KC-10 Pilot FULL MQF (2017)

1. The refueling anchor pattern is a___________with legs separated by as little as 7 nm for smaller, slower tankers such as the KC-130 and as much as 20 nm for larger, faster tankers.

a. right hand race track pattern
b. left hand race track pattern
c. point parallel rendezvous
d. enroute rendezvous

2. The geographical point along the planned AAR track where fuel transfer should commence is the ____________.

a. Contact Point
b. ARIP
c. ARCP
d. Anchor Point

3. The ________ is the initial formation position for a receiver joining a tanker.

a. fingertip position
b. echelon left position
c. cocked position
d. on deck position

4. The Toboggan maneuver is a request from receiver for the tanker to start a slow descent, maintaining the refuelling airspeed. The rate of descent is________and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

a. 400 feet per NM
b. 500 feet per minute
c. between 300 and 500 ft per minute
d. 500 feet per NM

5. Do not refuel as a receiver above____________feet.

a. 33,000
b. 31,000
c. 29,000
d. 25,000

6. Do not transmit on the HF radio when _____. Transmitting on the HF may cause uncommanded KC-10A air refueling boom movement, endangering the tanker or receiver aircraft and crews.

a. only in contact with a KC-10
b. only in close proximity to the KC-10
c. in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10 air refueling boom
d. in contact with, or in close proximity to the KC-10 air refueling boom during night operations only.

7. If radio communication capability is lost or unreadable between the boom operator and receiver pilot, contacts will not be attempted except __________.

a. when operational necessity dictates
b. during an emergency fuel situation
c. when flying a Higher Headquarters Directed (HHD) mission
d. when authorized by the ATO or SPINS

8. Approaching boom limits at relatively high velocity can cause ________ as a result of an inability to disconnect due to binding action of the boom nozzle.

a. inner limit disconnect
b. loss of contact signal
c. structural damage
d. boom operator airsickness

9. All appropriate equipment should be operating a minimum of _________ (________ for A/A) prior to rendezvous control times (ARCT, RZ, etc.).

a. 15 min; 15 min
b. 30 min; 30 min
c. 15 min; 30 min
d. 30 min; 15 min

10. Normally, the tanker will orbit in a _____ pattern at a speed of _________.

a. Left hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight
b. Right hand; 275 KIAS or orbit speed, depending on gross weight
c. Left hand; 275 KIAS, regardless of gross weight
d. Right hand; 275 KIAS, regardless of gross weight

11. To help insure safe operation when range between aircraft is not known and the receiver has to descend through air refueling altitude, tankers will not initiate final turn to refueling track unless ______________rendezvous altitude.

a. tanker aircraft has confirmed level at proper
b. receiver aircraft has confirmed level at proper
c. tanker aircraft has confirmed level at 2,000 feet above
d. receiver aircraft has confirmed level at 2,000 feet below

12. If the KC-10A receiver is more than____in trail with the tanker, the airspeed may be increased for closure. The normal speed schedule will be resumed at _____in trail.

a. 3 NM; 1 NM
b. 1 NM; 1/2 NM
c. 4 NM; 3 NM
d. 2 NM; 1/2 NM

13. Attempts to effect a contact during a loss of any air refueling lighting that results in less than desired illumination will be at the discretion of the ________.

a. tanker mission commander
b. boom operator
c. receiver pilot
d. flight engineer

14. After a disconnect, remain stabilized in the contact position until the ____________.

a. pilot director lights show a disconnect
b. PNF visually confirms that the disconnect annunciator is illuminated and the boom is clear
c. flight engineer resets the UARSSI system
d. boom operator directs a return to precontact

15. Normal backout from the contact position should be accomplished _____________.

a. smoothly
b. slowly
c. rapidly
d. both a and b

16. When notified that a KC-10A boom flight control system failure has occurred, __________________.

a. initiate a breakaway immediately
b. initiate a disconnect immediately
c. do not initiate a disconnect unless directed by the boom operator
d. select amplifier override and continue air refueling

17. ________Air Refueling will not be conducted while tobogganing except in case of ____________.

a. Drogue, emergency
b. Tanker, AWACs mission requirements
c. Drogue, FTU training
d. WARP, FTU training

18. During the RECEIVER PREPARATION FOR CONTACT checklist, the IFF/ETCAS will be turned to standby __________.

a. when visual contact can be maintained with the tanker
b. when within 3 NM of the tanker
c. no later than 1/2 NM
d. all of the above

19. As a receiver, if overrunning occurs during breakaway, under no conditions should a turn, either right or left, be made until ______________has been attained.

a. a positive rate of climb
b. positive separation
c. a descent to the rendezvous altitude
d. an effective breakaway

20. If the KC-10 receiver loses sight of the tanker at any time, the receiver shall ________ until the receiver is definitely positioned aft of the tanker and has the tanker in visual contact.

a. establish a positive rate of descent to 1000 feet below air refueling altitude
b. immediately transition to instruments and level off
c. immediately turn away from the track
d. immediately extend full speed brakes

21. Pressure boom refueling will not be attempted except ____________.

a. during VMC conditions
b. during daylight hours
c. when needed to complete a checkride
d. when an emergency fuel shortage exists aboard the receiver aircraft

22. Tankers will maintain applicable contact air refueling airspeed during receiver closure. If within ________NM closure, the tanker is off airspeed by more than ______knots, and required to decelerate or accelerate to obtain contact airspeed, the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.

a. 1/2; 5
b. 1/2; 10
c. 1; 10
d. 3; 35

23. It is the responsibility of _________ to ensure positive separation throughout refueling operations.

a. tanker formation lead
b. receiver formation lead
c. tanker and receiver formation leads
d. all formation members (both tanker and receiver)

24. When using autothrottles for air refueling, speed changes should be made slowly and deliberately (_____ knot(s) increments) to preclude rapid throttle movements.

a. 8
b. 5
c. 3
d. 1

25. Particular attention should be given when using the heading select knob with autothrottles engaged. The close proximity to and similarity with the speed knob creates the potential for _________.

a. inadvertent speed changes
b. inadvertent heading changes
c. abrupt autopilot maneuvering
d. autothrottle disconnect

26. If the receiver fails to attain stabilized position, or it becomes apparent that a closure overrun will occur, _____________.

a. the boom operator must advise the crew
b. air refueling operations should be terminated
c. breakaway procedures will be initiated
d. disconnect the autopilot during closure and contact

27. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will take prompt action in the event of a(n)________________.

a. rapid backout by receiver
b. receiver aircraft limit demo
c. inadvertent disconnect or boom failure
d. autopilot malfunction or breakaway

28. The pilot flying the aircraft during air refueling operations with the autopilot engaged will keep _______________.

a. one hand on the throttles and the other hand on the control column
b. one hand on the control column and the other hand available for immediate throttle operation
c. one thumb on the control column disconnect switch and the other thumb on the throttle disconnect button
d. both hands on the control column

29. Except in an emergency, do not engage or disengage the autopilot while the receiver is ______________ as unscheduled attitude changes can occur.

a. in the contact position
b. inside the precontact position
c. returning to precontact
d. inside 1/2 NM

30. If an overrunning receiver flies under the tanker, the tanker autopilot may sense low pressure as a climbing indication and _________________.

