test 5

  1. 1. There are several basic core principles that serve as the foundation for proper interrogation techniques. Which of the following is not one of these core principles?





    with mental or emotional disabilities.
    p. 194: 1st, 4th, 6th Bullets
    A. The interrogator should never conduct the interrogation in the suspect's home or workplace.
  2. 2. The factors that appear with some regularity in false confession cases are:

    1. The suspect is a juvenile.
    2. The suspect suffers some mental or psychological impairment.
    3. There is no corroborating evidence to support the confession.
    4. The interrogation took place over an inordinate amount of time.
    5. The interrogators engaged in illegal tactics and techniques.
    6. The suspect subsequently recanted the confession.





    pp. 194-195; Bullets
    B. 1,2,4,5
  3. 3. At the trial, the offender may allege that the confession represents only what he had been told to say -- that the investigator "put the words into my mouth." An excellent precautionary measure to effectively meet such a defense is:





    p. 185; para. 3
    B. the practice of incorporating into the confession a number of more of less irrelevant personal history questions calling for answers known only to the offender.
  4. 4. At the point of accepting an alternative question, the suspect has merely offered an admission of guilt. The investigator now needs to:





    p. 175; para. 2
    A. draw the suspect into the conversation to develop a full confession.
  5. 5. When the investigator presents the alternative question to the suspect, it is not enough to simply ask the question and then wait for the suspect to answer. The investigator must encourage the suspect to select one of the two options. This is accomplished through the use of positive and negative supporting statements. A positive supporting statement is one in which:





    p. 170; paras 7, 8
    B. the investigator reinforces his belief that the correct choice is the one that seems to be morally excusable or at least one that represents a less socially revolting reason for committing the act.
  6. 6. One of the most reliable indications that a suspect is considering telling the truth will be observed in:





    p. 164; para. 4
    C. the suspect's facial expression, especially eye contact.
  7. 7. When a suspect begins to cry during the interrogation, the investigator should:

    A. leave the room and give the suspect a chance to "cry it out."
    B. point out to the suspect that his crying reinforces the investigator's certainty of the suspect's
    guilt.
    C. ask an open ended question about why the suspect is crying, and then be sure to allow enough
    time for the suspect to offer his confession.
    D. commiserate with the suspect and offer encouragement by attempting to relieve his
    embarrassment.
    p. 164; bottom to p. 165
    • D. commiserate with the suspect and offer encouragement by attempting to relieve his
    • embarrassment.
  8. 8. Immediately after rewording the suspect's stated objection, the investigator should:





    p. 152; para. 1
    D. attempt to reverse the significance of the suspect's objection and return to the interrogation theme without delay.
  9. 9. How should the investigator handle a weak denial following the direct, positive confrontation?





    p. 138; para. 4
    B. Ignore it and embark on the transition statement.
  10. 10. If an investigator chooses to present evidence during an interrogation, the first attempt should be through implication. The technique of implication simply involves:





    p. 145; para. 3
    D. telling the suspect that the investigator already knows he did those things without explaining how or why the investigator knows.
  11. 11. Theme 2 is: Reduce the suspect's feeling of guilt by minimizing the moral seriousness of the offense. It is very common for guilty suspects to experience mental relief by believing that what they did could have been much worse and that many people have committed similar crimes. This is particularly true:





    p. 119; para. 2
    B. in sex crimes.
  12. 12. Which of the following is cited as a guilt diminishing factor in theme development that can be used for suspects who are interrogated regarding crimes that are, to say the least, embarrassing to the suspect?





    p. 120; para. 4
    B. Intoxication.
  13. 13. When using Theme 4, Sympathize with the suspect by condemning others, the main objective of the investigator in many instances is to:





    p. 121; para. 9
    A. have the suspect place himself at the crime scene or in some sort of contact with the victim.
  14. 14. With respect to the exaggeration theme, in general, the psychological principle to employ is:

