WEAPONS

  1. What is the weight of the M240B medium machinegun without tripod or pintle?
    • A 24.6 pounds.
    • B 26.4 pounds.
    • C 21.7 pounds.
    • D 27.1 pounds.X
  2. What is the rapid rate of fir for an M240B medium machinegun?
    • A 200 rounds per minute.X
    • B 100 rounds per minute.
    • C Less than 100 rounds per minute.
    • D More than 100 rounds per minute.
  3. What is the maximum effective range for a point target for the M240B medium machinegun while mounted on the M122 tripod?
    • A 1800 meters
    • B 1000 meters.
    • C 800 meters.X
    • D 1200 meters.
  4. What is the maximum effective range for an area target for the M240B medium machinegun while mounted on the M122 tripod?
    • A 1800 metersX
    • B 1000 meters.
    • C 800 meters.
    • D 1200 meters.
  5. What part of the M240B is identified by number 1?

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    • A Sear stop.
    • B Firing pin.
    • C Piston post.
    • D Operating rod.X
  6. What part of the M240B is identified by number 2?

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    • A Sear stop
    • B Firing pin.X
    • C Piston post.
    • D Operating rod.
  7. What part of the M240B is identified by number 3?
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    • A Sear stop.
    • B Firing pin.
    • C Piston post.X
    • D Operating rod.
  8. What are the different classifications of ammunition for the M240 medium machinegun?
    • A Tracer, ball, inert, dummy, and armor piercing.
    • B Tracer, dual purpose, blank, dummy, and armor piercing.
    • C Tracer, ball, blank, dummy, and saboted armor piercing.
    • D Tracer, ball, blank, dummy, and armor piercing.X
  9. Which type of ammunition is authorized for overhead fire?
    • A M62 Tracer, tip painted red.X
    • B M62 Tracer, tip painted orange.
    • C M63 Tracer, tip painted red.
    • D M63 Tracer, tip painted orange.
  10. The dummy cartridge is identified by what?
    • A Six drilled holes in the casing, no paint markings, and absence of a primer.
    • B Six flutings on the casing, tip painted blue, and absence of a primer.
    • C Six flutings on the casing, no paint markings, and absence of a primer.X
    • D Six drilled holes in the casing, tip painted blue, and absence of a primer.
  11. What is the sustained rate of fire for an M2 heavy machinegun?
    • A 60 rounds per minute.
    • B Less than 40 rounds per minute.X
    • C 100 rounds per minute.
    • D More than 40 rounds per minute.
  12. What is the maximum range of an M2 heavy machinegun in meters?
    • A 7400.
    • B 1830.
    • C 2000.
    • D 6767.X
  13. What is the maximum effective range for the M2 heavy machinegun in meters?
    • A 1829.X
    • B 2000.
    • C 1600.
    • D 7400.
  14. Which part of the M2 is identified by number 1?

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    • A Backplate latch.
    • B Buffer tube sleeve.
    • C Bolt latch release.X
    • D Trigger.
  15. Which part of the M2 is identified by number 2?Image Upload 5
    • A Backplate latch.X
    • B Buffer tube sleeve.
    • C Bolt latch release.
    • D Trigger.
  16. Which part of the M2 is identified by number 1?
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    • A Lock depressors.
    • B Buffer body spring lock.
    • C Buffer Body.
    • D Buffer accelerator.X
  17. Which part of the M2 is identified by number 2?