a. slow down, increasing collision possibility
b. initiate a rapid climb with resultant speed loss
c. report erroneous altitudes through the Mode C
d. initiate a descent into the lower aircraft

31. Do not use _____________ modes of the autopilot during air refueling.

a. auto throttle
b. heading select
c. INU TACAN update
d. navigation

32. If excessive fuel spillage occurs, initiate a disconnect. Discontinue refueling except in an emergency or ________________.

a. when dictated by operational requirements
b. to avoid embarrassment
c. under all circumstances
d. unless it's a checkride

33. If the drogue/hose will not rewind, it should not be jettisoned __________ unless aircraft/crew safety requires immediate action.

a. above 28,000 ft
b. over the water
c. over a populated area
d. over a rural area

34. During C-130 refueling, do not raise or lower slats/flaps when the receiver is closer than ______________ because of the resultant pitch change of the tanker.

a. the astern position
b. 1 NM
c. 1/2 NM
d. 3 NM

35. With two or more tankers and one receiver use echelon formation ________________.

a. stacked up at 1000 ft intervals with 2 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
b. stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 2 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
c. stacked up at 500 ft intervals with 1 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon
d. stacked up at 1000 ft intervals with 1 nm nose-to-nose separation measured along the 60° echelon

36. Special consideration should be accorded _____________ above idle, as injury to personnel or damage to equipment could occur if they are in the blast pattern area.

a. throttle settings
b. number 1 and 3 engine throttle settings
c. number 2 engine throttle settings
d. reverse thrust throttle settings

37. When cargo or passengers are carried, the environmental curtain shall be fully installed. This will ensure that the occupants have adequate protection from ________________.

a. loose cargo loads
b. cold from the cargo compartment
c. heat from the cargo compartment
d. smoke, fumes, and noise

38. The APU should not be operated ________________ because the fire agent cannot be discharged.

a. when the battery is removed or disconnected
b. below -40°C
c. above 50°C
d. if the aircraft is cold soaked

39. During ground refueling or defueling operations, do not operate which of the following equipment on the aircraft?

a. Radio only
b. Radar only
c. Radio or radar only
d. Radio, radar, or other electrical/electronics

40. ________________ shall be stationed at the Flight Engineer?s Fuel Control Panel for AC pumping unit defueling and at ground defueling units for all defueling operations.

a. A qualified pilot
b. Qualified personnel
c. A fuel specialist
d. A qualified engineer or unqualified engineer with direct instructor supervision

41. When operating in manual boom latching mode, the ________________ initiate all disconnects.

a. tanker must
b. receiver must
c. either tanker or receiver may
d. AWACs controller must

42. If a circuit breaker trips, a cooling period of ________ seconds should be allowed before resetting. A tripped circuit breaker should never ________________.

a. 60; be reset more than once
b. 60; be reset unless an emergency condition exists
c. 90; be reset more than once
d. 90; be reset unless an emergency condition exists

43. If tripped, which of the following circuit breakers should not be reset until maintenance personnel can ensure solenoid housing is intact and that the solenoid coil is not shorted to the solenoid case?

a. Manifold scavenge pump circuit breaker
b. Manifold scavenge pump pressure low light circuit breaker
c. Manifold scavenge valve circuit breaker
d. Manifold scavenge transfer pump circuit breaker

44. If numerous circuit breakers trip for one or more sub-systems, the circuit breakers should ________________.

a. never be reset
b. not be reset unless an emergency condition exists, until maintenance actions are complete
c. not be reset more than once
d. not be reset before a 90 seconds cooling period

45. Circuit breakers ________________ in the event a Kapton wire flashover occurs.

a. may not open
b. will open
c. will be reset immediately
d. will not be reset under any circumstance

46. Do not use EMER PWR SW to restore L EMER AC BUS ________________.

a. under any circumstance
b. if the ADG is deployed
c. if R EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM D-21) trips
d. if L EMER AC BUS feed CB (UM B-21) trips

47. Failure to monitor the throttle positions, with the autothrottles engaged and in any mode, may result in ________________.

a. disengagement
b. inadvertent speed changes
c. engine overspeed
d. excessive fuel consumption

48. When climbing in the _________ mode of the flight guidance system, the airspeed must be closely monitored. The engines may not produce sufficient thrust to maintain the airspeed, due to gross weight and high altitudes.

a. IAS HOLD
b. CWS
c. MACH HOLD
d. VERT SPD

49. The maximum pitch attitude for the AT/SC system is ____ for takeoff and ____ for go-around.

a. 15°; 22°
b. 22°; 22°
c. 22°; 15°
d. there is no limit on the commanded pitch attitude

50. Activation of the Hydraulic System 3 Shutoff Valve will cause ________________.

a. autopilot 1 pitch control to become inoperative with autopilot 1 engaged
b. autopilot 2 pitch control to become inoperative with autopilot 2 engaged
c. autothrottle 1 control to become inoperative
d. autothrottle 2 control to become inoperative

51. Do not select GA mode when above ________________feet pressure altitude.

a. 10,000
b. 12,000
c. 14,000
d. 16,000

52. After aircraft reaches ______, the thrust computer stops updating the N1 readout. The computer begins updating again when a new thrust mode is selected.

a. 30 knots
b. 80 knots
c. 100 knots
d. V1 speed

53. Excess pedal pressure/deflection while applying manual braking techniques can result in___________.

a. worn/blown tires
b. skids
c. center gear lower drag link failure
d. all of the above

54. If DOOR DISARM light remains on with slide arming lever in SLIDE ARMED position, ______________.

a. move door control switch from the neutral position
b. open door manually
c. call maintenance
d. recycle door

55. Structural damage may occur if the cargo door is operated in winds exceeding ______knots.

a. 40
b. 30
c. 20
d. 10

56. To avoid possible damage to the aircraft and/or ladder, raise ladder to the retracted position when ________________.

a. aircraft is to be moved
b. ladder is not in use and wind velocities of 35 knots are anticipated
c. aircraft is to be left unattended
d. all of the above

57. With the cabin pressure controller in AUTO mode, cabin altitude remains at departure airfield elevation until aircraft is _________________, at which time cabin altitude changes as indicated in the Automatic Pressurization Schedule.

a. 5000? MSL
b. 5000? above airfield
c. Pressure Height for Acceleration
d. just after rotation

58. Crew rest bunks will not be occupied ________________.

a. during takeoffs and landings
b. by crew chiefs
c. during air refueling operations
d. when cruising above 35,000 ft

59. If an IAU oxygen system circuit malfunction cannot be corrected, ________________.

a. dispatch from MOB will not be attempted
b. only qualified crew will use affected seats
c. affected seats in the IAU must be replaced
d. personnel shall not occupy the affected seats during flight

60. Do not transmit on HF radio when ________________.

a. the aircraft is on the ground and not properly grounded
b. the APU is running
c. thunderstorms are within 10 NM
d. the aircraft is on the ground and personnel are working on the external skin surfaces or the boom

61. Do not key the HF system when personnel are within______feet of the HF antenna.

a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200

62. Operating the INU on the ground with AC power removed causes ________________.

a. present position to change
b. system overheat due to no air flow
c. a warning horn to sound after 15 minutes
d. alignment to drop to status 40

63. The capability to insert or delete waypoints also applies to the TO (active) and FROM waypoint locations. Modification of these waypoints will ________________.

