KC10 MQF 2017 - 4th Quarter of MQF

202. When immediate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available, GPWS warning requires___________.

a. verifying aircraft altitude on radar altimeter
b. verifying validity of the warning
c. identifying aircraft configuration
d. prompt and decisive action

203. Regarding GPWS activation when immediate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available,___________short duration warnings.

a. query ATC about
b. do not ignore
c. examine the low charts during
d. attempt to verify the validity of

204. If GPWS activation is caused when another aircraft flies directly under the KC-10 during air refueling or formation flight, the crew must______________.

a. take quick and decisive action
b. perform an immediate and aggressive escape maneuver
c. use available resources to ascertain the situation and take appropriate action
d. climb 1,000' to the top of the block

205. After one pilot states "I'm on the FMS," __________ by the other pilot is required.

a. nothing
b. acknowledgement
c. "You have it"
d. "Roger"

206. While flying an approach,______________________.

a. consider executing a go around/missed approach any time an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated
b. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
c. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear caution is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
d. both A and B

207. Normally, do not exceed___________descent when below 2000 feet AGL.

a. 1000 FPM
b. 1500 FPM
c. 2000 FPM
d. 2500 FPM

208. Below___________, the aircraft should be stabilized on the approach in landing configuration.

a. 500' AGL
b. 500' PA
c. 1,000' AGL
d. 1,000' PA

209. Missed approach is not recommended if fuel in any main tank is___________pounds or less.

a. 1,500
b. 2,000
c. 2,500
d. 3,000

210. Do not select GA on the thrust computer indicator until___________feet pressure altitude.

a. above 14,000
b. below 14,000
c. above 18,000
d. below 18,000

211. Initiate a missed approach/go around if the aircraft is not stabilized on the approach, in final landing configuration by___________.

a. 500 AGL
b. MDA
c. 1000 MSL
d. DH

212. Do not land prior to an approach end cable that has been reported as___________. Do not land on any cable. Damage to aircraft or cable can occur.

a. raised
b. secured
c. under repair
d. slack or loose

213. If landing approach is made in icing conditions or landing is made with snow or slush on runway, move FLAP/SLAT handle to___________.

a. 50°/EXT
b. 35°/EXT
c. 22°/EXT
d. 0°/EXT

214. During a touch and go landing, when the throttles are advanced the takeoff warning horn may sound momentarily,___________.

a. the pilot in command will call for an abort
b. the pilot in command should consider aborting
c. the pilot in command should confirm that everything is correctly positioned and advise the crew
d. the pilot not fly should reset the flaps to 15°/EXT and the flight engineer should recycle the spoiler handle to 2/3 then back to RET

215. In an upset situation, excessive use of___________may aggravate an upset situation or may result in loss of control and/or high structural loads.

a. pitch trim
b. rudder
c. aileron trim
d. both A and B

216. If sustained slat oscillation cannot be eliminated___________.

a. accelerate to an airspeed that permits slats to be retracted
b. continued operation is permitted for mission accomplishment
c. no AFTO FORM 781 write-up is required
d. land at the nearest suitable airfield

217. When operating in continuous icing conditions, takeoff must be made as soon as possible after the application of deicing/anti-icing fluid. Regardless of the type of fluid used, a visual inspection must be made immediately prior to takeoff (within 5 minutes). This inspection should be ___________.

a. made by tower
b. annotated in the aircraft forms
c. an external inspection performed by qualified personnel
d. made using 1L or 1R doors

218. Ice, snow, or frost, must be removed from the ______ prior to takeoff, except as otherwise authorized by TO 1C-10(K)A-1, section 7.

a. wings and flight controls only
b. wings, flight controls, and tail surfaces only
c. wings, flight controls, tail surfaces and the refueling boom only
d. wings, flight controls, tail surfaces, refueling boom, and fuselage

219. Any accumulation of snow, slush, or ice in the cavity areas forward of flight control surfaces, or on the wing leading edge behind the slat structures,___________.

a. creates no significant hazard
b. must be removed prior to takeoff
c. should be removed if in contact with the control linkage
d. must be removed prior to powering up hydraulic systems

220. Extreme cold (below -45°F for 6 hours or more) or light snow, ice, or frost deposits may compromise certain aspects of the aircraft's___________and safety equipment.

a. fire detection
b. communications
c. emergency escape
d. temperature control

221. In cold weather, make sure all instruments have warmed up___________.

a. sufficiently to ensure normal operations
b. for 3 minutes prior to takeoff
c. prior to starting the engines
d. prior to initiating taxi

222. For taxi and takeoff on contaminated surfaces, CG should be___________.

a. 23% MAC or more
b. 23% MAC or less
c. 32% MAC or more
d. 32% MAC or less

223. During takeoffs on a slippery runway,___________.

a. apply some nose down elevator to improve the steering characteristics of the nose gear
b. do not use differential thrust
c. maintain heading using small rudder pedal steering inputs
d. all of the above

