Practice Test 2

  1. 1. Every member of the Department who stops a motor vehicle for an alleged violation of a law or
    ordinance shall document the information relating to the stop. The documentation will include
    all of the following except:

    A.  a description of the interaction between the officers and the subjects, and the attitude and
    tone of the subjects.

    B.  the race and ethnicity of the subjects as stated by the subjects, or if not stated, as determined
    by the officer to the best of their ability.

    c.  whether the subjects or vehicle were searched, and if so, the reason for the search.

    d.  whether the officer knew the race or ethnicity of the subjects before conducting the stop.
    • A.  A description of the interaction between the officers and the subjects, and the attitude and
    • tone of the subjects.
  2. An FO card of electronic street check is required when:

    a.  detaining a suspicious person and no report is written.

    b.  initiating a traffic stop when no field release citation or warning is issued.

    c.  conducting a subject stop and the officer initiates a police action (detaining, frisking orsearching).

    d.  All of the above.
    d.  All of the above.
  3. Only employees assigned to ______ may designate a subject as affiliated with a gang in the report writing system.

    a.  Street Narcotics

    b.  Gang Suppression

    c.  Major Crimes

    d.  any of the above units
    b.  Gang Suppression
  4. In felony cases, assigned investigators shall prepare a case jacket for the prosecutor's office with copies of all paper documents. The case jacket will be forwarded within ______ of the date the
    individual is booked into jail and an investigator is assigned to the case.

    C.  two weeks
  5. Once a person requests to speak with an attorney or indicates a desire for legal representation, the
    interrogation will be discontinued at that point. Should the person request to continue the
    interrogation after requesting legal representation:

    a.  the request for resumption of the interrogation shall be recorded and the interrogation shall be

    b.  officers/investigators shall not resume the interrogation without recorded approval of the
    suspect's legal representative.

    c.  the Miranda rights will be administered again.

    d.  the interrogation shall be resumed.
    c.  the Miranda rights will be administered again.
  6. Oral confessions made in non-custodial interviews of juveniles are admissible if the statement is
    given voluntarily and not as a result of coercion, threats, promises, or an extensive interview with
    the oral admission being the primary objective. To ensure the non-custodial statement is given
    voluntarily, personnel shall:

    a. make an audio/video recording of the entire interview, including the obtaining of permission
    from a parent or guardian to conduct the interview.

    b. administer the Miranda admonition, even in the non-custodial setting.

    c. release the juvenile to a parent or guardian after taking the statement and then obtain a warrant to take the juvenile into custody.

    d. release the juvenile to a parent or guardian and order-in the juvenile to the appropriate Investigative. Unit.
    c. release the juvenile to a parent or guardian after taking the statement and then obtain a warrant to take the juvenile into custody.
  7. 7. Only sequential line-ups are authorized for investigative use, with an exception for:

    D. certain Child Abuse investigations.
  8. 8. Which of the following statements about Line-ups is correct?

    A. The suspect's attorney and the assistance district attorney will view the persons in the line-up prior to the start of the line-up.
  9. 9. Field identifications shall only be conducted under the following exigent conditions: prior supervisor's approval; suspect is detained within a reasonable time of the offense; a line-up cannot be promptly arranged; and:

    B. there is an immediate need to arrest the suspect.
  10. 10. Which of the following statements about Surveillance is correct?

    D. Electronic surveillance may require legal authorization.
  11. 11. Affidavits/complaints for any case of a complex nature (as determined by the Unit supervisor) will be:

    A. prepared by the Unit supervisor.
    B. presented to the Assistance County/District Attorney for review and advice on the proper
    wording prior to the Magistrate's review.
    C. prepared by the Assistant County/District Attorney and submitted to the requesting
    investigator prior to the Magistrate's review.
    D. presented to the Magistrate with physical or documentary evidence supporting the issuance
    of the warrant.
    • B. presented to the Assistance County/District Attorney for review and advice on the proper
    • wording prior to the Magistrate's review.
  12. 12. When applying for an arrest warrant, employees will present the type of affidavit/complaint and warrant to a Magistrate for signatures in the County where the offense occurred. All of the following are required except:

    A. a separate affidavit/complaint and warrant are required for each offense or victim.
    B. identification of the suspect shall be provided including but not limited to name, address,
    Social Security number, if available, place of employment, and phone number.
    C. the affidavit/complaint should identify the affiant, the name of the victim and suspect, the
    type of offense, and the elements that constitute a violation of law.
    D. the contents of the affidavit/complaint must indicate that the suspect committed the crime.
    • B. identification of the suspect shall be provided including but not limited to name, address,
    • Social Security number, if available, place of employment, and phone number.
  13. 13. When a Search Warrant is obtained relative to an offense ordinarily handled by another Investigative Unit, which of the following shall be done?

