KC10 MQF 2017 - 2nd Quarter of MQF

  1. 68. Do not select ________________unless personnel are clear of the antenna radiation area.

    a. OFF to STBY
    b. STBY to TEST
    c. TEST to STBY
    d. WX, MAP 1, MAP 2, or BCN
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-196 (W)]
  2. 69. Precipitation diffuses the radar signal and reduces the ability to detect the signal return. The amount of signal dissipation is directly proportional to the rate of rainfall. It is possible for ________________.

    a. the KC-10 radar to compensate for signal diffusion and attenuation
    b. the radar to depict all weather formations regardless of precipitation
    c. long range scale to give the best resolution of weather echoes
    d. a storm cell to mask another cell, which could be larger and/or more intense
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-197 (C)]
  3. 70. All TCAS aural warnings are inhibited below ________________feet radio altitude on approach and up to ________________ feet radio altitude on departure.

    a. 100; 500
    b. 200; 500
    c. 500; 1000
    d. 900; 1100
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-206 (N)]
  4. 71. The boom shall be maintained full of fuel when the departure, enroute or arrival flight path may place the aircraft ________________.

    a. within 10 NM of bad weather
    b. in the vicinity of lightning
    c. within 25 NM of bad weather
    d. in the vicinity of bad weather
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.15-7 (W)]
  5. 72. Concerning emergency signals, all intermittent system failure lights will ________________________.

    a. be troubleshot after being intermittent for at least 3 minutes
    b. be troubleshot after being intermittent for at least 5 minutes
    c. be treated the same as steady lights
    d. not be troubleshot
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-2 (C)]
  6. 73. During a LOSS OF ALL ENGINES/GENERATORS, if engine 1 or 3 does not restart within approximately ___________, immediate consideration should be given to restarting engine 2. Do not operate _________________.

    a. 15 seconds; control surfaces
    b. 30 seconds; flaps/slats
    c. 45 seconds; flaps/slats
    d. 3 minutes; rudders
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-4 (W)]
  7. 74. With a loss of all generators and emergency power only, the battery cannot be relied upon for more than ________________. Attempting an APU start will discharge the battery.

    a. 5 minute
    b. 15 minutes
    c. 30 minutes
    d. 45 minutes
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-7 (N)]
  8. 75. With a dual hydraulic system failure __________________.

    a. autothrottles may be used except for approach and landing with flaps less than 35°
    b. land at nearest suitable airfield
    c. minimize use of more than one hydraulic powered control at a time
    d. all of the above
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-24 (N)]
  9. 76. During dual hydraulic system failure 1 & 2, do not reduce speed to below VMCA until ________________.

    a. landing is assured
    b. flaps are set for landing
    c. all gear are down and locked
    d. the flare is initiated
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-27 (W)]
  10. 77. With a dual hydraulic system failure 1 & 2, a missed approach should not be attempted if ________________.

    a. upper rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
    b. lower rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
    c. both rudders are operative but thrust is asymmetric
    d. both rudders are inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-27 (W)]
  11. 78. After gear alternate extension do not exceed ________KIAS.

    a. 230
    b. 260
    c. 280
    d. 300
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-28 (C)]
  12. 79. For a dual hydraulic system failure 1 and 3, if upper rudder is inoperative do not reduce speed to below ________________until landing is assured.

    a. VMCA (127 KIAS)
    b. VMCA (137 KIAS)
    c. VMCA (147 KIAS)
    d. VMCA (157 KIAS)
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-31 (W)]
  13. 80. During the period that all ENG PNEU SUPPLY Sels are off, the aircraft will depressurize at approximately _________________.

    a. 500 FPM
    b. 1,000 FPM
    c. 1,500 FPM
    d. 2,000 FPM
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-36 (N)]
  14. 81. If both fire agent bottles for engine 2 have been discharged, do not _________________.

    a. start APU
    b. restart number 2 engine
    c. attempt a go-around
    d. use associated air conditioning system
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-41 (C)]
  15. 82. Following an engine failure, once the aircraft is configured for landing ________________may not exist at high gross weights and extreme ambient conditions with an additional engine failure.

    a. go-around capability
    b. directional control
    c. glide path control
    d. course control
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-44 (W)]
  16. 83. In a two engine operation situation ________________.

    a. use 35° flaps for landing
    b. delay slat/flap and landing gear extension as long as practical
    c. do not use autopilot for go-around
    d. all of the above
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-44 (N)]
  17. 84. In a single engine operation situation, if cabin pressure cannot be maintained, passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically at approximately ________ feet cabin altitude; the passengers have ________minutes of oxygen available.