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    • A Lock depressors.X
    • B Buffer body spring lock.
    • C Buffer Body.
    • D Buffer accelerator.
  18. What ammunition is identified by an aluminum and red banded tip?
    • A Saboted Light Armor Penetrator Tracer.
    • B Armor Piercing Incendiary Tracer.X
    • C Ball plastic practice.
    • D Dummy round.
  19. What ammunition is used for live fire gunnery training on a limited range?
    • A Saboted Light Armor Penetrator Tracer.
    • B Armor Piercing Incendiary Tracer.
    • C Ball plastic practice.X
    • D Dummy round.
  20. What ammunition is used for non-live fire gunnery training and gun drills?
    • A Saboted Light Armor Penetrator Tracer.
    • B Armor Piercing Incendiary Tracer.
    • C Ball plastic practice.
    • D Dummy round.X
  21. What is the weight of an MK-19 machinegun?
    • A 77.6 pounds.X
    • B 76.5 pounds.
    • C 76.7 pounds.
    • D 44 punds.
  22. What is the cyclic rate of fire for an MK-19?
    • A 350 to 375 rounds per minute.
    • B 325 to 350 rounds per minute.
    • C 325 to 375 rounds per minuteX
    • D 400 to 425 rounds per minute.
  23. What is the maximum effective range for the MK-19 on a point target?
    • A 2412 meters.
    • B 2212 meters.
    • C 1600 meters
    • D 1500 metersX
  24. What is the maximum effective range for the MK-19 on an area target?
    • A 2412 meters.
    • B 2212 meters.X
    • C 1600 meters
    • D 1500 meters.
  25. Which part of the MK-19 is identified by number 1?

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    • A Primary drive lever.
    • B Charger assembly.X
    • C Vertical cam assembly.
    • D Ogive plunger
  26. Which part of the MK-19 is identified by number 2?

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    • A Primary drive lever.
    • B Charger assembly.
    • C Vertical cam assembly.X
    • D Ogive plunger
  27. Which part of the MK-19 is identified by number 3?

