Cisco Cybersecurity 210-250 SECFND

  1. What is the RFC for Private ip addresses?
    RFC 1918
  2. What is the RFC for NAT?
    RFC 1631
  3. DHCP Starvation is what type of security attack?
    Denial of data (DoD) attack
  4. What are the seven (7) types of Internet Protocol (IP) Vulnerabilities?
    • 1. Man-in-the-middle attack (MITM)
    • 2. Session hijacking (type of 1)
    • 3. IP address spoofing (type of 1)
    • 4. DoS attack 
    • 5. DDos attacks (Distributed Denial of Service)
    • 6. Smurf attack (type of DDoS)
    • 7. Resource Exhaustion attacks
  5. What are the two aspect of the impact of cryptography on security investigation?
    • 1. Attacker can attack the Algorithms
    • 2. Attacker using cryptography to hide their attacks
  6. Provide two methods that can be used to detect SSL/TLS encrypted command-and-control traffic.
    • 1. To perform TLS/SSL decryption and inspection.
    • 2. To perform traffic analysis using NetFlow to detect anomalous TLS/SSL flows.
  7. What are the elements of Cryptography?
    • Confidentiality
    • Data Integrity
    • Origin Authentication
    • Non-Repudiation
  8. What is Cryptanalysis?
    Cryptanalysis is the practice of breaking codes to obtain the meaning of encrypted data
  9. What are the types of Ciphers?
    • Substitution ciphers
    • Polyalphabetic ciphers
    • transposition cipher
    • one-time pad
  10. Which cipher "Substitute one letter for another"?




    D) Substitution Ciphers
  11. Which cipher "Based on substitution using multiple substitution alphabets"?




    C) Polyalphabetic cipher
  12. Which cipher "Rearrange or permutate letters"?




    A) Transposition cipher
  13. Which cipher "a stream cipher applying XOR operation to plaintext with a random key"?




    A) One-time pad
  14. Which elements of cryptography has the following definition "Ensuring that only authorized parties can read a message"?




    C) Confidentiality
  15. Which elements of cryptography has the following definition "Ensuring that any changes to data in transit will be detected and rejected"?




    D) Data integrity
  16. Which element of cryptographic has the following definition "Ensuring that any messages received were actually sent from the perceived origin"?




    B) Origin authentication
  17. Which element of the cryptography has the following definition"Ensuring that the original source of a secured message cannot deny having produced the message"?




    D) Non-repudiation
  18. Which of the ciphers is vulnerable to the "frequency analysis"?




    C) substitution cipher
  19. Which cipher is also know as permutation?
    transposition cipher.
  20. Which cipher is also known as the vernam cipher?
    one-time pad cipher
  21. What was the main purpose for using the Hash algorithms?




    D) Data integrity
  22. What does HMAC means?
    Hash Message Authentication Code
  23. What is the length of the message digest for the following algorithms?

    MD5
    SHA-1
    • MD5 - 128-bit
    • SHA-1 - 160-bit
  24. What is collision-resistant?
    Collision-resistant means that two messages with the same hash are very unlikely to occur.
  25. HMAC algorithm is used for data integrity by which Protocol?
    IPSec
  26. What is encryption?
    Encryption is the process of disguising a message in such a way as to hide its original contents.
  27. Encryption is used to guarantee which process?




    c) Data security
    B)
  28. What is an avalanche effect?
    Changing only a few bits of the plaintext message causes its ciphertext to change completely.
  29. What are the two classes of encryption algorithms?
    Symmetric encryption algorithm: Uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data

    Asymmetric encryption algorithm: Uses different keys to encrypt and decrypt data
  30. After encryption has been applied to a message, what is the message identified as?




    B)
  31. Which attack uses the statistical analysis?




    B)
  32. Which encryption algorithm is fastest on hardware and is harder to crack?



    D)
  33. Which encrytion algorithm is a stream cipher and is wel known for securing web traffic using SSL/TLS?



    D)
  34. Which type of encrytion is known as a secret-key encryption?
    Symmetric encryption
  35. Asymmetric encryption is also known as?
    public key encryption
  36. The typical length of an symmetric encryption secret key?
    40 - 256 bits
  37. The typical key length of an asymmetric encryption agorithm?
    512-4096 bits
  38. Which of the following is an example of a Asymmetric encryption algorithm?



    B)
  39. Asymmetric keys are used more with which two senarios?
    • Digital signature
    • key exchange
  40. Which protocol uses asymmetric encryption to secure communication?



    C)
  41. Which one of the following parts of the Diffie-Hellman calculation is an arbitrary item that is agreed upon by both parties before any mathematical calculations?




    C)
  42. Which Diffie Hellman Group associated size is not correct?






    D)  

    Note: DH Group 5: 1536 bits
  43. What is different about the ephemeral Diffie-Hellman?
    With ephemeral Diffie-Hellman, a temporary private key is generated for every DH key exchange, and thus the same private key is never used twice.
  44. What does the acronym IKE  means?
    Internet Key Exchange
  45. Which protocol is used by IKE?