a. have an immediate effect on aircraft navigation displays and flight guidance systems
b. destroy the inertial platform alignment
c. be accomplished whenever possible
d. increase the number of useable waypoints

64. It is recommended that the waypoint sequencing mode remain in________when the FMS is executing a SID, STAR, or approach procedure.
 
a. Manual
b. Auto
c. From
d. To

65. A discontinuity in the flight plan may occur when using SIDs/STARs. The discontinuity can be resolved by the following method(s):

a. Delete the discontinuity.
b. Delete the waypoint associated with the discontinuity.
c. Perform a Direct-To while in the discontinuity.
d. All of the above

66. If the FMS does not change to approach mode at the FAF, the PF should ________________.

a. execute a missed approach and select another approach aid
b. continue the approach to minimums
c. reinitialize the FMS
d. recheck RAIM

67. The radar antenna may be damaged if the function switch is moved to _______while the aircraft is in motion.

a. WX
b. TEST
c. STBY
d. OFF

68. Do not select ________________unless personnel are clear of the antenna radiation area.

a. OFF to STBY
b. STBY to TEST
c. TEST to STBY
d. WX, MAP 1, MAP 2, or BCN

69. Precipitation diffuses the radar signal and reduces the ability to detect the signal return. The amount of signal dissipation is directly proportional to the rate of rainfall. It is possible for ________________.

a. the KC-10 radar to compensate for signal diffusion and attenuation
b. the radar to depict all weather formations regardless of precipitation
c. long range scale to give the best resolution of weather echoes
d. a storm cell to mask another cell, which could be larger and/or more intense

70. All TCAS aural warnings are inhibited below ________________feet radio altitude on approach and up to ________________ feet radio altitude on departure.

a. 100; 500
b. 200; 500
c. 500; 1000
d. 900; 1100

71. The boom shall be maintained full of fuel when the departure, enroute or arrival flight path may place the aircraft ________________.

a. within 10 NM of bad weather
b. in the vicinity of lightning
c. within 25 NM of bad weather
d. in the vicinity of bad weather

72. Concerning emergency signals, all intermittent system failure lights will _________.

a. be troubleshot after being intermittent for at least 3 minutes
b. be troubleshot after being intermittent for at least 5 minutes
c. be treated the same as steady lights
d. not be troubleshot

73. During a LOSS OF ALL ENGINES/GENERATORS, if engine 1 or 3 does not restart within approximately ___________, immediate consideration should be given to restarting engine 2. Do not operate _________________.

a. 15 seconds; control surfaces
b. 30 seconds; flaps/slats
c. 45 seconds; flaps/slats
d. 3 minutes; rudders

74. With a loss of all generators and emergency power only, the battery cannot be relied upon for more than ________________. Attempting an APU start will discharge the battery.

a. 5 minute
b. 15 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 45 minutes

75. With a dual hydraulic system failure ________________.

a. autothrottles may be used except for approach and landing with flaps less than 35°
b. land at nearest suitable airfield
c. minimize use of more than one hydraulic powered control at a time
d. all of the above

76. During dual hydraulic system failure 1 & 2, do not reduce speed to below VMCA until ________________.

a. landing is assured
b. flaps are set for landing
c. all gear are down and locked
d. the flare is initiated

77. With a dual hydraulic system failure 1 & 2, a missed approach should not be attempted if ________________.

a. upper rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
b. lower rudder is inoperative and thrust is asymmetric
c. both rudders are operative but thrust is asymmetric
d. both rudders are inoperative and thrust is asymmetric

78. After gear alternate extension do not exceed ________KIAS.

a. 230
b. 260
c. 280
d. 300

79. For a dual hydraulic system failure 1 and 3, if upper rudder is inoperative do not reduce speed to below ________________until landing is assured.

a. VMCA (127 KIAS)
b. VMCA (137 KIAS)
c. VMCA (147 KIAS)
d. VMCA (157 KIAS)

80. During the period that all ENG PNEU SUPPLY Sels are off, the aircraft will depressurize at approximately _________________.

a. 500 FPM
b. 1,000 FPM
c. 1,500 FPM
d. 2,000 FPM

81. If both fire agent bottles for engine 2 have been discharged, do not _________________.

a. start APU
b. restart number 2 engine
c. attempt a go-around
d. use associated air conditioning system

82. Following an engine failure, once the aircraft is configured for landing ________________may not exist at high gross weights and extreme ambient conditions with an additional engine failure.

a. go-around capability
b. directional control
c. glide path control
d. course control

83. In a two engine operation situation ________________.

a. use 35° flaps for landing
b. delay slat/flap and landing gear extension as long as practical
c. do not use autopilot for go-around
d. all of the above

84. In a single engine operation situation, if cabin pressure cannot be maintained, passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically at approximately ________ feet cabin altitude; the passengers have ________minutes of oxygen available.

a. 8,000; 11
b. 14,000; 22
c. 10,000; 33
d. 12,000; 44

85. Under which of the following conditions MAY a single engine missed approach be attempted?

a. Airspeed below single engine approach speed
b. Gear is extended
c. Airspeed above single engine approach speed
d. Less than 1,000 feet above airfield elevation

86. During a CONTROLLABILITY CHECK______ to the point at which full control deflection is required about any axis.

a. allow speed to decrease
b. allow speed to increase
c. never allow speed to decrease
d. never allow speed to increase

87. Under what condition should a controllability check in the planned landing configuration be considered?

a. Damage has occurred to any portion of the airplane structure sufficient to change the airplane normal flight and control characteristics.
b. The aircraft experiences in flight control malfunctions.
c. There is an uncorrectable fuel imbalance.
d. All of the above

88. In a ditching situation, cabin doors may not open for evacuation _________________.

a. only if the cabin is pressurized above 9.1 psi
b. only if the cabin is pressurized above 8.6 psi
c. only is the cabin is pressurized above 3.0 psi
d. if cabin is pressurized

89. Damage to the slats can result if wing anti-ice is operated on the ground for more than ________seconds.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 45

90. If volts and frequency indicate after a CSD disconnect button is pushed, ________________.

a. shut down the engine immediately
b. continue engine operation with the generator on
c. continue engine operation with the generator off
d. reset the generator, then shut the engine down if volts and frequency still indicate

91. Failure of the L EMER DC BUS or the R EMER DC BUS will cause the failure of the associated CDU, BSIU, EHSI, EADI and civil GPS. Navigation guidance can be restored to the functioning side by:

a. Placing the EMER PWR SW to ON.
b. Splitting the 1553 bus.
c. Selecting the respective autopilot or autopilot 2 if both autopilots were off when the system failed.
d. Depowering the failed component.

