KC10 MQF 2017 - 1st Quarter of MQF

  1. 1. The refueling anchor pattern is a ________ with legs separated by as little as 7 nm for smaller, slower tankers such as the KC-130 and as much as 20 nm for larger, faster tankers.

    a. right hand race track pattern
    b. left hand race track pattern
    c. point parallel rendezvous
    d. enroute rendezvous
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: ATP- [2A-2]
  2. 2. The geographical point along the planned AAR track where fuel transfer should commence is the ____________.

    a. Contact Point
    b. ARIP
    c. ARCP
    d. Anchor Point
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: ATP- [1A-7]
  3. 3. The ________ is the initial formation position for a receiver joining a tanker.

    a. fingertip position
    b. echelon left position
    c. cocked position
    d. on deck position
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: ATP- [1A-7]
  4. 4. The Toboggan maneuver is a request from receiver for the tanker to start a slow descent, maintaining the refuelling airspeed. The rate of descent is ______ and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

    a. 400 feet per NM
    b. 500 feet per minute
    c. between 300 and 500 ft per minute
    d. 500 feet per NM
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: ATP- [1A-16]
  5. 5. Do not refuel as a receiver above____________feet.

    a. 33,000
    b. 31,000
    c. 29,000
    d. 25,000
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.1-3 (C)]
  6. 6. Do not transmit on the HF radio when _____. Transmitting on the HF may cause uncommanded KC-10A air refueling boom movement, endangering the tanker or receiver aircraft and crews.

    a. only in contact with a KC-10
    b. only in close proximity to the KC-10
    c. in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10 air refueling boom
    d. in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10 air refueling boom during night operations only.
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.1-4 (W)]
  7. 7. If radio communication capability is lost or unreadable between the boom operator and receiver pilot, contacts will not be attempted except __________.

    a. when operational necessity dictates
    b. during an emergency fuel situation
    c. when flying a Higher Headquarters Directed (HHD) mission
    d. when authorized by the ATO or SPINS
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.1-4 (C)]
  8. 8. Approaching boom limits at relatively high velocity can cause _______ as a result of an inability to disconnect due to binding action of the boom nozzle.

    a. inner limit disconnect
    b. loss of contact signal
    c. structural damage
    d. boom operator airsickness
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.1-15, 8.3-3 (C)]
  9. 9. All appropriate equipment should be operating a minimum of _________ (________ for A/A) prior to rendezvous control times (ARCT, RZ, etc.).

    a. 15 min; 15 min
    b. 30 min; 30 min
    c. 15 min; 30 min
    d. 30 min; 15 min
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-4]
  10. 10. Normally, the tanker will orbit in a _____ pattern at a speed of _________.

    a. Left hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight
    b. Right hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight
    c. Left hand; 275 KIAS, regardless of gross weight
    d. Right hand; 275 KIAS, regardless of gross weight
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-4 (N)]
  11. 11. To help insure safe operation when range between aircraft is not known and the receiver has to descend through air refueling altitude, tankers will not initiate final turn to refueling track unless ______________rendezvous altitude.

    a. tanker aircraft has confirmed level at proper
    b. receiver aircraft has confirmed level at proper
    c. tanker aircraft has confirmed level at 2,000 feet above
    d. receiver aircraft has confirmed level at 2,000 feet below
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-4 (W)]
  12. 12. If the KC-10A receiver is more than _____ in trail with the tanker, the airspeed may be increased for closure. The normal speed schedule will be resumed at _____in trail.

    a. 3 NM; 1 NM
    b. 1 NM; 1/2 NM
    c. 4 NM; 3 NM
    d. 2 NM; 1/2 NM
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-10 (N)]
  13. 13. Attempts to effect a contact during a loss of any air refueling lighting that results in less than desired illumination will be at the discretion of the ________.

    a. tanker mission commander
    b. boom operator
    c. receiver pilot
    d. flight engineer
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-3 (N), 8.4-5 (N)]
  14. 14. After a disconnect, remain stabilized in the contact position until the ____________.

    a. pilot director lights show a disconnect
    b. PNF visually confirms that the disconnect annunciator is illuminated and the boom is clear
    c. flight engineer resets the UARSSI system
    d. boom operator directs a return to precontact
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-5 (C)]
  15. 15. Normal backout from the contact position should be accomplished _____________.

    a. smoothly
    b. slowly
    c. rapidly
    d. both a and b
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-5 (N)]
  16. 16. When notified that a KC-10A boom flight control system failure has occurred, __________________.

    a. initiate a breakaway immediately
    b. initiate a disconnect immediately
    c. do not initiate a disconnect unless directed by the boom operator
    d. select amplifier override and continue air refueling
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-5 (W)]
  17. 17. _______ Air Refueling will not be conducted while tobogganing except in case of __________.