    A. people cannot accept responsibility for egregious acts.
    B. to minimize in the suspect's mind the act he committed when compared with the more
    offensive behavior possibilities.
    C. people will take pride in what is perceived to be exceptionally intelligent or clever behavior,
    even if the behavior is criminal.
    D. when frightened, people will seek out and accept help, even if they implicate themselves in
    the commission of a crime.
    p. 126; bottom to p. 127
    A. people cannot accept responsibility for egregious acts.
  15. 15. Not only does the transition statement have to offer a legally permissible reason for the suspect to confess, but it also must:

    A. establish the sincerity, openness and objectivity of the investigator.
    B. give the suspect the opportunity to expand on issues previously raised during the
    noncustodial interview.
    C. establish a pretense for the interrogation other than to elicit a confession.
    D. reinforce the investigator's opening confrontation and suggest that there is substantial
    circumstantial and physical evidence that supports the investigator's certainty.
    p. 110; para. 5
    C. establish a pretense for the interrogation other than to elicit a confession.
  16. 16. Maxwell addressed the United Nations about "Three Questions People Ask of their Leader." These are: Can you help me? Do you care for me? And:





    p. 31; bottom
    B. Can I trust you?
  17. 17. Good leaders are good coaches. They:





    p. 39; para. 2
    A. know how to bring out the best in people on their team.
  18. 18. Decisions should always be made:





    p. 59; para. 2
    A. as close to the problem as possible.
  19. 19. Numbers count. They tell a story. They:





    p. 74; para. 1
    A. show you where you're winning and where you're failing so you can make adjustments.
  20. 20. When Maxwell asked others to give him leadership questions they wanted answered, the largest category of subjects, more than double the next largest category, was questions related to:





    p. 87; para. 1
    A. self-leadership.
  21. 21. When Maxwell says, "Walk slowly through the crowd," he means:

    A. remember where you came from, remember the people who helped you get to where you are.
    B. good leaders want good relationships with the people who work with them, so they seek
    those people out and ask them questions.
    C. take the time to appreciate and enjoy the beautiful things in your life. There's more to life
    than work.
    D. share your knowledge, experience and wisdom.
    p. 100; last para.
    • B. good leaders want good relationships with the people who work with them, so they seek
    • those people out and ask them questions.
  22. 22. To seek advice from the right people, there are two kinds of people you need to consult. The first group includes the people necessary to make a decision happen. The second consists of people:





    p. 111; #3
    A. with success in the area of consideration who have your interests at heart.
  23. 23. All of the following statements about leadership and serving are correct except:





    pp. 130-131; #s 1, 2, 3
    B. serving others is a Faith issue.
  24. 24. Before you can develop a strategy to get out of a difficult situation, you must know where you are and where you want to go. If you have helped people by defining reality and showing them the big picture, the next task is to:




    B. identify the steps required to go from here to there.
  25. 25. At what point does a follower become a leader?





    p. 153; para. 1
    D. Nobody does only one or the other. It's both all the time.
  26. 26. At what level does leadership often start?





    p. 161; last para.
    C. Being productive.
  27. 27. You can discover the best way to motivate, develop and equip people when you take the time to:





    p. 197; para. 2
    B. evaluate well.
  28. 28. What makes it possible for leaders to take risks and speak up, empowers them to go first when they need to, and helps them tackle big problems and overcome failure?





    p. 166; para. 5
    B. Confidence.
  29. 29. Maxwell learned many great lessons in his first leadership position, the most important of which was:





    p. 170; last para.
    B. that leadership needs to be earned. Leadership is never a right.
  30. 30. In the process of leading people to change, first meet privately ASAP to discuss their behavior; then ask their side of the story; then try to come to a place of agreement; next:





    p. 177; #4
    B. set out a future course of action with deadlines.
  31. 31. Latent prints will be obtained at the crime scene. Employees will not seize items of physical evidence for printing unless the item is constructed such that it cannot be printed at the scene, or:





    p 281; 401.4.2 (a)(1)(2)
    C. the item has evidentiary value beyond latent prints.
  32. 32. In cases where an officer actively targeted a firearm at a person, supervisors shall review the employee's incident report, supplement, FO card, or electronic street check. Supervisors will forward a memorandum:




    issue is identified.
    D. All of the above.
    p. 289; 402.5.2 (a)(b)
    • C. up the chain-of-command if a safety, policy, training, equipment, tactical, or other specific
    • issue is identified.
  33. 33. With supervisory approval, first responders should conduct limited follow up investigations when there is a reasonable chance of apprehending the suspect or:





    p. 292; 403.3 (a)
    B. there is a need for obtaining additional information for the preliminary investigation.
  34. 34. Employees shall not delete or change a title code from a Part I UCR to a Part II UCR crime on any incident report, once the report comes out of report review, without the signed approval of the appropriate unit supervisor. This policy does not prevent title code(s) being changed under which of the following circumstances?





    p. 294; 403.3.3 (b)
    D. Any of the above.
  35. 35. Which of the following statements about line-ups is not correct?

    A. A simultaneous line-up requires the approval of Child Abuse Unit Supervisor.
    B. The showing of single photos for identification purposes may be used following initial
    identification from among the selected group of photos.
    C. Line-ups shall consist of at least six photos.
    D. If the witness identifies a person, the witness shall not be provided any information
    concerning such person before the officer obtains the witness's confidence statement about the selection.
    pp. 298-299; 403.5.2, 403.5.3 (e)(f)(j)
    • B. The showing of single photos for identification purposes may be used following initial
    • identification from among the selected group of photos.
  36. 36. In Field Identifications, the suspect shall be detained within a reasonable time of the offense. The courts have held that with respect to "within a reasonable time," a _______ time lapse is acceptable.





    p. 303; 403.5.7 (a)(2) (b)
    C. 2 hour
  37. 37. The assigned investigator shall conduct a follow up on all notifications of a forensics "hit" or match. Which of the following is not included in the follow up?

    A. Notifying the assigned Assistant DA or Assistant County Attorney of a "hit" in a case that has already been referred for prosecution.
    B. Developing an affidavit for a new search and/or arrest warrant with documentation from the
    "hit" or match.
    C. Documenting the link to an identified "hit" or match from evidence recovered from the
    exterior of a property crime scene and whether filing a criminal charge can occur.
    D. Filing the appropriate charges when the new forensic information assists in the identification or linking the offender(s) to the offense being investigated.
    p. 305; 403.7.2 (a)(d)(e)
    B. in a case that has already been referred for prosecution.
  38. 38. Original APD arrest warrant packets will be filed with the Central Records/Warrant Unit after being scanned. An exception to this rule will be authorized when:





    pp. 309-310; 405.2.4 (a)(2)
    B. the arrest warrant is served immediately upon receipt.
  39. 39. Narcotic based search warrants will not be executed by any personnel other than those assigned to Organized Crime unless _____ has been consulted.





    p. 311; 405.3.2 (a)
    C. an Organized Crime supervisor
  40. 40. Which of the following is responsible for tactical level coordination of staffing and resources during an Emergency Response?





    p. 318; para. 2
    C. The Department Operations Center (DOC).
  41. 41. LIPS is the acronym used to prioritize SMART objectives for an Emergency Response. The acronym stands for: Life Safety; Incident Stabilization; Property/Environmental Conservation; and:





    pp. 319-320; LIPS
    A. Societal Restoration.
  42. 42. A field study concerned with perception of the environment critical to decision-makers in complex situations refers to:





    p. 320; para. 9
    C. situational awareness.
  43. 43. The General Staff as described in the APD Emergency Management Policy consists of Section Chiefs for: Operations; Planning; Logistics; and:





    p. 319; para. 1
    A. Finance/Administration.
  44. 44. During a Tactical Alert, sworn and nonsworn supervisors will do all the following except:

    A. identify and draft a schedule for personnel for potential Alpha/Bravo assignments.
    B. review applicable Emergency Operations Plans (EOPs) as disseminated by the DOC or APD
    Emergency Management.
    C. identify and notify personnel needed to serve in the DOC.
    D. review and prepare to execute the applicable section of the department's Continuity of Operations (COOP) annex, if applicable.
    p. 322; 407.3 (c)(1)(2)(3)
    C. identify and notify personnel needed to serve in the DOC.
  45. 45. In an Emergency Response the Night Shift (Bravo) shall consists of: All patrol evening shifts; all patrol night shifts; and:





    p. 323; 407.3 (b)(3)
    C. Metro Tactical Teams.
  46. 46. APD EP + R will submit After Action Reports to the Chief of Police. The Chief will then issue a Corrective Action Plan (CAP) which may include all the following except:





    p. 327; 407.9 (a)(b)(f)
    A. Personnel reassignment.
  47. 47. After the initial MFF response, the next most important control objective is to contain the spread of disorder. Which of the following concepts of perimeter control deploys police as a blocking force along a roadway or geographic barrier perpendicular to access routes into the impacted area?





    p. 332; 408.5 (a)
    C. Linear strategy.
  48. 48. For swift water and flooding incidents, personnel and citizens without Personal Flotation Devices (PFDs) will be kept a minimum of ______ feet from the water's edge.





    p. 333; 409.3 (3)
    C. 15
  49. 49. At a Hazardous Materials Incident, voluntary evacuation should be considered; however, depending on the substance, mandatory evacuation may be necessary. The decision to continue evacuation beyond the immediate area or shelter in place should be made:





    p. 335; 410.2(e)
    B. after consultation with AFD Haz-Mat unit.
  50. 50. All explosions should be assumed to:





    p. 336; 410.2.1
    B. have dispersed radiological material.
  51. 51. If the first responder assessment determines that a "jumper" situation exists, the ranking officer should notify Communications to:





    p. 338; 412.3.1(b)
    B. request a CINT-only response.
  52. 52. Upon arrival at the scene of a hostage/barricade situation, the Special Operations Supervisor at the scene shall be responsible for the tactical portion of the operation. The original on-scene supervisor shall be responsible for: general support of the Special Operations teams; and:





    p. 340; 412.5 (b)(c)
    C. perimeter security.
  53. 53. Who is responsible for the completion of reports for the hostage/barricade incident?





    p. 340; 412.6
    A. The initial officer.
  54. 54. If officers discover a clandestine lab during the course of an investigation or arrest, all persons in the house or vehicle should be moved a safe distance from the lab. Also:





    p. 342; 413.3 (c)
    C. any suspect(s) believed to have involvement should be detained until the CLT members arrive and debrief the suspect(s).
  55. 55. The Bomb Squad shall normally be utilized in response to bomb threats targeting:





    p. 343; 414.1.1 (a)(1) (b)
    B. mobile targets, such as aircraft, trains and watercraft.
  56. 56. All of the following statements about Bomb Threats, Explosive Devices and Bombing/Explosion incidents are correct except:





    pp. 343-344; 414.1.2; 414.2.1 (c)(2) (d)(3)
    C. The initial Command Post should not be located in the direct line of sight of any suspected explosive device.
  57. 57. The first supervisor on the scene of a post-explosion incident should establish the primary Command Post. The location selected for the primary Command Post should be established upwind from the incident scene, if possible, and:

    A. large enough to accommodate unified command personnel. B. located beyond the outer perimeter.
    C. swept for secondary explosive devices and other hazards. D. shielded by emergency response vehicles.
    p. 347; 414.3.1 (2)
    C. swept for secondary explosive devices and other hazards.
  58. 58. The initial perimeter at an explosion scene should be set at:




    possible.
    p. 348; 414.3.3
    • C. 1.5 times the distance from the site of the explosion to the farthest found piece of debris if
    • possible.
  59. 59. Officers are required to make an arrest for incidents involving family violence when all of the following conditions exist except:





    p. 352; 418.2.1 (a)(1)(2)(3)
    A. a supervisor is unable to report to the scene.
  60. 60. Which of the following statements about Arrest Requirements for Assaultive Offenses at Family Violence incidents is correct?

