110.4.2 AUTHORITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY

What is essential to the good working order of any organization?
A) delegation of authority
B) accountability
C) span of control
D) hierarchy of authority

116.3.4
Requests for peace officer personnel records are deemed confidential and shall not be made public or otherwise released to unauthorized individuals or entities without what?
A) permission of the civil service office
B) a directive issued by Human Resources
C) an order by the Chief
D)  a valid court order

200.2
Any complaint by a subject that an officer caused pain or injury, except complaints of minor discomfort from unresisted handcuffing, shall be treated as what?
A) a use of force
B) a crime
C) an investigable situation
D)  a response to resistance force incident.

200.2.2
An officer is justified in using reasonable force when the officer reasonably believes the use of such force is immediately necessary to accomplish any of the following, EXCEPT:
A) To make or assist in a detention or an arrest, or to conduct a search that the officer reasonably believes is lawful.
B) To make an arrest or conduct a search under a warrant that the officer reasonably believes is valid.
C) To conduct a search or frisk that the officer has reasonable suspicion to believe is valid and lawful.
D) To prevent or assist in preventing escape after an arrest, provided the officer reasonably believes the arrest or search is lawful.

200.4.2
A subject who exhibits extreme agitation, violent irrational behavior accompanied by profuse sweating, extraordinary strength beyond their physical characteristics and impervious to pain, or who requires a protracted physical encounter with multiple officers to be brought under control, may be at an increased risk of sudden death and should be examined by whom as soon as practicable
a) qualified medical personnel 
b) the jail medical staff prior to booking
c) emergency medical services
d) emergency room medical staff

200.4.3
An officer who restrains a patient to assist medical personnel is not required to report a Response to Resistance or notify their supervisor if the amount of force does not rise above the level of:
A) soft, empty hands techniques
B) pressure point techniques
C)  holding the patient down 
D) weaponless control techniques

202.3.1
Which of the following is not true of reporting a firearm discharge for the humane destruction of a seriously injured animal?
A)  Employees who need to destroy a seriously injured animal for humane reasons shall first request approval from a supervisor.
B) The incident report should detail the circumstances requiring the animal's destruction.
C) A supervisor shall respond to the scene prior to the firearm being discharged.
D) Employees shall complete an incident report entitled Injured Animal Firearm Used.

202.3.2
All of the following are the on-scene responsibilities of a supervisor who responds to the scene of a firearm discharge against a dangerous and threatening animal, EXCEPT:
A) Interview the involved officer(s) and place on administrative leave, if necessary
B) Ensure digital photographs are taken and downloaded into the Digital Crime Scene Management System
C)  Respond to the scene and conduct an on-scene investigation of the incident
D) Interview witnesses

202.4.2
Who has investigative responsibility for an unintentional firearm discharge while on duty and NOT at the range?
A) SIU
B) Internal Affairs
C) The employee's immediate supervisor
D) Learned Skills Unit Lieutenant

202.4.1
If an unintentional discharge occurs at the range, who will investigate the act?
A) SIU
B) IA
C) learned skills unit
D) the employee's chain of command

If an unintentional firearm discharge occurs while off duty and there are no injuries, who has investigative authority?
A) IA
B) the employee's immediate supervisor
C) learned skills supervisor
D) a designated on duty supervisor

206.4.3
Subjects who have been affected by the use of chemical agents should be afforded means of cleansing the affected areas as soon as practicable. Those subjects who complain of further severe effects shall be afforded a medical examination by whom?
A)  competent medical personnel.
B) jail medical staff.
C) emergency room medical staff.
D) EMS

208.4.1
Authorized personnel may use the TASER Device to subdue a subject who by words or action has demonstrated an intention to be violent or to physically resist and who reasonably appears to present the potential to harm officers, himself, or others.  Any of the following are also situations where an officer may use the Taser device, EXCEPT:
A) A violent or physically resisting subject.
B) There is reasonable expectation that it will be unsafe for officers to approach within contact range of the subject.
C)  To detain or arrest a passively resisting subject.
D)  Apprehend a subject fleeing lawful arrest or detention.