    a. Drogue, emergency
    b. Tanker, AWACs mission requirements
    c. Drogue, FTU training
    d. WARP, FTU training
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-8 (W)]
  18. 18. During the RECEIVER PREPARATION FOR CONTACT checklist, the IFF/ETCAS will be turned to standby __________.

    a. when visual contact can be maintained with the tanker
    b. when within 3 NM of the tanker
    c. no later than 1/2 NM
    d. all of the above
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-154]
  19. 19. As a receiver, if overrunning occurs during breakaway, under no conditions should a turn, either right or left, be made until ______________has been attained.

    a. a positive rate of climb
    b. positive separation
    c. a descent to the rendezvous altitude
    d. an effective breakaway
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-55 (W)]
  20. 20. If the KC-10 receiver loses sight of the tanker at any time, the receiver shall ________ until the receiver is definitely positioned aft of the tanker and has the tanker in visual contact.

    a. establish a positive rate of descent to 1000 feet below air refueling altitude
    b. immediately transition to instruments and level off
    c. immediately turn away from the track
    d. immediately extend full speed brakes
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-55 (W)]
  21. 21. Pressure boom refueling will not be attempted except ____________.

    a. during VMC conditions
    b. during daylight hours
    c. when needed to complete a checkride
    d. when an emergency fuel shortage exists aboard the receiver aircraft
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2-57 (N)]
  22. 22. Tankers will maintain applicable contact air refueling airspeed during receiver closure. If within ________NM closure, the tanker is off airspeed by more than ______knots, and required to decelerate or accelerate to obtain contact airspeed, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.

    a. 1/2; 5
    b. 1/2; 10
    c. 1; 10
    d. 3; 35
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.2-10 (W)]
  23. 23. It is the responsibility of _________ to ensure positive separation throughout refueling operations.

    a. tanker formation lead
    b. receiver formation lead
    c. tanker and receiver formation leads
    d. all formation members (both tanker and receiver)
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: ATP- [2L-2]
  24. 24. When using autothrottles for air refueling, speed changes should be made slowly and deliberately (_____ knot(s) increments) to preclude rapid throttle movements.

    a. 8
    b. 5
    c. 3
    d. 1
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  25. 25. Particular attention should be given when using the heading select knob with autothrottles engaged. The close proximity to and similarity with the speed knob creates the potential for _________.

    a. inadvertent speed changes
    b. inadvertent heading changes
    c. abrupt autopilot maneuvering
    d. autothrottle disconnect
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  26. 26. If the receiver fails to attain stabilized position, or it becomes apparent that a closure overrun will occur, _____________.

    a. the boom operator must advise the crew
    b. air refueling operations should be terminated
    c. breakaway procedures will be initiated
    d. disconnect the autopilot during closure and contact
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-3, 8.4-3 (W)]
  27. 27. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will take prompt action in the event of a(n)________________.

    a. rapid backout by receiver
    b. receiver aircraft limit demo
    c. inadvertent disconnect or boom failure
    d. autopilot malfunction or breakaway
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  28. 28. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will keep _______________.

    a. one hand on the throttles and the other hand on the control column
    b. one hand on the control column and the other hand available for immediate throttle operation
    c. one thumb on the control column disconnect switch and the other thumb on the throttle disconnect button
    d. both hands on the control column
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  29. 29. Except in an emergency, do not engage or disengage the autopilot while the receiver is ______________ as unscheduled attitude changes can occur.

    a. in the contact position
    b. inside the precontact position
    c. returning to precontact
    d. inside 1/2 NM
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-3 (W)]
  30. 30. If an overrunning receiver flies under the tanker, the tanker autopilot may sense low pressure as a climbing indication and _________________.

    a. slow down, increasing collision possibility
    b. initiate a rapid climb with resultant speed loss
    c. report erroneous altitudes through the Mode C
    d. initiate a descent into the lower aircraft
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.3-3, 8.4-3 (W)]
  31. 31. Do not use _____________ modes of the autopilot during air refueling.

    a. auto throttle
    b. heading select
    c. INU TACAN update
    d. navigation
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[4-150, 8.4-3 (W)]
  32. 32. If excessive fuel spillage occurs, initiate a disconnect. Discontinue refueling except in an emergency or ________________.

    a. when dictated by operational requirements
    b. to avoid embarrassment
    c. under all circumstances
    d. unless it's a checkride
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[8.4-5, 8.4-6 (W)]
  33. 33. If the drogue/hose will not rewind, it should not be jettisoned unless aircraft/crew safety requires immediate action.

    a. above 28,000 ft
    b. over the water
    c. over a populated area
    d. over a rural area
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[2A-170 (W)]
  34. 34. During C-130 refueling, do not raise or lower slats/flaps when the receiver is closer than ______________ because of the resultant pitch change of the tanker.