92. If final flap selection is less than 35°, it is possible that the boom will contact the runway at _____body angle, struts extended and _____struts compressed.

a. 13°; 11°
b. 11°; 13°
c. 10°; 12°
d. 10°; 12°

93. During ASYMMETRIC SLATS OR NO SLAT LANDING WITH FLAPS, if landing with 22°/EXT and the spoiler handle in ARM, spoilers extend automatically ________________.

a. on main wheel spinup
b. on nosewheel strut compression
c. by reverser lever actuation
d. the ARM function will not work with 22°/EXT

94. With a complete pitot blockage, airspeed will ________in a climb and __________in a descent provided static port is unblocked.

a. INCREASE, INCREASE
b. DECREASE, DECREASE
c. INCREASE, DECREASE
d. DECREASE, INCREASE

95. If the static system is blocked, altimeter and VSI will show _____________ regardless of the aircraft's pitch attitude and power settings.

a. a climb
b. a descent
c. level flight
d. off flags

96. With the loss of all GPSs the _________ solutions provide more accurate navigation solutions than a INU ONLY navigation solution.

a. MIL 1 or MIL2
b. GPS 1 or GPS2
c. CIV1 or CIV2
d. INU1 or INU3

97. If GPS1 and GPS2 both fail, and subsequently one GPS is restored, the __________ will use the first GPS restored.

a. Pitot Static System
b. FMS
c. CDU
d. INU

98. During a NO FLAP/NO SLAT LANDING, with the alternate gear extension lever in the raised position ______________.

a. nose gear steering to the right is limited to 25°
b. nose gear steering to the left is limited to 25°
c. the outboard ailerons will be unlocked
d. Both A and C

99.  If the SELECT FLAP LIMIT OVRD light is on________ .

a. structural damage may occur if flap limit airspeeds are exceeded
b. the flaps are still protected from structural damage due to overspeed
c. extension and retraction of the flaps will now be inhibited
d. it will take 20 seconds longer to extend or retract the flaps

100.  If the SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT COMES ON DURING TAKEOFF AFTER V1, at level off altitude, _______________.

a. retract flaps only
b. reduce pitch attitude and accelerate to 0°/EXT MIN MAN. Retract flaps and continue a cceleration
to 0°/RET MIN MAN. Retract and inspect slats.
c. clean up after accomplishing a controllability check
d. retract flaps and slats only after being visually inspected by an additional crewmember

101.  With SLAT DISAGREE LIGHT ON during takeoff or go-around, do not move FLAP/SLAT handle until ____________.

a. 500 feet above airfield elevation
b. a safe altitude and airspeed has been attained
c. 1000 feet above airfield elevation
d. minimum acceleration height

102. During a stabilizer inoperative landing be prepared to_____.

a. use maximum control column force for flare
b. maintain thrust until nosewheel touchdown
c. push forward abruptly to lower the nose
d. use a higher than normal sink rate during flare

103. In an UNSCHEDULED AUTO SLAT EXTENSION situation, the ________________or 0.75 M whichever is lower.

a. inboard slats are extended, do not exceed 250 KIAS
b. inboard slats are extended, do not exceed 270 KIAS
c. inboard slats are extended, do not exceed 271 KIAS
d. outboard slats are extended, do not exceed 270 KIAS

104. During cruise if the slat reset switch light and slat disagree light are still on (after an unscheduled auto-slat extension and the slat reset switch-light was pushed) the ________________.

a. slats are retracted
b. slats are in the takeoff range
c. inboard slats are extended
d. outboard slats are extended

105. In a fuel dump situation, with AR PUMP OVRD selected, FWD TANK fuel will continue to dump ________________pounds.

a. until it reaches 15,000
b. below 15,000
c. until it reaches 11,500
d. until it reaches 5,000

106. Fuel dump in response to a takeoff emergency should not be initiated prior to________________.

a. slat retraction speed
b. reviewing the FUEL DUMP checklist procedures
c. reaching TWO ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT
d. reaching THREE ENGINE ACCELERATION HEIGHT

107. If the ABNORMAL BRAKE checklist is initiated for a HIGH ENERGY STOP (any stop initiated in excess of _________knots), make AFTO 781A entry.

a. 80
b. 100
c. 130
d. 150

108. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (caution zone), if a 400°C temperature exists for more than_______minutes, wheel fuse plugs may activate and deflate the tire(s).

a. 60
b. 30
c. 10
d. 5

109. In an ABNORMAL BRAKE situation (danger zone), which of the following is NOT true?

a. Immediately move aircraft to clear active runway or ramp
b. Do not set parking brake
c. Fire is possible within 30 minutes
d. After 5 minutes, fog or foam may be used to reduce cooling time

110. In a GEAR HANDLE WILL NOT MOVE TO DOWN POSITION situation, after the main gear alternate gear extension lever is raised and latched, the main gear alternate extension lever must be________________.

a. stowed to prevent inadvertent gear retraction
b. left in the raised position to prevent inadvertent gear retraction
c. stowed after the alternate gear ext handle-center gear is pulled
d. stowed after the gear lights indicate 4 green

111. In a GEAR UNSAFE LT(S) ON WITH GEAR HANDLE UP (CONFIRMED ON BOTH PANELS) situation, if gear does not appear normal (for example, if main gear retraction is blocked by gear door) or if condition of gear cannot be determined, __________.

a. do not attempt additional gear retraction. one attempt to retract the gear can be made
c. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 230 KIAS
d. do not attempt additional gear retraction unless the airspeed is below 185 KIAS

112. Under operation with single pneumatic system, do not operate more than one air conditioning pack with power set at or above ____________.

a. MCR
b. MCT
c. CL
d. GA

113. During an ABNORMAL START, do not select alternate ignition before completion of______ second motoring period.

a. 15
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60

114. During an ABNORMAL START, if fuel flow was above_____PPH, a second attempt may result in a hot start.

a. 400
b. 500
c. 600
d. 700

115. To prevent transcowl clevis damage,_______ when failure to stow is noted during ground operations.

a. manually stow the thrust reverser
b. immediately shut down the respective engine
c. do not attempt to stow a thrust reverser
d. operate the engine with minimum thrust

116. Engine anti-ice will be turned on immediately after engine start when outside air temperature is __________________.

a. at 8°C or less and moisture is visible
b. at 8°C or less and the temperature-dewpoint spread is 3°C or less
c. below 6°C, and either visible moisture is present or the temperature-dewpoint spread is 6°C or less
d. below 6°C, and either visible moisture is present or the temperature-dewpoint spread is 3°C or less

117. Windshield anti-ice selectors should ___________.

a. be in HIGH only for the duration of moderate to heavy icing
b. be in NORM for the duration of moderate to heavy icing
c. be in off when icing conditions are imminent
d. be in auto when icing conditions are imminent

118. Maximum slat operating speed, landing setting, is_____KIAS or _____M.

a. 221; 0.55
b. 221; 0.51
c. 250; 0.54
d. 270; 0.55

119. The________________must be operational for dispatch.

a. No. 1 Auxiliary Pump Switch
b. No. 2 Auxiliary Pump Switch
c. No. 1 and No. 2 Auxiliary Pump Switches
d. No. 3 Auxiliary Pump Switch

120. Do not attempt [engine] starter re-engagement______% N2 rpm. Starter damage may occur.

a. above 20
b. below 20
c. above 30
d. below 30

121. The [engine] starter motor may be operated continuously for as long as________________.

a. 1 minute
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes

122. Normally, engine starter re-engagement should be made with N2 rpm below 20%. Under emergency conditions such as engine fire indication, re-engagement may be made with N2 rpm as high as_______.

