When employed behind enemy lines snipers, harass and demoralize the enemy, force them to re-deploy front line troops to protect __________?
D Supply depots, commanders, and installations in rear areas.
Snipers employed in the defense are excellent deterrents for enemy _________?
A Infiltration.
Snipers help the Infantry Commander maintain __________ while in the defense?
B Offensive posture.
During offensive combat, snipers should be used to __________ with the enemy?
C Gain and maintain contact.
When operating outside the FEBA, snipers are best used with whom?
C Local security.
Snipers can prevent infiltration, detect and destroy infiltrators, protect the FEBA from surprise attack, protect friendly patrols from ambush, and __________?
A Screen the flanks and rear of the defense.
As the eyes of the commander, the sniper increases his _________ through the gathering and transmitting of intelligence?
A Flexibility.
The most desirable method of employing snipers in a frontal attack is __________?
D Between the Line of Departure (LOD) and objective.
Snipers can provide early warning, take out guides, __________, force the enemy to go illuminated, gather intelligence data, and cause confusion and panic.
D Force the enemy to deploy early.
Snipers can be used to protect the flanks or __________ of the attacking unit?
B Rear.
In what type of defense are snipers best employed with the security element?
B Reserve slope.
In a single envelopment, snipers can increase the commander's chances of __________?
A Surprise.
Why are snipers not required to shift fires when they become masked?
C They have pin-point accuracy.
What are target precedence for snipers?
Enemy officers
SNCOs or NCOs
crew-served weapons
communications
observation equipment.
When operating with the main body snipers will move out prior to the intended movement and establish __________?
C Blocking positions.
When operating with the rear guard snipers move behind and to the flanks to prevent __________?
A Surprise attack on the main body.
In the offense, what are the three basic forms of maneuver?
A Envelopment, penetration, and frontal attack.
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental of offensive tactics?
Gain and maintain contact.
Seize or control key terrain.
Conserve combat power.
Exploit known enemy weakness.
Conserve combat power.
Which form of maneuver begins with rupturing the enemy positions to make a gap through to the enemy rear?
B Penetration.
What type of offensive operation is used when the enemy position is unknown?
B Movement to contact.
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a night attack?
To allow time for rest.
To achieve tactical surprise.
To maintain pressure against the enemy.
To complete or exploit a prior success
To allow time for rest.
Which type of offensive operation involves movement of small groups into the enemy rear, the assembly of those groups and then conducts a preplanned attack?
D Infiltration.
Which of these are NOT one of the phases of offensive combat?
Which phase of offensive combat begins upon the crossing of the line of departure (LOD)?
D Conduct.
Which phase of offensive combat begins once the objective has been secured?
B Exploitation.
Which control measure is NOT used in an infiltration?
Rendezvous points.
Time of infiltration.
Link-up site.
Infiltration lanes.
Rendezvous points.
Which control measure is used in a night attack?
B Limit of advance.
Which control measure is NOT used in an infiltration?
Rendezvous points.
Time of infiltration.
Link-up site.
Infiltration lanes.
Rendezvous points.
What are the three ways to achieve surprise?
A Stealth, deception, and ambiguity.
What is the definition of deception?
B To convince the enemy that you are going to do something other then what you are going to do.
How do we seek to achieve surprise?
C By striking the enemy at a time or place or in a manner for which the enemy is unprepared.
What are the two types of breaching techniques?
B Mechanical and explosive.
In regards to assault breaching, what does the acronym SOSR stand for?
D Suppress, Obscure, Secure, and Reduce.
What is the first step in assault breaching?
B Suppress.
What is the last step in assault breaching?
A Reduce.
What type of order is used most frequently at lower echelons?
C Fragmentary order.
What type of order is an abbreviated form of an operation order, issued as needed, that eliminates the need for restating information contained in a basic operation order?
A Fragmentary order.
What order is less formal than operation orders and are often issued orally?
D Fragmentary order.
What is NOT a form of electronic warfare?
A Electronic protection.
The goal of Communications Security (COMSEC) is to protect friendly communications from enemy ________ while ensuring ________ use of the electromagnetic spectrum?
B Exploitation, unimpeded.
What are two types of jamming?
B Obvious and subtle.
If the absolute maximum radio transmission time is 20 seconds, what is the maximum preferred radio transition time?
How many programmable channels are available when using the AN/PRC-117 in SATCOM modulation?
D 10 programmable presets.
What is the power output when using the AN/PRC-117 in SATCOM modulation?
B 1-20 Watts.
What are the three elements of a satellite communications system?
A Ground terminal, satellite, and ground control station.
What is an advantage of tactical SATCOM?
D Provides greater mobility, flexibility, and ease of operation with unlimited range.
The DAMA scheme of operation is employed on ________ ________to share available channels more efficiently.
A UHF, TACSAT.
From the list below, identify what is a non-organic attachment.
C Law enforcement professional.
From the list below, identify what is a non-organic attachment.
B Interpreters.
From the list below, identify what is NOT an organic attachment.
C Recon team.
What is NOT a form of electronic warfare?
C Electronic protection.
What are the two methods to support offensive operations?
A Support a movement to contact, support to the assault.
What are the five phases of a Scout Sniper mission?
D Insert, Infiltration, Actions on the objective, Exfiltration, and Extract.X
What are the five phases of a Scout Sniper mission?
C Insert, Infiltration, Actions on the objective, Exfiltration, and Extract. X
In the space provided list the four typical tasks for Scout Snipers in support of offensive actions?
Provide reconnaissance and surveillance of the objective area.
Provide route reconnaissance.
Provide initial terminal guidance.
Support of a raid force assault element.
Provide reconnaissance and surveillance of the objective area.
Provide route reconnaissance.
Provide initial terminal guidance.
Support of a raid force assault element.
Which scout sniper optic is defined as versatile device enabling observation over obstacles and around corners?
C Scout sniper periscope.X
What is the maximum effective range of the M40A5?
C 1,000 yards.
Which scout sniper weapon is designed primarily to give the scout sniper team the capability of delivering long range fire on armored vehicles?
D M107 SASR.
Who does the To&E for scout sniper platoon fall under?
C H&S Company, S-2.X
One way scout snipers support in the security area is to, delay, deny, and harass the enemy?
T/F