    a. the astern position
    b. 1 NM
    c. 1/2 NM
    d. 3 NM
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: ATP- (C) [8-43]
  35. 35. With two or more tankers and one receiver use echelon formation ___________________.

    a. stacked up at 1000 ft intervals with 2 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
    b. stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 2 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
    c. stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 1 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
    d. stacked up at 1000 ft intervals with 1 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: ATP- [2K-5]
  36. 36. Special consideration should be accorded _____________ above idle, as injury to personnel or damage to equipment could occur if they are in the blast pattern area.

    a. throttle settings
    b. number 1 and 3 engine throttle settings
    c. number 2 engine throttle settings
    d. reverse thrust throttle settings
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.1-10 (W)]
  37. 37. When cargo or passengers are carried, the environmental curtain shall be fully installed. This will ensure that the occupants have adequate protection from ________________.

    a. loose cargo loads
    b. cold from the cargo compartment
    c. heat from the cargo compartment
    d. smoke, fumes, and noise
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.1-65 (W)]
  38. 38. The APU should not be operated ________________ because the fire agent cannot be discharged.

    a. when the battery is removed or disconnected
    b. below -40°C
    c. above 50°C
    d. if the aircraft is cold soaked
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.2-20 (C)]
  39. 39. During ground refueling or defueling operations, do not operate which of the following equipment on the aircraft?

    a. Radio only
    b. Radar only
    c. Radio or radar only
    d. Radio, radar, or other electrical/electronics
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.3-12 (C)]
  40. 40. ________________ shall be stationed at the Flight Engineer's Fuel Control Panel for AC pumping unit defueling and at ground defueling units for all defueling operations.

    a. A qualified pilot
    b. Qualified personnel
    c. A fuel specialist
    d. A qualified engineer or unqualified engineer with direct instructor supervision
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.3-19 (C)]
  41. 41. When operating in manual boom latching mode, the ________________ initiate all disconnects.

    a. tanker must
    b. receiver must
    c. either tanker or receiver may
    d. AWACs controller must
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.3-25, 2A-79 (C)]
  42. 42. If a circuit breaker trips, a cooling period of ________ seconds should be allowed before resetting. A tripped circuit breaker should never ________________.

    a. 60; be reset more than once
    b. 60; be reset unless an emergency condition exists
    c. 90; be reset more than once
    d. 90; be reset unless an emergency condition exists
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-3 (C)]
  43. 43. If tripped, which of the following circuit breakers should not be reset until maintenance personnel can ensure solenoid housing is intact and that the solenoid coil is not shorted to the solenoid case?

    a. Manifold scavenge pump circuit breaker
    b. Manifold scavenge pump pressure low light circuit breaker
    c. Manifold scavenge valve circuit breaker
    d. Manifold scavenge transfer pump circuit breaker
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-3 (C)]
  44. 44. If numerous circuit breakers trip for one or more sub-systems, the circuit breakers should ________________.

    a. never be reset
    b. not be reset unless an emergency condition exists, until maintenance actions are complete
    c. not be reset more than once
    d. not be reset before a 90 seconds cooling period
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-3 (C)]
  45. 45. Circuit breakers ________________ in the event a Kapton wire flashover occurs.

    a. may not open
    b. will open
    c. will be reset immediately
    d. will not be reset under any circumstance
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-3 (C)]
  46. 46. Do not use EMER PWR SW to restore L EMER AC BUS ________________.

    a. under any circumstance
    b. if the ADG is deployed
    c. if R EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM D-21) trips
    d. if L EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM B-21) trips
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.4-29, 2A-41(C)]
  47. 47. Failure to monitor the throttle positions, with the autothrottles engaged and in any mode, may result in ________________.

    a. disengagement
    b. inadvertent speed changes
    c. engine overspeed
    d. excessive fuel consumption
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-49 (C)]
  48. 48. When climbing in the _________ mode of the flight guidance system, the airspeed must be closely monitored. The engines may not produce sufficient thrust to maintain the airspeed, due to gross weight and high altitudes.

    a. IAS HOLD
    b. CWS
    c. MACH HOLD
    d. VERT SPD
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-34, 4-88 (C)]
  49. 49. The maximum pitch attitude for the AT/SC system is ____ for takeoff and ____ for go-around.

    a. 15°; 22°
    b. 22°; 22°
    c. 22°; 15°
    d. there is no limit on the commanded pitch attitude
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-43 (N)]
  50. 50. Activation of the Hydraulic System 3 Shutoff Valve will cause ________________.