a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 35%
d. 40%

123. During engine start, the normal EGT limit is_____°C.

a. 700
b. 750
c. 800
d. 900

124. During engine start, the maximum EGT limit is_____°C.

a. 900
b. 910
c. 945
d. 960

125. During engine start, EGT in excess of____°C requires a 781 entry.

a. 750
b. 800
c. 900
d. 910

126. During engine start, EGT peaks between 750°C and 900°C are limited to____seconds.

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

127. One start is allowed in the__________ °C range and the intended flight may be completed before maintenance action.

a. 945 to 960
b. 910 to 945
c. 900 to 910
d. 800 to 900

128. Following two consecutive 5 minute engine starting cycles, a______cooling period is required between additional 5 minute cycles.

a. 30 second
b. 5 minute
c. 10 minute
d. 20 minute

129. The limiting tailwind component is____knots.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 21
d. 31

130. Autoslat extension maximum speed is____KIAS or____M whichever is lower.

a. 170; 0.51
b. 221; 0.51
c. 270; 0.55
d. 270; 0.70

131. Maximum N1 for takeoff, climb, cruise and MCT is_______.

a. 100%
b. 109.5%
c. 118.5%
d. 125%

132. Max EGT during takeoff is_____°C for 5 minutes and____°C for 2 minutes.

a. 750; 800
b. 800; 900
c. 910; 945
d. 945; 960

133. During takeoff, an EGT reading between 946 and 960 °C is limited to____minutes.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

134. The normal takeoff thrust duration of 5 minutes may be extended to____minutes for engine-out contingency.

a. 7
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

135. The normal engine oil consumption is_____quarts per hour.

a. 2.0
b. 1.0
c. .55
d. .35

136. The maximum engine oil consumption is____quarts per hour.

a. 2.0
b. 1.0
c. .55
d. .35

137. For engine out of limit operations,________________of any operations beyond the stated limits shall be recorded in the 781.

a. EGT and N1
b. EGT, N1, and fuel flow
c. EGT and N2
d. duration and extent

138. The maximum unrestricted landing weight of the KC-10 is ________pounds.

a. 400,000
b. 411,000
c. 436,000
d. 556,000

139. Planned overweight landings are not recommended. Overweight landings may be accomplished when operational necessity dictates or in the case of emergency. Under these conditions, use _______.

a. 0° flaps
b. 50° flaps
c. a maximum of 35° flaps
d. a maximum of 22° flaps

140. If the autoslats cannot be retracted, continued flight is allowed at speeds up to____KIAS or____M whichever is lower.

a. 221; 0.51
b. 250; 0.51
c. 270; 0.55
d. 270; 0.75

141. At the minimum air refueling speed under normal conditions, a bank angle of over____° can result in moderate buffet.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 33

142. During landings at weights over maximum unrestricted landing weight (MLW), the rate of descent at touchdown must not exceed____fpm, and a flap overspeed/overweight as well as an aircraft overweight landing inspection must be performed.

a. 360
b. 600
c. 630
d. 1,000

143. Maximum operating speed during fuel dump is____KIAS below 28,000 ft, or____M above 28,000 ft.

a. 325; 0.55
b. 350; 0.88
c. 325; 0.82
d. 330; 0.82

144. Acceptable starting of the APU may be accomplished in the Standby control mode up to________________feet.

a. 10,000
b. 20,000
c. 25,000
d. 32,500

145. APU starting, normal control mode, is unrestricted up to________________feet.

a. 10,000
b. 20,000
c. 25,000
d. 32,500

146. The APU starter duty cycle should not exceed 1 minute on, followed by____off for cooling.

a. 1 minute
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes

147. The maximum landing weight with the anti-skid inoperative is________________pounds.

a. 556,000
b. 436,000
c. 400,000
d. 411,000

148. The maximum landing weight with the center gear retracted is________________pounds.

a. 400,000
b. 411,000
c. 436,000
d. 556,000

149. Maximum taxi weight, normal operations is________________pounds.

a. 500,000
b. 503,000
c. 590,000
d. 593,000

150. Maximum start takeoff and inflight gross weight, normal operation is________________pounds.

a. 593,000
b. 590,000
c. 588,000
d. 556,000

151. Normal operation, max zero fuel weight is________________pounds.

a. 414,000
b. 436,000
c. 439,000
d. 503,000

152. Which of the following is NOT true concerning APU operation?

a. The APU is not to be used for wing anti-ice.
b. The APU can be used for engine anti-ice.
c. The APU will not be used during any aerial refueling.
d. The APU will not be used with a known fuel leak in the boom pivot area.

153. With the increased accommodation kit (IAK) installed, cabin crewmembers must be provided with demand crew oxygen masks adaptable to the demand regulators on the________________.

a. wine cellar bulkhead
b. lavatory ceiling
c. passenger oxygen kits
d. portable oxygen units

154. Minimum airspeed for centerline hose/drogue refueling from sea level to 20,000 ft MSL is:

a. 185 KIAS
b. 200 KIAS
c. 230 KIAS
d. 255 KIAS

155. The minimum speed for WARP hose extension is_____knots and the maximum speed for hose retraction is______knots.

a. 200; 325
b. 200; 275
c. 230; 280
d. 230; 300

156. The wing air refueling pod fuel system, including the hose must be kept full of fuel to decrease the risk of lightning strike damage and for________________.

a. fuel temperature control
b. proper fuel pump lubrication
c. immediate availability of fuel for offload
d. providing a positive inlet fuel pressure for the pod valves

157. The UARRSI hydraulic shutoff valve must remain_____for all flight operations except when required for refueling operations.

a. armed
b. locked
c. opened
d. closed

158. Do not reset any tripped_______circuit breakers.

a. lavatory
b. fuel pump
c. flight instrument
d. mode 4

159. The maximum lateral fuel unbalance is___________pounds for gross weights less than 556,000 pounds.

a. 2,000
b. 3,000
c. 4,000
d. 5,000

160. The maximum lateral fuel unbalance is___________pounds for gross weights of 556,000 pounds or more.

a. 5,000
b. 4,000
c. 3,000
d. 2,000

161. When aircraft gross weight exceeds ________ pounds or the sum of the zero fuel weight and fuel in the body tanks exceeds___________pounds, the main tanks must be maintained full.

a. 556,000; 414,000
b. 414,000; 400,000
c. 411,000; 400,000
d. 556,000; 436,000

162. The main tanks 1, 2 and 3 must be maintained full if the gross weight exceeds ________ pounds.

a. 436,000
b. 546,000
c. 556,000
d. 565,000

163. The main tanks 1, 2 and 3 must be maintained full when the sum of zero fuel weight and weight of fuel in body tanks exceeds ________ pounds.

a. 414,000
b. 400,000
c. 391,000
d. 380,000

164. Movement and use of reverse thrust are___________.

a. allowed for combat descents only
b. used to back up the aircraft
c. prohibited in flight
d. used at pilot discretion

165. The___________function of the takeoff warning system must be operative for takeoff.

a. parking brake
b. stabilizer
c. flap
d. slat

166. In the yaw damper system, any____channels must be operating prior to the start of takeoff.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

167. Use of elevator (Elevator Load Feel) switch is limited to_______position except for an abnormal condition.

a. AUTO
b. MANUAL
c. OVERRIDE
d. DISENGAGED

168. The speedbrakes are used only in the fully___________.

a. extended flap configuration with slats extended
b. extended flap configuration with slats retracted
c. retracted flap configuration and only with slats retracted
d. retracted flap configuration with or without slats extended

169. Do not extend ground spoilers______________________.

a. until nosewheel is off the ground
b. during flight
c. unless stopping distance is critical
d. if reverse thrust is used