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    • A Primary drive lever.X
    • B Charger assembly.
    • C Vertical cam assembly.
    • D Ogive plunger
  28. Which Mk-19 round has an audible pop, puff of white smoke, and is used to duplicate the trajectory of the M430 HEDP round?
    • A M918 Practice round.X
    • B M385 Practice round.
    • C Dummy round.
    • D M383 HE round.
  29. Which Mk-19 round is used to penetrate up to 2 inches of homogenous steel?
    • A M918 Practice round.
    • B M385 Practice round.
    • C M430 HEDP round.X
    • D M383 HE round.
  30. The M383 HE round is identified by what markings?
    • A Yellow with an olive drab ogive and yellow markings.
    • B Blue with a yellow ogive and yellow markings.
    • C Olive drab with a red ogive and red markings.
    • D Olive drab with a yellow ogive and yellow markings.X
  31. What does the size and shape of the beaten zone depend on?
    • A Slope of ground and burst of fire.
    • B Range and vegetation.
    • C Range and slope of ground.X
    • D Burst and dead space.
  32. Which characteristic of fire is defined as the area in which the round will strike an average size man somewhere on his body?
    • A Danger space.X
    • B Dead space.
    • C Beaten zone.
    • D Cone of fire.
  33. Which characteristic of fire is defined as any area within a weapons maximum effective range that cannot be covered by fire due to terrain and obsticles?
    • A Danger space.
    • B Dead space.X
    • C Beaten zone.
    • D Cone of fire.
  34. What are the classes of fire with respect to the gun?
    • A Fixed, enfilade, searching, searching and traverse, swinging traverse, and plunging.
    • B Fixed, enfilade, searching, searching and traverse, swinging traverse, and free gun.
    • C Fixed, enfilade, searching, searching and traverse, swinging traverse, and grazing.
    • D Fixed, traversing, searching, searching and traverse, swinging traverse, and free gun.X
  35. What are the classes of fire with respect to the ground?
    • A Grazing fire and plunging fire.X
    • B Grazing fire and enfilade fire
    • C Final protective fire and plunging fire.
    • D Searching fire and grazing fire.
  36. What are the classes of fire with respect to the target?
    • A Fixed, searching, frontal, and oblique.
    • B Fixed, enfilade, frontal, and oblique.
    • C Frontal, flanking, oblique, and enfilade.X
    • D Frontal, flanking, traverse, and enfilade.
    • How is the M240 medium machinegun best employed?
    • A On a mount with a universal pintle adapter.
    • B On a tripod, on the ground, utilizing a T&E.X
    • C On a tripod, on the ground, utilizing a swing arm.
    • D On a mount, on the ground, utilizing a swing arm.
  37. When firing through vegetation, what considerations must be taken planned for?
    • A The M2 is effective through vegetation while the MK-19 may prematurely detonate.X
    • B The M2 is not very effective through vegetation while the MK-19 will clear fields of fire.
    • C The M2 is not very effective through vegetation while the MK-19 may prematurely detonate.
    • D The M2 is effective through vegetation and the MK-19 will clear fields of fire.
  38. What must be considered when engaging armored vehicles with a machinegun?
    • A The MK-19 HEDP round is effective against light armor.
    • B The M2 SLAP round is effective against light armor.
    • C The M2 is better suited to engage moving vehicles than the MK-19.
    • D All of the above.X
  39. What are the two types of fire commands for machineguns?
    • A Inventory and subsequent.
    • B Initial and subsequent.X
    • C Initial and corrective.
    • D Initial and secondary.
  40. What information is required as a minimum in an initial fire command?
    • A Alert, description, and direction.
    • B Direction, range, and control.
    • C Alert, range, and control.X
    • D Alert, direction, and range.
  41. In which element of a fire command does the leader prescribe the class of fire?
    • A Assignment/method.X
    • B Control.
    • C Command.
    • D Alert.
  42. When employing machineguns from vehicles, what will increase the survivability of the vehicle and crew?
    • A The gunner controls the emplacement of the vehicle due to his better visibility.
    • B The leader seeks firing positions that offer the most concealment.
    • C The leader ensures the crew does not dismount the vehicle.
    • D The leader seeks firing positions that offer the most cover for the vehicle and crew.X
  43. When massing machine gun fires, what must not be violated to achieve massed fires?
    • A Defilade, employed in pairs, and cover and concealment.
    • B Dispersion, employed in pairs, and cover and concealment.X
    • C Dispersion, enfilade fires, and cover and concealment.
    • D Dispersion, mutual support, and cover and concealment
  44. When using bounding machineguns by squads to protect the flanks of an advancing unit, what becomes a critical factor?
    • A The signal plan.
    • B Communications.
    • C The security of the machineguns.X
    • D The gunner's rule.
  45. What are the tactical classifications of machinegun fire delivered in offensive combat?
    • A Close, long range, flank protection, and consolidation.X
    • B Direct, indirect, flank protection, and consolidation.
    • C Close, long range, indirect, and consolidation.
    • D Close, long range, flank protection, and direct.
  46. Which type of fires are delivered against targets located beyond the hostile position opposing the advance of friendly forces?
    • A Consolidation fires.
    • B Close in fires.
    • C Indirect fires
    • D Long range fires.X
  47. Which type of fires are delivered against the hostile position opposing the advance of friendly forces?
    • A Consolidation fires.
    • B Close in fires.X
    • C Indirect fires.
    • D Long range fires.