    a. autopilot 1 pitch control to become inoperative with autopilot 1 engaged
    b. autopilot 2 pitch control to become inoperative with autopilot 2 engaged
    c. autothrottle 1 control to become inoperative
    d. autothrottle 2 control to become inoperative
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-50 (W)]
  51. 51. Do not select GA mode when above ________________feet pressure altitude.

    a. 10,000
    b. 12,000
    c. 14,000
    d. 16,000
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-56 (C)]
  52. 52. After aircraft reaches ______, the thrust computer stops updating the N1 readout. The computer begins updating again when a new thrust mode is selected.

    a. 30 knots
    b. 80 knots
    c. 100 knots
    d. V1 speed
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.6-56 (N)]
  53. 53. Excess pedal pressure/deflection while applying manual braking techniques can result in___________.

    a. worn/blown tires
    b. skids
    c. center gear lower drag link failure
    d. all of the above
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.7-15 (C)]
  54. 54. If DOOR DISARM light remains on with slide arming lever in SLIDE ARMED position, ______________.

    a. move door control switch from the neutral position
    b. open door manually
    c. call maintenance
    d. recycle door
    • Ans: C
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.8-5 (C)]
  55. 55. Structural damage may occur if the cargo door is operated in winds exceeding ______knots.

    a. 40
    b. 30
    c. 20
    d. 10
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.8-15 (C)]
  56. 56. To avoid possible damage to the aircraft and/or ladder, raise ladder to the retracted position when ________________.

    a. aircraft is to be moved
    b. ladder is not in use and wind velocities of 35 knots are anticipated
    c. aircraft is to be left unattended
    d. all of the above
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.8-23(C)]
  57. 57. With the cabin pressure controller in AUTO mode, cabin altitude remains at departure airfield elevation until aircraft is _________________, at which time cabin altitude changes as indicated in the Automatic Pressurization Schedule.

    a. 5000' MSL
    b. 5000' above airfield
    c. Pressure Height for Acceleration
    d. just after rotation
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.10-3 (N)]
  58. 58. Crew rest bunks will not be occupied ________________.

    a. during takeoffs and landings
    b. by crew chiefs
    c. during air refueling operations
    d. when cruising above 35,000 ft
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.11-9 (W)]
  59. 59. If an IAU oxygen system circuit malfunction cannot be corrected, ________________.

    a. dispatch from MOB will not be attempted
    b. only qualified crew will use affected seats
    c. affected seats in the IAU must be replaced
    d. personnel shall not occupy the affected seats during flight
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.11-14 (W)]
  60. 60. Do not transmit on HF radio when ________________.

    a. the aircraft is on the ground and not properly grounded
    b. the APU is running
    c. thunderstorms are within 10 NM
    d. the aircraft is on the ground and personnel are working on the external skin surfaces or the boom
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.13-3 (W)]
  61. 61. Do not key the HF system when personnel are within______feet of the HF antenna.

    a. 50
    b. 100
    c. 150
    d. 200
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.13-3 (W)]
  62. 62. Operating the INU on the ground with AC power removed causes ________________.

    a. present position to change
    b. system overheat due to no air flow
    c. a warning horn to sound after 15 minutes
    d. alignment to drop to status 40
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-16 (C)]
  63. 63. The capability to insert or delete waypoints also applies to the TO (active) and FROM waypoint locations. Modification of these waypoints will ______________.

    a. have an immediate effect on aircraft navigation displays and flight guidance systems
    b. destroy the inertial platform alignment
    c. be accomplished whenever possible
    d. increase the number of useable waypoints
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-53 (W)]
  64. 64. It is recommended that the waypoint sequencing mode remain in ______ when the FMS is executing a SID, STAR, or approach procedure.

    a. Manual
    b. Auto
    c. From
    d. To
    • Ans: B
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-62 (N)]
  65. 65. A discontinuity in the flight plan may occur when using SIDs/STARs. The discontinuity can be resolved by the following method(s):

    a. Delete the discontinuity.
    b. Delete the waypoint associated with the discontinuity.
    c. Perform a Direct-To while in the discontinuity.
    d. All of the above
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-103]
  66. 66. If the FMS does not change to approach mode at the FAF, the PF should ________________.

    a. execute a missed approach and select another approach aid
    b. continue the approach to minimums
    c. reinitialize the FMS
    d. recheck RAIM
    • Ans: A
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-115(N)]
  67. 67. The radar antenna may be damaged if the function switch is moved to _______ while the aircraft is in motion.

    a. WX
    b. TEST
    c. STBY
    d. OFF
    • Ans: D
    • Ref: 1C-10(K)A-1[1.14-191 (C)]
Card Set
KC10 MQF 2017 - 1st Quarter of MQF
2017 KC-10 Master Question File (MQF). Released 1 Jan 2018. Contact Lt Col Vince Livie with questions/errors.