208.5
All individuals who have been subjected to the application of the TASER Device shall be evaluated by whom?
A) competent medical staff
B) emergency room staff
C) EMS
D) the jail nurse 

208.6
Employees who have not carried a TASER Device as a part of their assignment for what period of time shall be recertified by a department approved TASER Device instructor prior to again carrying or using the device?
A) 6 or more months
B) 18 or more months
C) 12 or more months
D) 24 or more months

211.2.2
Which of the following are Level 2 Force Incidents?
(1) Any strike to the head by an employee with any weaponless technique.
(2) Use of any impact weapons, including kinetic energy projectiles, and improvised weapons, to strike a subject and contact is made, regardless of injury.
(3) Any deployment of a police canine resulting in a bite to a subject's clothing or skin, or which results in any injury to a subject.
(4) Use of any impact weapon, including kinetic energy projectiles, and improvised weapons, that strikes the head of a subject.
(5) Any use of the Taser where the cartridge is fired at a subject and causes neuromuscular incapacitation.
(6) The utilization of the Precision Immobilization Technique, unless serious bodily injury or death occurs.
(7) Use of Oleoresin Capsicum or other chemical agent on a subject.
A) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
B) 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 7

211.3
If a supervisor receives a complaint receives a complaint concerning an R2R incident and make a determination based on objective evidence (e.g., MAV shows an allegation is false) that there is no credible evidence a violation of policy or law has occurred by the officer shall do what?
A) Complete a Complainant Contact Form and forward to the lieutenant.
B) Complete a Complainant Contact Form and forward it to IA.
C) Complete a Complainant Contact Form and keep the card in the officer's file for a period not less than 3 years.
D) Complete a Complainant Contact Form and forward to KXAN.

211.4.1
When documenting the use of OC spray in a report, other than documenting the number of bursts, all of the following information about the use of OC spray shall be included, EXCEPT?
A) the approximate distance from the subject
B) duration of each burst
C) the subject's level of compliance
D) the location of spray contact

211.5
In which of the following is a Corporal not permitted to conduct a Level 2 Incident inquiry?
A) when serving as acting sergeant or when the sergeant is not immediately available.
B) the involved employee is in their chain-of-command
C) when an officer from an adjoining sector is involved, provided the corporal's own employee was present on the scene as backup
D) when responding as the acting sergeant to an incident occurring in their sector involving a Department officer working an off-duty LERE position

211.8
Supervisors shall respond to any Level 3 Force incident resulting in injury or complaint of pain beyond the temporary discomfort of unresisted handcuffing.  Supervisors also shall respond to all of the following Level 3 Force incidents, EXCEPT:
A) When an officer actively trains his weapon on any person during the course of the incident.
B) Use of an impact weapon.
C) Use of a TASER Device. 
D)  Use of OC spray or other chemical agent on a subject.

211.8
Which of the following Level 3 incidents will be forwarded to the Force Review Board for their review?
A) the subject has a complaint of pain due to handcuffing.
B) involving weaponless strikes on a restrained subject
C) involving the use of OC
D) involving use of the Taser

214.3.1
Officers will not engage in a pursuit of a vehicle under any of the following circumstances, EXCEPT:
A) The subject has committed a misdemeanor offense and his identity is known to the officer.
B) The subject commits only a class C misdemeanor or any non-hazardous traffic violation.
C) The subject is suspected of DWI/DUI.
D) The road condition is wet and the subject has committed a felony.

214.4.4
All of the following are true of a supervisor who initiates a pursuit, EXCEPT:
A)  Corporals serving as acting sergeants may assume responsibility as the control supervisor in their assigned area in this situation.
B)  If a supervisor in the same area is unavailable, Communications shall notify the nearest available field supervisor.
C)  Acknowledgment by the appointed control supervisor must be made by radio.
D) A supervisor working in the same area should acknowledge the pursuit and assume responsibility as the control supervisor.