170. The ____________ must be disengaged when operating on emergency power.

a. No. 1 autopilot pitch trim function
b. No. 2 autopilot pitch trim function
c. No. 1 and No. 2 autopilots pitch trim functions
d. autopilot

171. The autopilot must be disengaged and the autopilot pitch trim (APT) disabled when an AP OUT OF TRIM light is illuminated continuously in excess of____seconds after the aircraft is stabilized and tracking the glideslope.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

172. Do not automatically capture glideslope above___________during autopilot ILS coupled approaches.

a. 2500 feet AGL
b. 2500 feet MSL
c. 250 knots
d. 220 knots

173. Do not use autopilot go-around with___________.

a. an engine failure
b. a generator failure
c. less than G/A power
d. autothrottles disconnected

174. When executing takeoffs with derated thrust settings and using speeds limited by VMCG for maximum thrust, the flight director may command______________________.

a. too high a pitch setting
b. too low a pitch setting
c. incorrect airspeed/pitch attitude if an engine failure occurs and the remaining engine?s thrust is increased
d. adequate airspeed/pitch attitude if an engine failure occurs and the remaining engine?s thrust is increased

175. FMS instrument approaches must be accomplished in the FMS approach mode and GPS RAIM must be available___________.

a. at the IAF
b. from the IAF to the MAP
c. for five minutes
d. at the final approach fix

176. Under which of the following conditions should the cockpit door be latched open during takeoffs and landings, since cockpit windows may become the primary exits?

a. If no operable slide raft installed on the aircraft
b. If only one slide raft is operable
c. If only two slide rafts are operable
d. If only three slide rafts are operable

177. Ensure autothrottles are disconnected___________during touch and go landings.

a. after touchdown
b. on final approach
c. prior to touchdown
d. after takeoff

178. Each door arming handle for the emergency evacuation system must be in the___________position prior to removing the airstairs/ramp, and remain in position until arrival at the unloading ramp, and stand or ramp is in position.

a. SLIDE ARMED
b. SLIDE DISARMED
c. DOOR ARMED
d. EMERGENCY OVERRIDE

179. With only one operable slide raft, a one time flight may be made to a repair facility provided this flight is not an extended over water flight. The operable raft must be installed in_________and total flight/ground crew will be_____or less.

a. door 1R; 12
b. a forward door; 12
c. door 1L; 16
d. a forward door; 25

180. For extended overwater operation, at least____slide rafts must be installed.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

181. Ensure that the center accessory compartment has been inspected for fuel leaks______________________.

a. prior to the initial application of electrical power and prior to fuel servicing
b. prior to the initial application of electrical power and after fuel servicing
c. after the initial application of electrical power and prior to fuel servicing
d. after the initial application of electrical power and after fuel servicing

182. After an unsuccessful APU start, do not attempt another start until___________.

a. APU shutdown cycle is complete
b. APU shutdown cycle is complete and APU DOOR OPEN light goes off
c. APU shutdown cycle is complete but prior to the APU DOOR OPEN light going off
d. a 5 minutes cooling off period

183. Ensure the oxygen regulator is in the 100% and ON position at all times during flight when position is occupied. With the regulator in the OFF position, the mask___________.

a. will not allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe
b. may allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe
c. will not allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe unless the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet
d. may allow ambient air to enter after initial attempt to breathe provided to cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet

184. During engine start, if all pneumatic PRESS gages continue to indicate less than 25 PSI with the start valve closed and all ENG PNEU SUPPLY selectors rotated to OFF, and operational conditions necessitate the use of lower pneumatic pressure, a start may be made as low as______.

a. 10 PSI
b. 15 PSI
c. 20 PSI
d. 22 PSI

185. During a scramble situation, prior to starting the___________, the crew will ensure that engine start will not cause a hazard to responding crewmembers.

a. No. 1 engine
b. No. 2 engine
c. No. 3 engine
d. wing engines

186. In a scramble situation, when responding, crewmembers must approach the entry ladder from the nose of the aircraft and avoid the engine intake danger area (___________).

a. 5 foot radius
b. 10 foot radius
c. 15 foot radius
d. 20 foot radius

187. The Takeoff Warning System does not provide notification of flaps being set to___________during takeoff.

a. zero
b. 35° to 40°
c. 41° to 45°
d. 46° to 50°

188. If there are any changes to takeoff procedures and/or clearances,___________should acknowledge.

a. the PNF and FE
b. the PNF and BO
c. the PNF
d. all crewmembers

189. Always comply with a TCAS RA unless___________.

a. the pilot considers it unsafe to do so or has better information about the source of the RA and can maintain safe separation
b. in IMC conditions
c. in the terminal area
d. all of the above

190. If takeoff warning horn sounds while advancing throttles for takeoff,______________________.

a. check that flaps are symmetrical
b. disarm spoilers and continue takeoff
c. discontinue takeoff
d. disconnect the autothrottles and set takeoff thrust manually

191. If the vertical speed selector and speed select knob are used to command climb rate and IAS, it is possible to___________.

a. overspeed the engines
b. overtemp the engines
c. exceed the mach limit
d. command a climb rate in excess of aircraft capability

192. Engaging autothrottle(s) immediately after takeoff while thrust computer is in____can result in engine overboost. Such an overboost results from engine bleed changes.

a. TO
b. GA
c. CL
d. MCT

193. As you approach V1 the decision to abort should be based upon___________.

a. the pilot not flying
b. an increased level of criticality
c. the best judgment of the pilot flying
d. taking off in the remaining runway available

194. To reduce liability of loss of a second engine (TRT or Reduced Thrust takeoff), do not advance power beyond Takeoff Rated Thrust___________.

a. under any circumstance
b. unless needed to maintain flight
c. unless the aircraft is at or above the acceleration height
d. unless the aircraft is below the acceleration height

195. During a Reduced Thrust takeoff, since VMCG is calculated using assumed temperature, if power is advanced prior to reaching____KIAS, there may not be sufficient lateral control to keep the aircraft on the runway.

a. 118
b. 128
c. 125
d. 135

196. The PF will announce to the crew whenever the AP/ATS is disengaged for any reason. This will be acknowledged by the___________.

a. PNF and FE
b. PNF and BO
c. FE and BO
d. all crewmembers in the cockpit

197. If takeoff power is not set by 80 knots,___________.

a. charted takeoff performance may not be achieved
b. advance throttles to go around power
c. advance throttles to the stops
d. both A and B

198. When using the FMS for navigation,______________________.

a. crosscheck information with traditional ground-based NAVAIDS in the terminal area when available
b. it may be used as the sole-source of navigation information for all arrival, approach and departure procedures extracted from the aircraft database
c. arrival, approach and departure procedures must be flown as extracted, with no additions, changes or deletions from the aircrew
d. all of the above

199. When climbing with___________, the engines may overboost if the throttles are not adjusted for lapse rate temperature deviation.

a. autothrottles on
b. autothrottles off
c. autopilots on
d. autopilots off

200. The autopilot will not be used during high rates of climb (more than____fpm) or high rates of descent (more than____fpm).

a. 8000; 10000
b. 7000; 9000
c. 4000; 8000
d. 3000; 5000

201. An autopilot lever engaged in______ will not drop to OFF if the respective hydraulic System fails (climb, cruise, descent).