224. Nose gear steering of____or more may cause the nose gear to slip on the icy (wet) runway.

a. 3°
b. 5°
c. 10°
d. 11°

225. Takeoffs shall not be attempted with over____inch(es) of wet snow, slush and/or water on the runway.

a. 1/4
b. 1/2
c. 1
d. 4

226. Takeoffs shall not be attempted with over____inch(es) of dry snow on the runway.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

227. If anti-icing is inoperative, climb or descend to an altitude where the TAT is warmer than +6°C or colder than____°C. If possible, avoid clouds where the TAT is between 0° and -20°C. Fly above___________KTAS.

a. -10; 450
b. -15; 400
c. -20; 400
d. -32; 450

228. After encountering conditions favorable to induction icing for an extended period of time,___________.

a. accomplish ice shedding procedures
b. advance throttles slowly to MCT then back to cruise setting
c. make a 781A entry
d. recycle engine anti-ice switches to ensure proper operation

229. If approach or landing was made through icing conditions or if the runway was covered by slush or snow, retract flaps to_____ during taxi in. Damage to the flaps/slats could occur if ice is presents and flaps/slats are fully retracted.

a. 0°
b. 15°
c. 22°
d. 25°

230. In heavy rain the PF should remain on instruments___________.

a. unless visual contact is made with the airfield
b. unless the rain repellent is working
c. until the other pilot sees the runway
d. until reaching minimums for the approach

231. If encountering severe turbulence, target airspeed is within the range of___________.

a. 290-310 KIAS or 0.80-0.85, whichever is lower
b. 290-310 KIAS or 0.80-0.85, whichever is higher
c. 250-270 KIAS or 0.75-0.80, whichever is lower
d. 250-270 KIAS or 0.75-0.80, whichever is higher

232. When windshear conditions exist or are forecasted,___________.

a. takeoff will not be attempted
b. takeoff should not be attempted
c. apply Takeoff Into Suspected Windshear procedures
d. do not apply "Takeoff Into Suspected Windshear" procedures

233. Takeoff will not be attempted when___________.

a. Severe loss shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL or windshear conditions are associated with convective activity
b. Severe gain shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL
c. Winds exceed 50 knots
d. all of the above

234. During the maximum performance maneuver, increase pitch___________.

a. at 3 degrees per second to 21 degrees
b. immediately to the stick shaker
c. as required to control vertical speed and altitude
d. at 3 degrees per second to 15 degrees

235. FMS wind information may be erroneous below a TAS of___________.

a. 120 knots
b. 140 IAS
c. 130 knots
d. 107 knots

236. In windshear conditions,___________or impact with the ground will occur.

a. increase pitch until encountering buffet onset
b. disregard GPWS warning activation
c. do not exceed go-around power
d. disregard the flight director command bars

237. If an IAS speed margin in excess of VAPP +____knots is required to maintain reference ground speed during an approach with wind shear conditions suspected, serious consideration should be given to not attempting the approach. If this margin is still required below_________feet, discontinue the approach.

a. 10; 200
b. 20; 200
c. 20; 500
d. 10; 500

238. To compute minimum air refueling speed, add_____knots without wing air refueling pods or _____knots with wing air refueling pods installed to the___________speed.

a. 10; 20; stick shaker
b. 5; 10; stick shaker
c. 10; 20; 1.2G buffet
d. 5; 10; 1.2G buffet

239. Landings or unplanned go-arounds are allowed at outside temperatures up to a maximum of___________.

a. 40°C
b. 45°C
c. 50°C
d. 55°C

240. Takeoff thrust set between 40 and 80 knots may not be used higher than_____feet pressure height above the airfield pressure altitude.

a. 1,000
b. 2,000
c. 3,000
d. 4,000

241. The all engine climb gradient data___________to determine obstacle clearance capabilities.

a. may be used
b. will be used
c. will not be used
d. must be used

242. Takeoff data presented in TO 1C-10(K)A-1-1 is for pressure altitudes from___________feet.

a. SL to 8,000
b. SL to 14,000
c. -1,000 to 8,000
d. -1,000 to 14,000

243. The environmental envelope of the airplane extends from___________.

a. -54°C to 50°C
b. -54°C to 40°C
c. -54°C to 50°C, not to exceed Standard Day +40°C
d. -54°C to 40°C, not to exceed Standard Day +50°C

244. If the crosswind component exceeds ____knots on a dry runway, takeoff will not be attempted.

a. 31
b. 21
c. 11
d. 45

245. If the wind direction is greater than ____from the runway heading, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

a. 10°
b. 23°
c. 31°
d. 45°

246. When the crosswind component exceeds _____knots, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

a. 23
b. 31
c. 45
d. 10

247. The takeoff profile for obstacle clearance and climb gradient is based on maintaining the computed climb speed. Therefore, the ___________is the primary instrument for takeoff guidance.

a. vertical speed indicator
b. airspeed indicator
c. flight director
d. horizontal Situation Indicator

248. The climbout flightpath is calculated assuming gear retraction is initiated _____second(s) after liftoff and completed 10.5 seconds later.

