 4.2X.
    • D 9.2X.
  22. The M98A2 command launch unit is man portable, _____________, battery operated and is the gunner's interface with the round.
    • A Expendable.
    • B Reusable. X
    • C Disposable.
    • D Waterproof.
  23. When a round is connected, the M98A2 command launch unit provides ____________.
    • A Missile status indication.
    • B Missile program download.
    • C Launch control capabilities.
    • D All of the above. X
  24. The M98A2 command launch unit provides _______________.
    • A Passive day and night surveillance.
    • B Target detection, classification, and recognition.
    • C Command launch unit status.
    • D All of the above. X
  25. Which M98A2 command launch unit component is identified 9

    Image Upload 1
    • A Round interface connector.
    • B Absorber.
    • C Right handgrip controls.
    • D Round interface bracket. X
  26. Which M98A2 command launch unit component is identified by item number 13?


    Image Upload 2
    • A Fire trigger. X
    • B Battery compartment.
    • C Right handgrip controls.
    • D Round interface bracket.
  27. Which M98A2 command launch unit component is identified by item number 4?

    Image Upload 3
    • A Eyepiece.
    • B Absorber.
    • C Seeker trigger.
    • D Power switch. X
  28. Which M98A2 command launch unit component is identified by item number 3?

    Image Upload 4
    • A Eyepiece.
    • B Absorber.
    • C Seeker trigger. X
    • D Power switch.
  29. What is the minimum effective range for top attack mode?
    • A 55 meters.
    • B 65 meters.
    • C 95 meters.
    • D 150 meters. X
  30. What is the minimum effective range for direct attack mode?
    • A 55 meters.
    • B 65 meters. X
    • C 95 meters.
    • D 115 meters.
  31. What is the maximum effective range for top attack mode?
    • A 1500 meters.
    • B 2000 meters.
    • C 2250 meters.
    • D 2500 meters. X
  32. What is the maximum effective range for direct attack mode?
    • A 1500 meters.
    • B 2500 meters. X
    • C 2000 meters.
    • D 1750 meters.
  33. The M41 Saber heavy anti-armor weapon system is capable of firing ________.
    • A All current and future TOW missiles. X
    • B Only current TOW missiles.
    • C Both Javelin and TOW missiles.
    • D Only past and current TOW missiles.
  34. The magnification for the Direct View Optic on the M41 Saber heavy anti-armor weapon system in wide field of viewis________.
    • A 4X. X
    • B 12X.
    • C 9.2X.
    • D 24X.
  35. The magnification for the Direct View Optic on the M41 Saber heavy anti-armor weapon system in narrow field of view is________.
    • A 4X
    • B 12X                 X
    • C 9.2X
    • D 24X
  36. Which sight provides the 24x magnification?
    • A NVS in NFOV x2 zoom.              X
    • B DVO in NFOV x2 zoom.
    • C NVS in WFOV x2 zoom.
    • D DVO in WFOV x2 zoom.
  37. The M41 Saber heavy anti-armor weapon system PADS enables the operator to have _______ capabilities that provide a ten-digit grid position of the target.
    • A Approximate Target Location.
    • B Near Target Location.
    • C Target Location Discovery.
    • D Far Target Location. X
  38. What is the minimum number of satellites needed for Far Target Location?
    • A Four.
    • B Five. X
    • C Six.
    • D Seven.
  39. The Aided Target Tracker capability is only available in _____.
    • A Passive Ranging.
    • B DVO.
    • C LRF.
    • D NVS. X
  40. Image Upload 5
    • A Main housing.
    • B Sub housing.
    • C Traversing unit. X
    • D Main receiver.
  41. Image Upload 6
    • A Main housing.
    • B Sub housing.
    • C Traversing unit.
    • D PADS. X
  42. Image Upload 7
    • A Main housing.
    • B Fire control system. XC
    • C Vehicle power conditioner.
    • D PADS.
  43. Which two TOW missiles are capable of offset trajectory and line of sight operating modes?
    • A TOW-2A and TOW-2A Aero.