    A. Arrests of both parties should be avoided unless warranted.
    B. Officers shall attempt to use mediation at the scene as a substitute for enforcement action,
    even if physical violence has occurred.
    C. If the responding officer and responding supervisor cannot determine the primary aggressor,
    there shall be no arrest.
    D. All Of the above.
    p. 352; 418.2.1 (b)(2) (c)
    A. Arrests of both parties should be avoided unless warranted
  61. 61. Which of the following statements about Family Violence Incidents involving juveniles is correct?





    p. 354; 418.2.3 (a) (b)(1)(b) (c)(b)(a)
    D. All of the above.
  62. 62. Victims of family violence who express a desire to drop charges should be referred to:





    p. 357; 418.3.2 (c)(1)
    C. Victim Services.
  63. 63. Officers shall file a motion for an EPO on the victim's behalf in all felony family violence arrests. Officers shall file a motion for an EPO on the victim's behalf in all other family violence arrests when:

    A. children are residents of the location where the family violence arrest occurred.
    B. the victim wishes to have an EPO filed.
    C. the victim is unable or refuses to file and the officer has sufficient reason to believe it is
    imperative to the safety of the victim to file an EPO.
    D. B OR C.
    pp. 359-360; 418.4 (a)(b)
    D. B OR C.
  64. 64. An officer who investigates a family violence incident or who responds to a disturbance call that may involve family violence, shall make an oral or electronic report to the _______ within 24 hours, if the location of the incident or call, or the known address of a person involved in the incident or call, matches the address of a current licensed foster home.





    p. 362; 418.6.3
    D. Department of Family and Protective Services
  65. 65. All the following are Supervisor Responsibilities regarding Family Violence except:





    threat occur inside a residence.
    p. 362; 418.7 (a)(b)(c)(2)(c)(3)
    A. Contact the appropriate investigative unit any time there is an arrest situation.
  66. 66. An EPO may be effective for a period between 61-90 days if:




    p. 364; 419.2.1 (a)(2)
    D. the suspect used or exhibited a deadly weapon during the assault.
  67. 67. Which of the following statements about Temporary Ex Parte orders is correct?





    p. 364; 419.2.2, para. 1, (a)(b)
    A. Temporary ex parte orders may be entered without a hearing.
  68. 68. Which of the following statements about Protective Orders is not correct?




    order, including a law enforcement officer or the victim.
    D. An arrest shall be made when an officer witnesses a violation of any enforceable court order.
    pp. 365-366; 419.3.1 (b)(1); 419.3.2 (a)(c)(1)
    A. Service of temporary ex parte orders can only be verified by NCIC or TCIC.
  69. 69. Officers should not interview sexual assault victims _______ years of age or younger; these interviews shall be done by an investigator from the appropriate Investigative Unit.





    p. 367; 420.2.1 (c)(2)
    C. 12
  70. 70. In cases of elder abuse, make on-scene arrests when appropriate. The effect of an arrest on the victim should be considered and weighed against:





    p. 371; 422.4.2(d)
    B. the assessed risk and the competent victim's desires.
  71. 71. Which of the following constitutes child abuse?





    p. 373; 424.2 (b)(d)(f)
    D. All of the above.
  72. 72. When a child on the TCIC's Child Safety Check Alert List is located, the officer should inform ______ as soon as possible.





    p. 375; 424.7, last para.
    D. a supervisor
  73. 73. A missing child is a child whose whereabouts are unknown to the child's legal custodian, the circumstances of which indicate any of the following except:





    p. 376; 426.1.1, Missing Child
    C. the child voluntarily left the care and control of the custodian, and the whereabouts of the child are not known to the custodian.
  74. 74. Supervisors will contact the Missing Persons Unit or the appropriate Investigative Unit if an Alert System Activation is required to make a determination as to:





    p. 378; 426.2.1 (c)
    A. what type of field search effort will be undertaken.
  75. 75. Officers responding to the scene of a death incident shall gather as much information regarding the incident and deceased as possible including: Identify the name, DOB, address, Social Security # of the deceased, if possible; Identify any witness(es) to the incident; Attempt to detain witness(es) until the Homicide Unit determines if any witnesses need to be interviewed; and:

    A. The names and identification information of members of the deceased's immediate family.
    B. Medical history of the deceased and list of medications prescribed to the deceased, and
    prescription medications on-scene.
    C. Location of the body relative to items in the room (prepare a sketch if possible).
    D. Identify the attending physician and whether he will sign the death certificate, if applicable.
    p. 385; 434.2 (c)
    D. Identify the attending physician and whether he will sign the death certificate, if applicable.
  76. 76. Confirmed stolen vehicles that are recovered may be returned to the registered owner if he is present at the scene, however:





    p. 391; 435.3.2 (a)(4)
    A. the vehicle shall still be processed for latent prints.
  77. 77. Unauthorized Use of a Motor Vehicle (UUMV) will remain a civil matter until:

    A. the vehicle is returned.
    B. it is determined that damage to the vehicle is incurred while it was under the control of the
    person reported to be in possession of the vehicle.
    C. 10 days following the owner of the vehicle sending a registered letter to the person in control of the vehicle demanding its immediate return.
    D. the responding officer files an IR.
    pp. 392-393; 435.4 (c)(d)
    C. 10 days following the owner of the vehicle sending a registered letter to the person in control of the vehicle demanding its immediate return.
  78. 78. While victims of Identify Theft should make a report to the law enforcement agency where the victim resides, officers on the APD should:

    A. also notify the jurisdiction of the victim's residence.
    B. investigate and report any identity theft related incident that occurs within Austin, regardless
    of where the victim resides.
    C. assist the jurisdiction of the victim's residence in the investigation.
    D. file the required reports and notify the Federal Trade Commission.
    p. 394; 436.2 (b)
    • B. investigate and report any identity theft related incident that occurs within Austin, regardless
    • of where the victim resides.
  79. 79. All of the following statements about Hate Crimes and Hate Crime Enhancement are correct except:





    p. 401; 438.4(c), 438.5(b) (2) (i)(1)
    A. officers shall immediately notify the APD Hate Crime Committee of suspected hate crimes.
  80. 80. All the following require the response of a CIT officer except:




    illness.
    D. any emergency room transport of a Peace Officer Emergency Detention (POED) to a psychiatric hospital.
    p. 405; 445.2 (a)(1)(2)(4) (b)
    C. any request from a member of the community for a CIT officer.
  81. 81. Which of the following statements about the Peace Officer's Emergency Detention (POED) is correct?

    A. A POED is formally an arrest.
    B. The responding CIT officer shall be responsible for conducting an assessment to determine
    whether the person should be handled as an emergency detention.
    C. The first responding officer shall be responsible for providing transportation to the
    appropriate mental health facility.
    D. All of the above.
    p. 407; 445.1.2 (b)(1)(a)
    • B. The responding CIT officer shall be responsible for conducting an assessment to determine
    • whether the person should be handled as an emergency detention.
  82. 82. If it is determined that a person does not meet the criteria for a POED, the initial officer may:





    p. 407; 445.4.2 (b)(2)
    D. All of the above.
  83. 83. _______ has final authority to approve or deny a request to use an online alias.





    p. 418; 455.7 (b)(b)
    D. The Strategic Intelligence Commander.
  84. 84. Social media may be used by Department personnel for a valid law enforcement purpose. Which of the following is cited as a valid law enforcement purpose?





    p. 417; 455.6 (a)
    D. All of the above.
  85. 85. Crime analysis and situational assessment reports may be prepared for special events management, including First Amendment protected activities. If there was no criminal activity related to the information gathered, the information obtained from the social media monitoring tool will be retained for no more than:





    p. 419; 455.9 (b)
    C. 14 days.
  86. 86. A person is justified in using deadly force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary to prevent the other's imminent commission of all the following except:





    p. 17; Sec. 9.32 (a)(2)(B)
    A. kidnapping.
  87. 87. Which of the following is not an Inchoate Offense?