    a. 8,000; 11
    b. 14,000; 22
    c. 10,000; 33
    d. 12,000; 44
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-49 (W)]
  18. 85. Under which of the following conditions MAY a single engine missed approach be attempted?

    a. Airspeed below single engine approach speed
    b. Gear is extended
    c. Airspeed above single engine approach speed
    d. Less than 1,000 feet above airfield elevation
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-51 (W)]
  19. 86. During a CONTROLLABILITY CHECK ______ to the point at which full control deflection is required about any axis.

    a. allow speed to decrease
    b. allow speed to increase
    c. never allow speed to decrease
    d. never allow speed to increase
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-58 (W)]
  20. 87. Under what condition should a controllability check in the planned landing configuration be considered?

    a. Damage has occurred to any portion of the airplane structure sufficient to change the airplane normal flight and control characteristics.
    b. The aircraft experiences in flight control malfunctions.
    c. There is an uncorrectable fuel imbalance.
    d. All of the above
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-58]
  21. 88. In a ditching situation, cabin doors may not open for evacuation _________________.

    a. only if the cabin is pressurized above 9.1 psi
    b. only if the cabin is pressurized above 8.6 psi
    c. only is the cabin is pressurized above 3.0 psi
    d. if cabin is pressurized
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-61 (W)]
  22. 89. Damage to the slats can result if wing anti-ice is operated on the ground for more than ________seconds.

    a. 10
    b. 15
    c. 30
    d. 45
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-18 (C)]
  23. 90. If volts and frequency indicate after a CSD disconnect button is pushed, ________________.

    a. shut down the engine immediately
    b. continue engine operation with the generator on
    c. continue engine operation with the generator off
    d. reset the generator, then shut the engine down if volts and frequency still indicate
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-25 (N)]
  24. 91. Failure of the L EMER DC BUS or the R EMER DC BUS will cause the failure of the associated CDU,BSIU,EHSI, EADI and civil GPS. Navigation guidance can be restored to the functioning side by:

    a. Placing the EMER PWR SW to ON.
    b. Splitting the 1553 bus.
    c. Selecting the respective autopilot or autopilot 2 if both autopilots were off when the system failed.
    d. Depowering the failed component.
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[CNS 2A-44 (N)]
  25. 92. If final flap selection is less than 35°, it is possible that the boom will contact the runway at _____body angle, struts extended and _____struts compressed.

    a. 13°; 11°
    b. 11°; 13°
    c. 10°; 12°
    d. 10°; 12°
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-51 (C)]
  26. 93. During ASYMMETRIC SLATS OR NO SLAT LANDING WITH FLAPS, if landing with 22°/EXT and the spoiler handle in ARM, spoilers extend automatically ________________.

    a. on main wheel spinup
    b. on nosewheel strut compression
    c. by reverser lever actuation
    d. the ARM function will not work with 22°/EXT
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-53 (N)]
  27. 94. With a complete pitot blockage, airspeed will ________ in a climb and __________ in a descent provided static port is unblocked.

    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-60 (N)]
  28. 95. If the static system is blocked, altimeter and VSI will show ___________ regardless of the aircraft's pitch attitude and power settings.

    a. a climb
    b. a descent
    c. level flight
    d. off flags
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-61 (W)]
  29. 96. With the loss of all GPSs the ____________solutions provide more accurate navigation solutions than a INU ONLY navigation solution.

    a. MIL 1 or MIL2
    b. GPS 1 or GPS2
    c. CIV1 or CIV2
    d. INU1 or INU3
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[CNS 2A-23(N)]
  30. 97. If GPS1 and GPS2 both fail, and subsequently one GPS is restored, the _____________ will use the first GPS restored.

    a. Pitot Static System
    b. FMS
    c. CDU
    d. INU
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[CNS 2A-23 (N)]
  31. 98. During a NO FLAP/NO SLAT LANDING, with the alternate gear extension lever in the raised position __________________.

    a. nose gear steering to the right is limited to 25°
    b. nose gear steering to the left is limited to 25°
    c. the outboard ailerons will be unlocked
    d. Both A and C
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-70 (N)]
  32. 99. If the SELECT FLAP LIMIT OVRD light is on ________.

    a. structural damage may occur if flap limit airspeeds are exceeded
    b. the flaps are still protected from structural damage due to overspeed
    c. extension and retraction of the flaps will now be inhibited
    d. it will take 20 seconds longer to extend or retract the flaps
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-72 (C)]
  33. 100. If the SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT COMES ON DURING TAKEOFF AFTER V1, at level off altitude, _______________.