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

249. Reduced thrust usage is not permitted if RCR value is___________.

a. 10 or below
b. less than 10
c. 14 or below
d. less than 14

250. Reduced thrust usage is not permitted if:

a. RSC is used for TOLD computations
b. Tailwinds are used for mission accomplishment
c. The anti-skid braking system or one main gear wheel brake is inoperative
d. Both A and C

251. Takeoff into suspected windshear will not be attempted unless the charted performance limiting VR exceeds the charted actual weight VR by at least _____knots.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25

252. When air refueling the KC-10 to inflight maximum gross weight, the planned air refueling altitude will be no higher than the pressure altitude of___________feet.

a. 2,000
b. 25,000
c. 25,500
d. 31,000

253. A-10 A/R with KC-10 gross weight above___________is not recommended due to A-10 power limitations.

a. 540,000 lbs
b. 556,000 lbs
c. 436,000 lbs
d. 575,000 lbs

254. The pressure altitude of ___________feet should be used as the base planning altitude for receiver air refueling. Altitudes up to___________feet below optimum altitude for gross weight at the end of air refueling may be used. In no case will air refueling be planned above a pressure altitude of________feet.

a. 20,000; 1000; 25,000
b. 25,500; 1000; 31,000
c. 25,000; 2000; 31,000
d. 41,000; 2000; 42,000

255. The landing gear may only be extended at speeds below _____knots. When the gear is down, the aircraft may be accelerated to _____knots.

a. 270; 350
b. 260; 350
c. 260; 300
d. 300; 260

256. For takeoff or landing, when runway conditions are not clearly defined, it is recommended that___________.

a. the takeoff or landing not be attempted
b. a visual inspection be made by the aircraft commander
c. a conservative RCR be used
d. takeoff or landing be delayed until a RCR can be determined

257. Aircrew members shall not be scheduled to fly nor will they perform aircrew duties while under the influence of alcohol or within_____hours of consuming alcoholic beverages, based on___________.

a. 10; bus time
b. 10; scheduled takeoff
c. 12; bus time
d. 12; scheduled takeoff

258. Do not enter aircrew members into crew rest___________.

a. 45 minutes after landing
b. until they complete official post-flight duties
c. 45 minutes after final engine shut down
d. until 1 hour after engine shutdown

259. Both pilots will monitor___________emergency frequencie(s) to the maximum extent possible. Exception: Only one crewmember is required to monitor guard frequencie(s) during___________.

a. AMC; formation flights
b. VHF guard; formation flights
c. UHF guard; tanker or receiver rendezvous and AR
d. UHF and VHF guard; tanker or receiver rendezvous and AR

260. Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____feet. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____feet.

a. 20, 5
b. 15, 10
c. 25, 10
d. 15, 5

261. When filing to a remote or island destination, aircrews may use an additional _____holding fuel (in lieu of an alternate).

a. 1 hour + 15 minutes
b. 2 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. 45 minutes

262. Flight into areas of ___________is prohibited.

a. known or forecast moderate or greater mountain wave turbulence
b. forecast or reported severe icing
c. forecast or reported severe turbulence
d. all of the above

263. If unable to vertically clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least _____feet, avoid them by at least _____NMs at or above flight level FL230, or _____NMs below FL230.

a. 2000; 10; 5
b. 5000; 15; 10
c. 2000; 20; 10
d. 5000; 30; 15

264. If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker ___________.

a. immediately after terminating the emergency
b. after landing
c. after landing and terminating the emergency
d. never

265. When operating in RVSM airspace, aircrews will limit climb and descent rates to ___________when operating near other aircraft to reduce potential TCAS advisories.

a. 500 fpm
b. 750 fpm
c. 1,000 fpm
d. 1,500 fpm

266. Reverse air refueling into a KC-135 is only permitted ___________.

a. for operational necessity
b. IAW FTU syllabus training requirements
c. in an emergency
d. all of the above

267. During a VMC position change, the new leader will decelerate to briefed airspeed when __________.

a. abeam the old lead
b. when given the lead
c. the new wingman notifies the new lead they are approaching position in-trail and confirms they are at the assigned altitude (500 ft altitude separation required).
d. none of the above

268. During an IMC position change the maneuvering aircraft or element will echelon (normally right) using approximately ___________.

a. 30 degrees of bank and turning 30 degrees from formation heading
b. 15 degrees of bank and turning 15 degrees from formation heading
c. 30 degrees of bank for 30 seconds
d. 15 degrees of bank for 15 seconds