    B)
  46. What does SPA and SSA means in the Cisco IOS image?
    • (1) S - software is digitally signed
    • (2) P - production or S - special image
    • (3) A - specify key version A was used sign image
  47. Which three services do Digital signatures provide?

    (a) Confidentiality
    (b) Integrity
    (c) Authenticity
    (d) No-repudiation
    (e) Availability
    b,c,d
  48. Who developed PKCS in what time period?
    RSA Security Inc in the early 1900's
  49. Definite each PKCS?


    PKCS #1: 

    PKCS #3:

    PKCS #5: 

    PKCS #6: 

    PKCS #7: 

    PKCS #8: 

    PKCS #10: 

    PKCS #12: 

    PKCS #13: 

    PKCS #15:
    PKCS #1: RSA Cryptography Standard

    PKCS #3: D-H Key Agreement Standard

    PKCS #5: Password-Based Cryptography Standard

    PKCS #6: Extended-Certificate Syntax Standard

    PKCS #7: Cryptographic Message Syntax Standard

    PKCS #8: Private-Key Information Syntax Standard

    PKCS #10: Certification Request Syntax Standard

    PKCS #12: Personal Information Exchange Syntax Standard

    PKCS #13: Elliptic Curve Cryptography Standard

    PKCS #15: Cryptographic Token Information Format Standard
  50. List the current digital identity certificates  structure for the X.509 version 3:
    Version

    Serial number

    Algorithm ID

    Issuer

    Validity

    Not before

    Not after

    Subject

    Subject public key info

    Public key algorithm

    Subject public key

    Issuer unique identifier (optional)

    Subject unique identifier (optional)

    Extensions (optional)

    Certificate signature algorithm

    Certificate signature
  51. What are two methods used to validate the certificate revocation?
    • CRL (Certificate Revocation List)
    • OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol)
  52. Which two items must be apart of the Certificate Signing Request?
    • 1. Subject public key information
    • 2. Subject identity information
  53. RFC 5246 for TLS version 1.2 defines what mandatory cipher suites that must be implemented by all TLS-compliant applications?
    • TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA
    • (including RSA for authentication and key exchange, AES for confidentiality (encryption), and SHA for integrity (Hashed Message Authentication Code))
  54. In order to scale and support future protocols, What RFC is defined by TLS 1.2 and maintained by the IANA.
    Cipher Suite Registry in RFC 2434
  55. What is the DNS Record hat resolved a hostname to an IPv4 address?
    A Record
  56. Which DNS Record maps an domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain?
    MX record
  57. Which DNS record maps hostname to IPv6 addresses?
    AAAA Record
  58. Which DNS Record that maps IP address to hostname?
    PTR Record
  59. Which DNS record identifies the names of servers for a zone?
    NS Record
  60. Which well-known ports does DNS listens on?
    TCP 53 and UDP 53
  61. What is the gTLD name servers?
    generic Top Level Domain name server
  62. Who is the DNS resolver?
    It is the client
  63. Which scripting language is server-side?




    (C)
  64. What does a MTA do in a mail server?
    MTA stands for Mail Terminal Agent which is an email gateway responsible for transfer emails between computers.
  65. What are the three parts of an SMTP conversation?
    Envelope, Header and Body
  66. Which of the following is not a command of the SMTP protocol?






    (D)
  67. What are the server response codes to the SMTP client for temporary failure?




    (B)
  68. Which of the following is not a password attack methods?




    (D)
  69. Malware uses DNS in what three (3) ways?
    • - to gain CnC
    • - To exfiltrate data
    • - To redirect the victim's traffic
  70. DNS open resolvers are vulnerable to which type of malicious activites?
    • -DNS cache poisoning attacks
    • -DNS amplification and reflection attacks
    • -DNS resource utilization attacks
  71. Name two ways to mitigate against DNS amplification attacks?
    • 1. upstream providers filter packets entering their networks from downstream customers.
    • 2. Configure DNS servers to rate limit DNS queries.
  72. What are the three (3) DNS techniques used attack clients?
    • Fast Flux
    • Double IP Flux
    • Domain Generation Algorithm (DGA)
  73. What are the two prevalent threats to the security of web applications?
    • XSS (Cross-site scripting)
    • CSRF (Cross-site Request Forgery)
  74. Name two types of XSS attacks?
    • Stored (persistent)
    • Reflected (non-persistent)
  75. List two ways to prevent XSS attacks?
    • -deploy a service such as Cisco OpenDNS
    • -deploy a web proxy security solution
    • -deploy IPS solution
    • -educate end users
  76. What is the order of parameters of a file/folder in a linux system?

    -rwxr-x---
    File type, user permission, group permission and then other permission
  77. What are the three components that makes up a linux system?
    User space, kernel, hardware
  78. Which command can be used to go to the home directory from any path?