    a. retract flaps only
    b. reduce pitch attitude and accelerate to 0°/EXT MIN MAN. Retract flaps and continue acceleration
    to 0°/RET MIN MAN. Retract and inspect slats.
    c. clean up after accomplishing a controllability check
    d. retract flaps and slats only after being visually inspected by an additional crewmember
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-73]
  34. 101. With SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON during takeoff or go-around, do not move FLAP/SLAT handle until ____________.

    a. 500 feet above airfield elevation
    b. a safe altitude and airspeed has been attained
    c. 1000 feet above airfield elevation
    d. minimum acceleration height
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-74 (C)]
  35. 102. During a stabilizer inoperative landing be prepared to _______.

    a. use maximum control column force for flare
    b. maintain thrust until nosewheel touchdown
    c. push forward abruptly to lower the nose
    d. use a higher than normal sink rate during flare
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-76 (C)]
  36. 103. In an UNSCHEDULED AUTO SLAT EXTENSION situation, the ________________or 0.75 M whichever is lower.

    a. inboard slats are extended, do not exceed 250 KIAS
    b. inboard slats are extended, do not exceed 270 KIAS
    c. inboard slats are extended, do not exceed 271 KIAS
    d. outboard slats are extended, do not exceed 270 KIAS
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-77 (C)]
  37. 104. During cruise if the slat reset switch light and slat disagree light are still on (after an unscheduled auto-slat extension and the slat reset switch-light was pushed) the ________________.

    a. slats are retracted
    b. slats are in the takeoff range
    c. inboard slats are extended
    d. outboard slats are extended
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-77 (C)]
  38. 105. In a fuel dump situation, with AR PUMP OVRD selected, FWD TANK fuel will continue to dump ________________pounds.

    a. until it reaches 15,000
    b. below 15,000
    c. until it reaches 11,500
    d. until it reaches 5,000
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-85 (W)]
  39. 106. Fuel dump in response to a takeoff emergency should not be initiated prior to________________.

    a. slat retraction speed
    b. reviewing the FUEL DUMP checklist procedures
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-85 (N)]
  40. 107. If the ABNORMAL BRAKE checklist is initiated for a HIGH ENERGY STOP (any stop initiated in excess of _________knots), make AFTO 781A entry.

    a. 80
    b. 100
    c. 130
    d. 150
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-112 (N)]
  41. 108. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (caution zone), if a 400°C temperature exists for more than_______minutes, wheel fuse plugs may activate and deflate the tire(s).

    a. 60
    b. 30
    c. 10
    d. 5
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-113 (W)]
  42. 109. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (danger zone), which of the following is NOT true?

    a. Immediately move aircraft to clear active runway or ramp
    b. Do not set parking brake
    c. Fire is possible within 30 minutes
    d. After 5 minutes, fog or foam may be used to reduce cooling time
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-113 (W)]
  43. 110. In a GEAR HANDLE WILL NOT MOVE TO DOWN POSITION situation, after the main gear alternate gear extension lever is raised and latched, the main gear alternate extension lever must be ______________.

    a. stowed to prevent inadvertent gear retraction
    b. left in the raised position to prevent inadvertent gear retraction
    c. stowed after the alternate gear ext handle-center gear is pulled
    d. stowed after the gear lights indicate 4 green
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-117 (C)]
  44. 111. In a GEAR UNSAFE LT(S) ON WITH GEAR HANDLE UP (CONFIRMED ON BOTH PANELS) situation, if gear does not appear normal (for example, if main gear retraction is blocked by gear door) or if condition of gear cannot be determined __________.

    a. do not attempt additional gear retraction.
    b. one attempt to retract the gear can be made
    c. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 230 KIAS
    d. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 185 KIAS
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-123 (C)]
  45. 112. Under operation with single pneumatic system, do not operate more than one air conditioning pack with power set at or above ____________.

    a. MCR
    b. MCT
    c. CL
    d. GA
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-131 (C)]
  46. 113. During an ABNORMAL START, do not select alternate ignition before completion of _____ second motoring period.

    a. 15
    b. 30
    c. 45
    d. 60
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-136 (C)]
  47. 114. During an ABNORMAL START, if fuel flow was above_____PPH, a second attempt may result in a hot start.