a. CMD
b. MAN
c. TURB
d. SPD

202. When immediate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available, GPWS warning requires___________.

a. verifying aircraft altitude on radar altimeter
b. verifying validity of the warning
c. identifying aircraft configuration
d. prompt and decisive action

203. Regarding GPWS activation when immediate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available,___________short duration warnings.

a. query ATC about
b. do not ignore
c. examine the low charts during
d. attempt to verify the validity of

204. If GPWS activation is caused when another aircraft flies directly under the KC-10 during air refueling or formation flight, the crew must______________.

a. take quick and decisive action
b. perform an immediate and aggressive escape maneuver
c. use available resources to ascertain the situation and take appropriate action
d. climb 1,000' to the top of the block

205. After one pilot states "I'm on the FMS," ___________by the other pilot is required.

a. nothing
b. acknowledgement
c. "You have it"
d. "Roger"

206. While flying an approach,______________________.

a. consider executing a go around/missed approach any time an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated
b. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear warning is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
c. execute a go around/missed approach if an EGPWS windshear caution is annunciated below 500 feet AGL
d. both A and B

207. Normally, do not exceed___________descent when below 2000 feet AGL.

a. 1000 FPM
b. 1500 FPM
c. 2000 FPM
d. 2500 FPM

208. Below___________, the aircraft should be stabilized on the approach in landing configuration.

a. 500' AGL
b. 500' PA
c. 1,000' AGL
d. 1,000' PA

209. Missed approach is not recommended if fuel in any main tank is___________pounds or less.

a. 1,500
b. 2,000
c. 2,500
d. 3,000

210. Do not select GA on the thrust computer indicator until___________feet pressure altitude.

a. above 14,000
b. below 14,000
c. above 18,000
d. below 18,000

211. Initiate a missed approach/go around if the aircraft is not stabilized on the approach, in final landing configuration by___________.

a. 500 AGL
b. MDA
c. 1000 MSL
d. DH

212. Do not land prior to an approach end cable that has been reported as___________. Do not land on any cable. Damage to aircraft or cable can occur.

a. raised
b. secured
c. under repair
d. slack or loose

213. If landing approach is made in icing conditions or landing is made with snow or slush on runway, move FLAP/SLAT handle to___________.

a. 50°/EXT
b. 35°/EXT
c. 22°/EXT
d. 0°/EXT

214. During a touch and go landing, when the throttles are advanced the takeoff warning horn may sound momentarily,___________.

a. the pilot in command will call for an abort
b. the pilot in command should consider aborting
c. the pilot in command should confirm that everything is correctly positioned and advise the crew
d. the pilot not fly should reset the flaps to 15°/EXT and the flight engineer should recycle the spoiler handle to 2/3 then back to RET

215. In an upset situation, excessive use of___________may aggravate an upset situation or may result in loss of control and/or high structural loads.

a. pitch trim
b. rudder
c. aileron trim
d. both A and B

216. If sustained slat oscillation cannot be eliminated___________.

a. accelerate to an airspeed that permits slats to be retracted
b. continued operation is permitted for mission accomplishment
c. no AFTO FORM 781 write-up is required
d. land at the nearest suitable airfield

217. When operating in continuous icing conditions, takeoff must be made as soon as possible after the application of deicing/anti-icing fluid. Regardless of the type of fluid used, a visual inspection must be made immediately prior to takeoff (within 5 minutes). This inspection should be ___________.

a. made by tower
b. annotated in the aircraft forms
c. an external inspection performed by qualified personnel
d. made using 1L or 1R doors

218. Ice, snow, or frost, must be removed from the______ prior to takeoff, except as otherwise authorized by TO 1C-10(K)A-1, section 7.

a. wings and flight controls only
b. wings, flight controls, and tail surfaces only
c. wings, flight controls, tail surfaces and the refueling boom only
d. wings, flight controls, tail surfaces, refueling boom, and fuselage

219. Any accumulation of snow, slush, or ice in the cavity areas forward of flight control surfaces, or on the wing leading edge behind the slat structures,___________.

a. creates no significant hazard
b. must be removed prior to takeoff
c. should be removed if in contact with the control linkage
d. must be removed prior to powering up hydraulic systems

220. Extreme cold (below -45°F for 6 hours or more) or light snow, ice, or frost deposits may compromise certain aspects of the aircraft's___________and safety equipment.

a. fire detection
b. communications
c. emergency escape
d. temperature control

221. In cold weather, make sure all instruments have warmed up___________.

a. sufficiently to ensure normal operations
b. for 3 minutes prior to takeoff
c. prior to starting the engines
d. prior to initiating taxi

222. For taxi and takeoff on contaminated surfaces, CG should be___________.

a. 23% MAC or more
b. 23% MAC or less
c. 32% MAC or more
d. 32% MAC or less

223. During takeoffs on a slippery runway,___________.

a. apply some nose down elevator to improve the steering characteristics of the nose gear
b. do not use differential thrust
c. maintain heading using small rudder pedal steering inputs
d. all of the above

224. Nose gear steering of____or more may cause the nose gear to slip on the icy (wet) runway.

a. 3°
b. 5°
c. 10°
d. 11°

225. Takeoffs shall not be attempted with over____inch(es) of wet snow, slush and/or water on the runway.

a. 1/4
b. 1/2
c. 1
d. 4

226. Takeoffs shall not be attempted with over____inch(es) of dry snow on the runway.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

227. If anti-icing is inoperative, climb or descend to an altitude where the TAT is warmer than +6°C or colder than____°C. If possible, avoid clouds where the TAT is between 0° and -20°C. Fly above___________KTAS.

a. -10; 450
b. -15; 400
c. -20; 400
d. -32; 450

228. After encountering conditions favorable to induction icing for an extended period of time,___________.

a. accomplish ice shedding procedures
b. advance throttles slowly to MCT then back to cruise setting
c. make a 781A entry
d. recycle engine anti-ice switches to ensure proper operation

229. If approach or landing was made through icing conditions or if the runway was covered by slush or snow, retract flaps to_____during taxi in. Damage to the flaps/slats could occur if ice is presents and flaps/slats are fully retracted.

a. 0°
b. 15°
c. 22°
d. 25°

230. In heavy rain the PF should remain on instruments___________.

a. unless visual contact is made with the airfield
b. unless the rain repellent is working
c. until the other pilot sees the runway
d. until reaching minimums for the approach

231. If encountering severe turbulence, target airspeed is within the range of___________.

a. 290-310 KIAS or 0.80-0.85, whichever is lower
b. 290-310 KIAS or 0.80-0.85, whichever is higher
c. 250-270 KIAS or 0.75-0.80, whichever is lower
d. 250-270 KIAS or 0.75-0.80, whichever is higher

232. When windshear conditions exist or are forecasted,___________.

a. takeoff will not be attempted
b. takeoff should not be attempted
c. apply Takeoff Into Suspected Windshear procedures
d. do not apply "Takeoff Into Suspected Windshear" procedures

233. Takeoff will not be attempted when___________.

a. Severe loss shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL or windshear conditions are associated with convective activity
b. Severe gain shear conditions exist or are forecast at or below 2000 feet AGL
c. Winds exceed 50 knots
d. all of the above