    (D)
  79. Which parameter allows you to return to the parent directory?
    (a)  ~
    (b)  /
    (c)  ..
    (d)  .
    ..
  80. Put in order the Linux boot sequence?
    (a) hardware checks (POST)
    (b) Device bus discovery
    (c) device discovery
    (d) kernel sub-system initializes
    (e) root file system mounts
    (f) start user processes
  81. What are the two type of methods that Linux uses to control the boot process?
    (a) System V init
    (b) Systemd
    (c) vmlinuz
    (d) BIOS
    (e) UEFA
    A,B
  82. Which two commands can be Used to view the system processes?
    • ps 
    • top
  83. Which command show Linux io statistics?
    iostat
  84. Which commands shows Linux?
    Vmstat
  85. What are the three (3) phases of Attack CONTINUUM?
    Before, During and After
  86. What does the BEFORE phase of the Attack Continuum entails?
    Control, enforce and harden
  87. What does the DURING phase of the Attack Continuum entails?
    Detect, Block, Defend
  88. What does the AFTER phase of the Attack Continuum entails?
    Scope, Contain, Remediate
  89. Which mechanism is not apart of the BEFORE attack continuum?







    G)
  90. Which mechanism is not apart of the During Attack continuum?




    B)
  91. Which mechanism is not apart of the After Attack Continuum?





    A)
  92. Which statement is true of Authentication in AAA?



    A)
  93. Which statement is true of Authorization in AAA?



    C)
  94. Which statement is true of Accounting in AAA?



    B)
  95. What are the advantages of IAM over AAA?




    B)
  96. What is the difference between the stateful and stateless Firewall appliances?




    C)
  97. At what layer of the OSI model does a Network Tap operates?





    C)
  98. Which approach is not used by IPS to perform security controls and counter measures?




    B)
  99. True or False: An IPS operating in promiscious mode is operating as an IDS?
    True
  100. Which technique can be used to evade the IPS?
    a) traffic fragmentationb) substitutes the payload datac) unicode representationd) Character-case changinge) encrypting trafficf) tunnelling over DNS and HTTPe) TCP checksum
  101. Snort Rules are consist of which two types?
    Rule header and rule body
  102. What are the following header rules breakdown for SNORT?

    alert tcp $EXTERNAL_NET ANY -> $HTTP_SERVERS $HTTP_PORTS
    [action] [protocol] [src_ip] [src_ports] [operator] [dst_ip] [dst_port]
  103. Which of the following body rules syntax for SNORT is not supported?




    A)
  104. Which area of security is not covered by the VPN technology?




    A)
  105. Which statements are true about VPNs?




    D) and c)
  106. What are the seven incoming mail processing that an ESA performs?
    • a) Reputation filters
    • b) Message filters
    • c) Antispam
    • d) Antivirus
    • e) Advanced Malware protection
    • f) Content Filters
    • g) Outbreak Filters
  107. What are the seven outgoing mail processing that an ESA performs?
    • b) Message filters
    • c) Antispam
    • d) Antivirus (AV)
    • e) Advanced Malware protection (AMP)
    • f) Content Filters
    • g) Outbreak Filters
    • h) Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
  108. What are firewalls connected to the internet referred to as?
    Internet Edge Firewall
  109. Network-based firewalls provide key features that are used for perimeter security such as?
    • NAT
    • ACL
    • Application inspection
  110. What are the process used to allow or block traffic using a firewall?
    • * Simple packet-filtering techniques
    • ■ Application proxies
    • ■ Network address translation
    • ■ Stateful inspection firewalls
    • ■ Next-generation context-aware firewalls
  111. What is another name for the ACLs controlling traffic to the security appliance?
    • controlled
    • plane ACLs
  112. Name the Five (5) types of ACLs supported by Cisco ASA?
    • ■ Standard ACLs
    • ■ Extended ACLs
    • ■ IPv6 ACLs
    • ■ EtherType ACLs
    • ■ Webtype ACLs
  113. They are used to identify packets based on their destination IP addresses.
    ■ Standard ACLs
  114. classify packets based on the following
    attributes:
    ■ Source and destination IP addresses
    ■ Layer 3 protocols
    ■ Source and/or destination TCP and UDP ports
    ■ Destination ICMP type for ICMP packets
    Extended ACLs
  115. ACL allows security appliance administrators to restrict traffic coming through the SSL VPN tunnels.
    Webtype ACLs
  116. ACLs can be used to filter IP and non-IP-based traffic by checking the Ethernet type code field in the Layer 2 header.
    EtherType ACLs
  117. Which firewall inspect additional Layer 3 and Layer 4 fields such as sequence numbers, TCP control flags, and TCP acknowledgment (ACK) fields.
    stateful firewalls
  118. What are the HA features provided by the Cisco ASA?
    • Active-standby failover
    • Active-Active failover
    • Clustering
  119. How many Cisco ASA can be clustered together?




    A.
Author
wiztech
ID
336967
Card Set
Cisco Cybersecurity 210-250 SECFND
Description
Cisco CyberSecurity OPS 210-250 SECFND - Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity fundamentals.
Updated