    Penal Code, pp. 29-30, Sections 15.01, 15.02, 15.03
    D. All misdemeanor offenses.
  88. 88. A person commits Capital Murder under all of the following conditions except:





    Penal Code; p. 37, 19.03 (a)(1)(3)(8); p. 38; 19.04 (a)
    C. a person recklessly causes the death of an individual.
  89. 89. A person commits Assault if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, including the person's spouse. An offense under this Section, with no other stipulations, is a:





    Penal Code; p. 48; Sec. 22.01 (b)
    D. Class A misdemeanor.
  90. 90. A person commits a misdemeanor if he threatens to commit any offense involving violence to any person or property with intent to:





    Penal Code; p. 57, Sec. 22.07 (a)(3)(4)(6)
    A. prevent or interrupt the occupation or use of a building, room, place of assembly, place to which the public has access, place of employment, or occupation, aircraft, automobile or other form of conveyance, or other public place.
  91. 91. When a person takes or retains a child younger than 18 years of age, and when the person knows that the person's retention violates the express terms of a judgment or order of a court disposing of the child's custody, that person commits the offense of:





    Penal Code; p. 60, Sec. 25.03 (a)(1)
    D. Interference with Child Custody.
  92. 92. A person commits Arson if the person starts a fire, regardless of whether the fire continues after ignition, or causes an explosion with intent to destroy or damage any building. Which of the following is a defense to prosecution under this subsection?

    A. There was no damage to the building.
    B. The actor obtained a permit or other written authorization granted in accordance with a city
    ordinance.
    C. The actor was the owner of the building and there was no insurance coverage on the
    building.
    D. There are no defenses to the prosecution of an arson offense involving the destruction of a
    building.
    Penal Code; p. 66, Sec. 28.02 (c)
    • B. The actor obtained a permit or other written authorization granted in accordance with a city
    • ordinance.
  93. 93. Pecuniary loss refers to:





    Penal Code; p. 69, Sec. 28.06 (a)(1)
    C. the fair market value of a property at the time and place of its destruction.
  94. 94. A person who makes or alters an object, in whole or in part, so that it appears to have value because of age, antiquity, rarity, source, or authorship that it does not have commits:





    Penal Code; p. 90; Sec. 32.22 (a)(1)
    A. criminal simulation.
  95. 95. Breach of Computer Security, knowingly accessing a computer, computer network or computer system without effective consent of the owner, is a felony when:





    Penal Code; pp. 106-107, Sec. 33.02 (a)(b)(1)(2) (b-1)
    D. All of the above.
  96. 96. A person commits an offense if the person intentionally or knowingly and with force takes or attempts to take from a peace officer the officer's firearm, nightstick, stun gun, or personal protection chemical dispensing device with the intention of harming the investigator or third person. It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the defendant took or attempted to take the weapon from the peace officer:





    Penal Code; p. 138, Sec. 38.14 (b)(d)
    C. who was using force against the defendant or another in excess of the amount of use of force permitted by law.
  97. 97. It is a defense to a prosecution under Online Solicitation of a Minor that, at the time the conduct was committed, the actor was married to the minor or:





    Penal Code; p. 108, Sec. 33.021 (e)(1)(2)
    B. the actor was not more than three years older than the minor and the minor consented to the conduct.
  98. 98. A person commits the offense of Money Laundering if the person knowingly acquires or maintains an interest in, conceals, possesses, transfers, or transports the proceeds of:





    Penal Code; p. 112, Sec. 34.02 (a)(1)
    A. criminal activity.
  99. 99. Which of the following is a defense to prosecution under the Bribery Section?





    Penal Code; p. 118, 36.02 (b)(c)
    D. None of the above is a defense to prosecution.
  100. 100. Possession of components of an explosive weapon with the intent to combine the components into an explosive weapon is a:





    Penal Code; p. 173, 46.09 (a)(b)
    B. Felony of the third degree.
Author
Gunny
ID
336691
Card Set
test 5
Description
test 5
Updated