  48. What is the most preferred method for employing M240 machineguns in support of an attack?
    • A As an individual gun.
    • B As a team.
    • C As a squad.
    • D As a section.X
  49. Which of the following characteristics make up a firing position?
    • A Direct fire without premature masking.X
    • B Natural reference points.
    • C Covered routes of withdraw.
    • D Natural lines of drift.
  50. What is the basic mission of machinegun units in the offense?
    • A Suppress the counter-attack.
    • B Destroy enemy fortifications by long range fires.
    • C Support the advance of the attacking rifle platoons by fire.X
    • D Cover the withdraw of forward units.
  51. Which criteria requires the machineguns to displace to a new location?
    • A The machineguns have started firing at the sustained rate.
    • B The supporting fires are masked by the maneuver unit.X
    • C The maneuver force is in the attack position.
    • D The maneuver force has crossed the LOD.
  52. What displacement instructions are issued to a machinegun unit?
    • A Method of engagement, objective, route, time or signal.
    • B Method of displacement, obstacles, route, time or signal.
    • C Method of engagement, objective, route, type.
    • D Method of displacement, objective, route, time or signal.X
  53. The next position for firing during displacement is called what?
    • A Alternate.
    • B Objective.X
    • C Supplementary.
    • D Rally point.
  54. What are the two methods for displacement?
    • A By unit or echelon.X
    • B By squad or platoon.
    • C By platoon or section.
    • D By unit or name.
  55. Which consideration would constitute displacement by unit?
    • A Upon crossing the LOD to continue supporting fires for flanks
    • B Before fires are masked, to continue supporting fires through the assault.
    • C Upon consolidation, to have machinegun support for the counterattack.X
    • D Upon crossing the LOD to continue supporting fires through the assault.
  56. Which consideration would constitute displacement by echelon?
    • A Upon crossing the LOD to continue supporting fires for flanks.
    • B Before fires are masked, to continue supporting fires through the assault.X
    • C Upon consolidation, to have machinegun support for the counterattack
    • D Upon crossing the LOD to continue supporting fires through the assault.
  57. Which principle of machinegun employment is applied to ensure that no area within a sector of fire goes uncovered?
    • A Coordination.
    • B Defilade.
    • C Economy.
    • D Interlocking fires.X
  58. Engaging targets with appropriate weapon systems, maximizing the effectiveness of machinegun ammunition, and conserving ammunition are characteristics of which principle of machinegun employment?
    • A Employ in pairs.
    • B Economy.X
    • C Mutual support.
    • D Protection.
  59. What are the eight principles of machinegun employment?
    • A Employ in pairs, interlocking fires, coordination of fires, mutual support, positioned in defilade,
    • enfilade fires, economy of rounds, and protection.X
    • B Employ in pairs, adjoining fires, coordination of fires, mutual support, positioned in defilade, enfilade
    • fires, economy of rounds, and protection.
    • C Employ in pairs, adjoining fires, independence of fires, mutual support, positioned in defilade, enfilade
    • fires, economy of rounds, and protection.
    • D Employ in pairs, interlocking fires, independence of fires, mutual support, positioned in defilade,
    • enfilade fires, economy of rounds, and protection.
  60. To ensure mutually supporting and interlocking fires, how far apart should a pair of machineguns by positioned?
    • A 25 meters.
    • B 30 meters.
    • C 35 meters.X
    • D 40 meters.
  61. What is the definition of a Final Protective Line (FPL)?
    • A Method of in-direct laying the gun for the purpose of placing a barrier of fire between friendly positions
    • and a close in enemy assault.
    • B Method of direct laying the gun for the purpose of placing a barrier of fire between primary positions
    • and alternate positions.
    • C Method of in-direct laying the gun for the purpose of placing a barrier of fire between primary positions
    • and alternate positions.
    • D Method of direct laying the gun for the purpose of placing a barrier of fire between friendly positions
    • and a close in enemy assault.X
  62. What type of fire is designed to produce flanking enfilade fire?
    • A Final Protective Line (FPL).X
    • B Final Protective Fire (FPF).
    • C Mutual Support Fire (MSF).
    • D Principle Direction of Fire (PDF).
  63. What type of fire is designed to produce frontal enfilade fire?
    • A Final Protective Line (FPL).
    • B Final Protective Fire (FPF).
    • C Mutual Support Fire (MSF).
    • D Principle Direction of Fire (PDF).X
  64. What is the method of direct laying the gun for the purpose of applying fire to an enemy target that is moving toward the defensive position along an avenue of approach?
    • A Enfilade fire.
    • B Plunging fire.
    • C Principle Direction of Fire (PDF).X
    • D Final Protective Line (FPL).
  65. What is the basic machinegun fighting position?
    • A U-shaped.
    • B L-shaped.X
    • C T-shaped.
    • D None of the above.
  66. Which position provides a primary and secondary firing platform?
    • A T-shaped.X
    • B U-shaped.
    • C L-shaped.
    • D All of the above.
  67. What is the mission of the alternate position?
    • A PDF only.
    • B FPL only.
    • C Same as the primary position.X
    • D None of the above.
  68. What is a disadvantage of a U-shaped position?
    • A Does not allow for a grenade sump.
    • B Only supports 1 sector of fire.X
    • C Poor visibility to the front
    • D Both A and C.
Author
jcampos0311
ID
337680
Card Set
WEAPONS
Description
IULC
Updated