    • B TOW-2B and TOW-2B Aero. X
    • C ITOW and TOW BB.
    • D TOW-2A and TOW-2B.
  44. What is the maximum effective range of the BGM-71H TOW Bunker Buster.
    • A 3725 feet.
    • B 4200 meters.
    • C 4200 feet.
    • D 3750 meters. X
  45. What three places should be inspected for identification marking for the M41 SABER?
    • A Wooden over packing, shipping papers and launch container. X
    • B Plastic over packing, shipping papers and launch container.
    • C Wooden over packing, shipping crate and launch tube.
    • D Launch tube, missile and shipping container.
  46. Hot and cold anti-armor firing positions are used to _______________________.
    • A Maximize exposure of anti-armor weapons.
    • B Minimize exposure of anti-armor weapons. X
    • C Maintain security.
    • D Distribute fires.
  47. An anti-armor weapon will maintain two hot positions simultaneously?
    TRUE FALSE X
  48. What position is used to prepare for an engagement and offers cover and concealment from the enemy?
    • A Hot position.
    • B Cold position. X
    • C Primary position.
    • D Alternate position.
  49. Where does an armored vehicle typically have its heaviest armor?
    • A Front slopes. X
    • B Top.
    • C Rear and flanks.
    • D Bottom.
  50. Fires delivered at an armored target should always be aimed _________________ to increase probability of a hit.
    • A Low.
    • B High.
    • C Center mass. X
    • D With a slight lead.
  51. All armored vehicles are vulnerable to repeated attacks on the ___________ and rear.
    • A Front slopes.
    • B Flanks. X
    • C Front glacius plate.
    • D Bottom.
  52. _____________________ is the distance that a weapon's maximum effective range exceeds that of an opposing weapon's maximum effective range.
    • A Dispersion.
    • B Mutual support.
    • C Standoff range. X
    • D Standoff elevation.
  53. _____________________ is the most effective passive measure a commander can utilize to negate the effects of threat artillery.
    • A Dispersion. X
    • B Mutual support.
    • C Standoff range.
    • D Standoff elevation.
  54. A(n) __________________ is used for controlling the fires of more than one direct fire weapon or tactical unit into a sector. It may be used to distribute or converge fires.
    • A Engagement area.
    • B Phase line.
    • C Base of fire.
    • D Target reference point.X
  55. A(n) _____________________ is most effective against an enemy armor column and is least effective against an armor force deployed on line and assaulting directly toward the anti-armor weapons.
    • A Cross fire pattern.
    • B Parallel fire pattern.
    • C Depth fire pattern.
    • D Frontal fire pattern. X
  56. ______________________ is used when enemy vehicles are deployed on line and assaulting directly toward anti-armor weapons.
    • A Cross fire pattern. X
    • B Parallel fire pattern.
    • C Depth fire pattern.
    • D Frontal fire pattern.
  57. The _______________________ is employed when targets are exposed over a significant distance from front to back. One section engages the nearest targets while another engages the farthest targets.
    • A Cross fire pattern.
    • B Parallel fire pattern.
    • C Depth fire pattern. X
    • D Frontal fire pattern.
  58. The primary mission of an anti-armor unit is to ____.
    • A Delay attacking forces.
    • B Destroy Armor. X
    • C Attrite attacking forces.
    • D Destroy command and control forces.
  59. Destroying armor is the _________ mission of an anti-armor unit.
    • A Secondary.
    • B Tertiary.
    • C Primary. X
    • D Alternate.
  60. Engage armor vehicles corresponds to what anti-armor mission for an anti-armor unit?
    • A Primary. X
    • B Secondary.
    • C Tertiary.
    • D None of the above.
  61. The __________________ category denotes an enemy weapon that can engage, is engaging, or is preparing to engage a friendly asset.
    • A Most dangerous.X
    • B Dangerous.
    • C Least dangerous.
    • D Not dangerous.
  62. The _______________ category signifies an enemy weapon that could engage a friendly weapon but has not seen it yet.
    • A Most dangerous.