234. During the maximum performance maneuver, increase pitch___________.

a. at 3 degrees per second to 21 degrees
b. immediately to the stick shaker
c. as required to control vertical speed and altitude
d. at 3 degrees per second to 15 degrees

235. FMS wind information may be erroneous below a TAS of___________.

a. 120 knots
b. 140 IAS
c. 130 knots
d. 107 knots

236. In windshear conditions,___________or impact with the ground will occur.

a. increase pitch until encountering buffet onset
b. disregard GPWS warning activation
c. do not exceed go-around power
d. disregard the flight director command bars

237. If an IAS speed margin in excess of VAPP +____knots is required to maintain reference ground speed during an approach with wind shear conditions suspected, serious consideration should be given to not attempting the approach. If this margin is still required below_________feet, discontinue the approach.

a. 10; 200
b. 20; 200
c. 20; 500
d. 10; 500

238. To compute minimum air refueling speed, add_____knots without wing air refueling pods or _____knots with wing air refueling pods installed to the___________speed.

a. 10; 20; stick shaker
b. 5; 10; stick shaker
c. 10; 20; 1.2G buffet
d. 5; 10; 1.2G buffet

239. Landings or unplanned go-arounds are allowed at outside temperatures up to a maximum of___________.

a. 40°C
b. 45°C
c. 50°C
d. 55°C

240. Takeoff thrust set between 40 and 80 knots may not be used higher than_____feet pressure height above the airfield pressure altitude.

a. 1,000
b. 2,000
c. 3,000
d. 4,000

241. The all engine climb gradient data___________to determine obstacle clearance capabilities.

a. may be used
b. will be used
c. will not be used
d. must be used

242. Takeoff data presented in TO 1C-10(K)A-1-1 is for pressure altitudes from___________feet.

a. SL to 8,000
b. SL to 14,000
c. -1,000 to 8,000
d. -1,000 to 14,000

243. The environmental envelope of the airplane extends from___________.

a. -54°C to 50°C
b. -54°C to 40°C
c. -54°C to 50°C, not to exceed Standard Day +40°C
d. -54°C to 40°C, not to exceed Standard Day +50°C

244. If the crosswind component exceeds ____knots on a dry runway, takeoff will not be attempted.

a. 31
b. 21
c. 11
d. 45

245. If the wind direction is greater than ____from the runway heading, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

a. 10°
b. 23°
c. 31°
d. 45°

246. When the crosswind component exceeds _____knots, the crosswind component affects the number 2 engine inlet airflow characteristics requiring that a rolling takeoff be made.

a. 23
b. 31
c. 45
d. 10

247. The takeoff profile for obstacle clearance and climb gradient is based on maintaining the computed climb speed. Therefore, the ___________is the primary instrument for takeoff guidance.

a. vertical speed indicator
b. airspeed indicator
c. flight director
d. horizontal Situation Indicator

248. The climbout flightpath is calculated assuming gear retraction is initiated _____second(s) after liftoff and completed 10.5 seconds later.

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

249. Reduced thrust usage is not permitted if RCR value is___________.

a. 10 or below
b. less than 10
c. 14 or below
d. less than 14

250. Reduced thrust usage is not permitted if:

a. RSC is used for TOLD computations
b. Tailwinds are used for mission accomplishment
c. The anti-skid braking system or one main gear wheel brake is inoperative
d. Both A and C

251. Takeoff into suspected windshear will not be attempted unless the charted performance limiting VR exceeds the charted actual weight VR by at least _____knots.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25

252. When air refueling the KC-10 to inflight maximum gross weight, the planned air refueling altitude will be no higher than the pressure altitude of___________feet.

a. 2,000
b. 25,000
c. 25,500
d. 31,000

253. A-10 A/R with KC-10 gross weight above___________is not recommended due to A-10 power limitations.

a. 540,000 lbs
b. 556,000 lbs
c. 436,000 lbs
d. 575,000 lbs

254. The pressure altitude of ___________feet should be used as the base planning altitude for receiver air refueling. Altitudes up to___________feet below optimum altitude for gross weight at the end of air refueling may be used. In no case will air refueling be planned above a pressure altitude of________feet.

a. 20,000; 1000; 25,000
b. 25,500; 1000; 31,000
c. 25,000; 2000; 31,000
d. 41,000; 2000; 42,000

255. The landing gear may only be extended at speeds below _____knots. When the gear is down, the aircraft may be accelerated to _____knots.

a. 270; 350
b. 260; 350
c. 260; 300
d. 300; 260

256. For takeoff or landing, when runway conditions are not clearly defined, it is recommended that___________.

a. the takeoff or landing not be attempted
b. a visual inspection be made by the aircraft commander
c. a conservative RCR be used
d. takeoff or landing be delayed until a RCR can be determined

257. Aircrew members shall not be scheduled to fly nor will they perform aircrew duties while under the influence of alcohol or within_____hours of consuming alcoholic beverages, based on___________.

a. 10; bus time
b. 10; scheduled takeoff
c. 12; bus time
d. 12; scheduled takeoff

258. Do not enter aircrew members into crew rest___________.

a. 45 minutes after landing
b. until they complete official post-flight duties
c. 45 minutes after final engine shut down
d. until 1 hour after engine shutdown

259. Both pilots will monitor___________emergency frequencie(s) to the maximum extent possible. Exception: Only one crewmember is required to monitor guard frequencie(s) during___________.

a. AMC; formation flights
b. VHF guard; formation flights
c. UHF guard; tanker or receiver rendezvous and AR
d. UHF and VHF guard; tanker or receiver rendezvous and AR

260. Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____feet. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____feet.

a. 20, 5
b. 15, 10
c. 25, 10
d. 15, 5

261. When filing to a remote or island destination, aircrews may use an additional _____holding fuel (in lieu of an alternate).

a. 1 hour + 15 minutes
b. 2 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. 45 minutes

262. Flight into areas of ___________is prohibited.

a. known or forecast moderate or greater mountain wave turbulence
b. forecast or reported severe icing
c. forecast or reported severe turbulence
d. all of the above

263. If unable to vertically clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least _____feet, avoid them by at least _____NMs at or above flight level FL230, or _____NMs below FL230.

a. 2000; 10; 5
b. 5000; 15; 10
c. 2000; 20; 10
d. 5000; 30; 15

264. If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker ___________.

a. immediately after terminating the emergency
b. after landing
c. after landing and terminating the emergency
d. never

265. When operating in RVSM airspace, aircrews will limit climb and descent rates to ___________when operating near other aircraft to reduce potential TCAS advisories.

a. 500 fpm
b. 750 fpm
c. 1,000 fpm
d. 1,500 fpm

266. Reverse air refueling into a KC-135 is only permitted ___________.

a. for operational necessity
b. IAW FTU syllabus training requirements
c. in an emergency
d. all of the above

267. During a VMC position change, the new leader will decelerate to briefed airspeed when ___________.

a. abeam the old lead
b. when given the lead
c. the new wingman notifies the new lead they are approaching position in-trail and confirms they are at the assigned altitude (500 ft altitude separation required).
d. none of the above

268. During an IMC position change the maneuvering aircraft or element will echelon (normally right) using approximately ___________.

a. 30 degrees of bank and turning 30 degrees from formation heading
b. 15 degrees of bank and turning 15 degrees from formation heading
c. 30 degrees of bank for 30 seconds
d. 15 degrees of bank for 15 seconds