    a. 400
    b. 500
    c. 600
    d. 700
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-136 (C)]
  48. 115. To prevent transcowl clevis damage, _____ when failure to stow is noted during ground operations.

    a. manually stow the thrust reverser
    b. immediately shut down the respective engine
    c. do not attempt to stow a thrust reverser
    d. operate the engine with minimum thrust
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-146 (C)]
  49. 116. Engine anti-ice will be turned on immediately after engine start when outside air temperature is ___________________.

    a. at 8°C or less and moisture is visible
    b. at 8°C or less and the temperature-dewpoint spread is 3°C or less
    c. below 6°C, and either visible moisture is present or the temperature-dewpoint spread is 6°C or less
    d. below 6°C, and either visible moisture is present or the temperature-dewpoint spread is 3°C or less
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-3]
  50. 117. Windshield anti-ice selectors should ____________________.

    a. be in HIGH only for the duration of moderate to heavy icing
    b. be in NORM for the duration of moderate to heavy icing
    c. be in off when icing conditions are imminent
    d. be in auto when icing conditions are imminent
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-3]
  51. 118. Maximum slat operating speed, landing setting, is_____KIAS or _____M.

    a. 221; 0.55
    b. 221; 0.51
    c. 250; 0.54
    d. 270; 0.55
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-14 Figure 3-4]
  52. 119. The________________must be operational for dispatch.

    a. No. 1 Auxiliary Pump Switch
    b. No. 2 Auxiliary Pump Switch
    c. No. 1 and No. 2 Auxiliary Pump Switches
    d. No. 3 Auxiliary Pump Switch
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-9]
  53. 120. Do not attempt [engine] starter re-engagement______% N2 rpm. Starter damage may occur.

    a. above 20
    b. below 20
    c. above 30
    d. below 30
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10 (C)]
  54. 121. The [engine] starter motor may be operated continuously for as long as________________.

    a. 1 minute
    b. 3 minutes
    c. 5 minutes
    d. 10 minutes
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  55. 122. Normally, engine starter re-engagement should be made with N2 rpm below 20%. Under emergency conditions such as engine fire indication, re-engagement may be made with N2 rpm as high as_______.

    a. 25%
    b. 30%
    c. 35%
    d. 40%
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  56. 123. During engine start, the normal EGT limit is_____°C.

    a. 700
    b. 750
    c. 800
    d. 900
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  57. 124. During engine start, the maximum EGT limit is_____°C.

    a. 900
    b. 910
    c. 945
    d. 960
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  58. 125. During engine start, EGT in excess of____°C requires a 781 entry.

    a. 750
    b. 800
    c. 900
    d. 910
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  59. 126. During engine start, EGT peaks between 750°C and 900°C are limited to____seconds.

    a. 10
    b. 20
    c. 30
    d. 40
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  60. 127. One start is allowed in the__________°C range and the intended flight may be completed before maintenance action.

    a. 945 to 960
    b. 910 to 945
    c. 900 to 910
    d. 800 to 900
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  61. 128. Following two consecutive 5 minute engine starting cycles, a ______ cooling period is required between additional 5 minute cycles.

    a. 30 second
    b. 5 minute
    c. 10 minute
    d. 20 minute
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  62. 129. The limiting tailwind component is____knots.

    a. 5
    b. 10
    c. 21
    d. 31
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-10]
  63. 130. Autoslat extension maximum speed is____KIAS or____M whichever is lower.

    a. 170; 0.51
    b. 221; 0.51
    c. 270; 0.55
    d. 270; 0.70
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-12]
  64. 131. Maximum N1 for takeoff, climb, cruise and MCT is_______.

    a. 100%
    b. 109.5%
    c. 118.5%
    d. 125%
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11 Figure 3-2]
  65. 132. Max EGT during takeoff is_____°C for 5 minutes and____°C for 2 minutes.

    a. 750; 800
    b. 800; 900
    c. 910; 945
    d. 945; 960
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11 Figure 3-2]
  66. 133. During takeoff, an EGT reading between 946 and 960 °C is limited to____minutes.

    a. 2
    b. 5
    c. 7
    d. 10
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11 Figure 3-2]
  67. 134. The normal takeoff thrust duration of 5 minutes may be extended to____minutes for engine-out contingency.

    a. 7
    b. 10
    c. 15
    d. 20
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[3-11 Figure 3-2]
Card Set
KC10 MQF 2017 - 2nd Quarter of MQF
2017 KC-10 Master Question File (MQF). Released 1 Jan 2018. Contact Lt Col Vince Livie with questions/errors.