    • B Dangerous. X
    • C Least dangerous.
    • D Not dangerous.
  63. The _________________ category indicates an enemy weapon which cannot engage or not powerful enough to destroy a friendly weapon.
    • A Most dangerous.
    • B Dangerous.
    • C Least dangerous. X
    • D Not dangerous.
  64. Factors affecting displacement are?
    • A. Commander's intent, closing speed of the enemy, obstacles affecting enemy movement, distance to subsequent positions, paved MSR, availability of armor and infantry overwatch elements, and Visibility.
    • B. Commander's intent, closing speed of the enemy, obstacles affecting enemy movement, distance to subsequent positions, covered and concealed routes to subsequent positions, availability of armor and infantry overwatch elements, and Visibility. x
    • C. Commander's intent, battle formation of the enemy, obstacles affecting enemy movement, distance to subsequent positions, covered and concealed routes to subsequent positions, availability of armor and infantry overwatch elements, and Visibility. 
    • D. None of the above.
  65. Standoff distance is a consideration in displacement criteria?
    TRUEX FALSE
  66. Commander's intent, closing speed of the enemy, obstacles affecting enemy movement, distance to subsequent positions, covered and concealed routes to subsequent positions, availability of armor and infantry overwatch elements,and visibility are factors that play into anti-armor displacement criteria.
    TRUEX FALSE
  67. The concept of the _____________________ guides anti-armor weapon positioning.
    • A Defense.
    • B Raid.
    • C Ambush. X
    • D Withdrawal.
  68. What are the keys to anti-armor weapon positioning?
    • A Cover and concealment; immersion; mutual support; standoff elevation; and flank shots.
    • B Cover and concealment; immersion; mutual support; standoff range; and flank shots.
    • C Cover and concealment; dispersion; mutual support; standoff elevation; and flank shots.
    • D Cover and concealment; dispersion; mutual support; standoff range; and flank shots. X
  69. An ideal anti-armor firing position offers cover and concealment; immersion; mutual support; standoff elevation; and flank shots.
    TRUE FALSE X
  70. Military explosives should be _________ to manufacture and capable of being produced from readily available materials.
    • A Easy.
    • B Inexpensive. X
    • C Stable.
    • D Made.
  71. Where should military explosives be suitable for use?
    • A In lowlight conditions.
    • B Damp climates.
    • C Underwater.
    • D Both B and C. X
  72. Military-grade explosive should be constructed of _________?
    • A Readily available raw materials. X
    • B Organic materials.
    • C Nonorganic materials.
    • D Manufactured materials.
  73. What is the least sensitive military-grade explosive?
    • A RDX.
    • B TNT. X
    • C Ammonium Nitrate.
    • D Nitroglycerin.
  74. What is the most common military explosive?
    • A Composition 4.
    • B RDX.
    • C TNT. X
    • D PETN.
  75. Nitroglycerin is the explosive base for __________?
    • A Commercial dynamite.
    • B TNT.
    • C Composition B4.
    • D Composition C4. X
  76. TNT charges are effective for all types of demolition work except __________?
    • A Cratering charges.
    • B Water charges.
    • C Deception charges.
    • D Steel cutting charges. X
  77. What are the two types of protective fires used by armored units?
    • A Target and Variable Fires.
    • B Time and Varying Fires.
    • C Tactical and Vehicle Fires.
    • D Time and Vehicle Fires. X
  78. The Fire Support Plan supports the _____ and the ____ of the tanks to the maximum?
    • A Fire and Maneuver. X
    • B Fire and Movement.
    • C Fire and Mobility.
    • D Armor and Maneuver.
  79. When does the fire support plan provide for the maximum delivery of fires with armored units?
    • A When the infantry is active in the assembly area.
    • B When the infantry is active in the dismount area prior to the assault. X
    • C When the infantry is inactive in the dismount area.
    • D When the infantry is inactive during consolidation.
Author
jcampos0311
ID
338454
Card Set
aa test
Description
AA
Updated