P211 initiates a valid pursuit of a vehicle in IDA sector.  Which of the following may serve as control supervisor?
A) P280
B) P290
C) P207, an FTO
D) I180, if Park supervisors are not available.

214.6.2
The following scenarios require supervisor approval prior to TDD deployment EXCEPT for:
A) The suspect's family threatens to sue the city for millions of dollars.
B) There is a reasonable belief that the suspect is armed 
C) The fleeing vehicle has made overt attempts to strike any structure during the pursuit
D) The fleeing vehicle has made overt attempts to strike any other vehicles or persons

214.6.3
Policy clearly indicates that PIT shall not be performed on the following vehicles, EXCEPT:
A) Vehicles pulling trailers.
B) All-Terrain Vehicle.
C) Motorcycles
D) School bus transporting children

214.6.4
All of the following are considerations before the use of a Low Speed Intervention, EXCEPT:
A) A low speed intervention would reduce or eliminate the risk associated with the pursuit continuing.
B) The police vehicle is maneuvering at low speed.
C) The vehicles are on a roadway and no other traffic is present.
D) The pursued vehicle is at a stop or near stop.

214.6.5
According to policy, the StarChase tag will not normally be deployed in the following situations unless the suspect poses a substantial risk to the public.  Which of the following is not mentioned in policy?
A) During heavy rain.
B) Suspect is on a motorcycle.
C) Suspect is operating an open-bed pickup truck with persons in the bed.
D) While driving on exceptionally rough terrain.

302.2
All of the following is true concerning Viewing/Listening to Evidence on a Camera or Recording Device, except:
A) In exigent circumstances, where there is reason to believe that an immediate search of the seized material is necessary to prevent death or injury, officers shall contact a supervisor for authorization to review photographs or recordings without a warrant.
B) Photographs or recordings that have been seized as evidence and are not directly related to the exigent purpose may be viewed if during the course of the investigation of one offense, the photographs or recordings alert officers to another offense.
C) Absent exigent circumstances, officers shall obtain a search warrant before viewing photographs or listening to recordings on a camera or memory chip that has been seized as evidence.
D) Officer may not erase or delete any recorded items on another's recording device.

303.2.1
All units responding to a scene shall not discontinue the recording with their department issued BWC equipment until the conclusion of the incident under all of the following circumstances, except:
A) Any call for service, irrespective of the nature of the call.
B)  Any consensual contact in which the officer or a citizen believes activation of the BWC would be in the best interest of the community.
C) Any non- confrontational encounter with a person, including an interview of a witness or victim.
D)  By the nature of the call for service, are likely to detain or arrest a person.

303.3
Which of the following is not correct concerning BWC operational procedures?
A)  Employees shall ensure that all BWC recordings are accurately classified and downloaded prior to the completion of their scheduled tour of duty, unless directed otherwise by their supervisor.
B)  Detectives are responsible for verifying the classification of recordings for assigned incidents within 30 days.
C) Officers are responsible for reclassifying recordings when necessary to ensure proper retention.
D) Employees using a BWC during LERE overtime are permitted to download and classify their recordings during their next regularly scheduled work day under most circumstances.

303.3.1 - 303.3.4
Which of the following statements is FALSE according to policy in regards to the BWC policy?
A) Sergeants will conduct quarterly inspections of their employees' BWC recordings to ensure they are complying with BWC policy.
B)  At a minimum all BWC recordnings shall be retained for 181 days.
C)  Employees utilizing their personally owned BWC systems shall adhere to this policy.
D) A notation shall be placed on the back of the records copy of any citation that was recorded on a BWC.

306.5
Which of the following is not accurate concerning consent searches?
A) Corporals and detectives may authorize a consent search in the absence of a sergeant.
B) Consent searches must be in plain view of those persons who have the authority to grant or revoke consent to the search.
C)  Officers who have completed the department's Interdiction for the Protection of Children (IPC) training do not require supervisor authorization when conducting an IPC investigation.
D) Consent must be obtained as a product of free will.