    prior to service of the warrant.
    D. All of the above.
    • B. Notify a supervisor of the Investigative Unit normally responsible for that type of offense
    • prior to service of the warrant.
  14. 14. When executing a search warrant one officer will be assigned to each of the following functions except:

    D. communications officer responsible for informing communications and command staff of the status of the search and evidence seized.
  15. 15. "Cleared Exceptionally" is used to clear incidents where the investigation has established the identity of the offender, and:

    A. there is sufficient information to support an arrest, charge and prosecution.
    B. the exact location of the offender is known so that the offender could be taken into custody.
    C. there is some reason outside law enforcement control that prevents arresting, charging and
    prosecuting the offender.
    D. All of the above.
    D. All of the above.
  16. 16. "Cleared Administratively" is used to clear non-criminal report such as:

    B. suicides where no crime has occurred.
  17. 17. SMART Objectives reflect the overall strategy for managing an event or incident. Which of the following is not a correct designation in the SMART acronym?

    B. R - Regulated
  18. 18. Which of the following is the responsibility of sworn and non-sworn supervisors during a Tactical Alert?

    A. Identify and notify personnel needed to serve in the EOC, if it is activated.
    B. Obtain a preliminary count of personnel and equipment available for the next three calendar
    days, at a minimum.
    C. Disseminate information to all identified and notified DOC personnel.
    D. Review and disseminate applicable Emergency Operations Plans (EOPs).
    • B. Obtain a preliminary count of personnel and equipment available for the next three calendar
    • days, at a minimum
  19. 19. The Incident Action Plan (IAP) or Emergency Action Plan (EAP) is a written plan that defines the incident or event objectives and:

    A. reflects the tactics necessary to manage an incident or event during an operational period.
  20. 20. The Mobile Field Force (MFF) is an organized group of specially trained and disciplined officers that can vary in size depending on the scale of the situation. The objectives of the MFF are:

    1. Life/Safety.
    2. Situational Analysis. 3. Incident Stabilization. 4. Property Protection. 5. Demobilization.
    6. Societal Restoration.

    B. 1, 3, 4, 6
  21. 21. A MFF squad is usually divided into groups of ______ officers and one supervisor. A MFF platoon is composed of ______ squads.

    B. 7-10
  22. 22. The MFF activation will utilize a tiered response plan. Tier I Response involves:

    B. using two designated officers from each on-duty patrol shift to respond to a MFF call-up.
  23. 23. After the initial response by the MFF to a civil disorder, the next most important control objective is:

    D. containment.
  24. 24. Officers will only initiate a water rescue after:

    A. a thorough risk/benefit analysis.
    B. notification of the AFD Special Operations Team and obtaining ETA. C. assessment of victim status.
    D. tie-bags are secured.
    A. a thorough risk/benefit analysis.
  25. 25. At a hostage/barricaded suspect situation, the responsibility for the disposition of a subject who has been taken into custody for a criminal offense or mental health evaluation lies with:

    B. the uniformed first responders
  26. 26. The Bomb Squad should NOT normally be utilized in response to bomb threats at the following location unless an explosive device is found or circumstances warrant it.

    device is found or circumstances warrant.
    • D. The Bomb Squad shall NOT respond to bomb threats at any of the above unless an explosive
    • device is found or circumstances warrant.
  27. 27. The decision to evacuate a premises on a bomb threat should be made by:

    B. the person in charge of the premises.
  28. 28. Officers responding to the scene of a Found Explosive/Suspected Device shall set up an initial command post. The designated site for the initial command post should be:

    C. swept for possible secondary explosive devices.
  29. 29. At a Family Violence call at a residence, officers shall arrest for assault by threat or assault by contact if no physical violence has occurred but circumstances reasonably show further violence is likely to happen, and:

    B. supervisory approval is obtained.
  30. 30. The determination of whether to file the continuous violence against family charge shall be at the discretion of:

    D. Arrest Review.
  31. 31. In the event the victim of family violence refuses to complete the Assault Victim Statement (AVS), the reporting officer shall:

    A. complete the form and sign it under the signature refused section with a witness to the refusal, if possible
  32. 32. Child Protective Services (CPS) must be notified following all incidents of family violence that resulted in a visible injury or aggravated assault, if a child is present at the scene of the incident or:

    C. the child is known to reside at the location of the incident.
  33. 33. Final protective orders issued by a court may be effective for a period not to exceed:

    C. two years.
  34. 34. If the victim of family violence is not in possession of the protective order and/or for any reason cannot verify the validity of the order, the officer will write a report and give the report number to the victim, and:

    B. inform the victim of how to contact the appropriate Investigative Unit for further action.
  35. 35. Whenever practicable, prior to taking a child into protective custody, the officer should:

    immediate danger to the child may exist.
    • B. inform a supervisor of the circumstances and articulate the facts indicating why an
    • immediate danger to the child may exist.
  36. 36. All of the following conditions must be met in order to implement an Amber Alert except:

    D. there is sufficient information available to reasonably believe that the child is located within a circumscribed area or region.
  37. 37. Officers that locate a missing person or respond to the scene of a located missing person shall immediately notify Communications and advise them to cancel any BOLO, NCIC, TCIC, and the state clearinghouse. If the person recovered is 18 years of age or older, the officer's responsibility is to:

    transportation to a different location.
    D. All of the above.
    B. confirm that the person is safe.
  38. 38. Officers should assume that an apparent natural death is reportable until the officer can determine that all qualifications for non-reportable death are met and approved by:

    A. the Homicide Unit.
  39. 39. Which of the following statements about the reporting of Identity Theft is not correct?

    • C. Courtesy reports shall not be taken if no follow-up investigation is to take place by APD
    • personnel.
  40. 40. Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature will be considered harassment under all of the following conditions except:

    B. an individual believes the actions of another to be of a sexual and unwanted nature, and the actor fails to cease such actions despite repeated requests and/or demands.
  41. 41. A law enforcement officer who, under Family Code Section 58.0021, Fingerprints or Photographs for Comparison in an Investigation, obtains fingerprints or photographs from a child shall make a reasonable effort to notify the child's parent, guardian, or custodian of the action taken, and:

    A. ensure that the fingerprints or photographs are retained for a period not to exceed one year.
    B. notify the county agency for family and child protective services of the actions taken.
    C. seek advice from the City, County, or District Attorney with regard to the retention or
    destruction of the fingerprints or photographs.
    D. immediately destroy them if they do not lead to a positive comparison or identification.
    D. immediately destroy them if they do not lead to a positive comparison or identification.
  42. 42. Which of the following statements about Temporary Ex Parte Orders is correct?

    C. During the time the temporary ex parte order is valid, the order prevails over any other Court order made under Title 5 to the extent of any conflict between orders.
  43. 43. In a Protective Order, the Court may:

    A. grant exclusive possession of a residence to a party and, if appropriate, direct one or more parties to vacate the residence.
    B. provide for the possession of and access to a child of a party, if the person receiving possession or access to the child is a parent of the child.
    C. award to a party the use and possession of specified property that is community property or jointly owned or leased property.
    D. All of the above.
  44. 44. On request by an applicant obtaining a final protective order that excludes the respondent from the respondent's residence, law enforcement officers shall accompany the applicant to the residence covered by the order; inform the respondent that the court ordered that the respondent be excluded from the residence; and protect the applicant while the applicant takes possession of the residence. If the respondent refuses to vacate the residence, law enforcement officers shall: remove the respondent from the residence, and:

    C. arrest the respondent for violating the court order.
  45. 45. A medical professional who treats a person for injuries that the medical professional has reason to believe were caused by family violence shall be required to do all of the following except:

    B. immediately notify a county social services agency and report the person's injuries and the reporter's belief that those injuries were the result of family violence
  46. 46. Element of offense means: the forbidden conduct; the required culpability; any required result; and:

    A. the negation of any exception to the offense
  47. 47. Which of the following statements about Entrapment is correct?

    D. Conduct merely affording a person an opportunity to commit an offense does not constitute entrapment.
  48. 48. A peace officer is justified in using force if: the actor believes the arrest or search is lawful; or if the arrest or search is made under a warrant; he reasonably believes the warrant is valid; and:

    A. before using force, the actor manifests his purpose to arrest or search and identifies himself as a peace officer.
  49. 49. Sexual Assault is a:

    A. second degree felony
  50. 50. A person commits Resisting Arrest, Search or Transportation if he intentionally prevents or obstructs a person he knows is a peace officer from effecting an arrest, search or transportation of the actor or another by:

    C. using force against the peace officer.
  51. 51. Peace officers who investigate a family violence allegation or who respond to a disturbance that may involve family violence are to protect any potential victim of family violence, enforce the law of this state, enforce a protective order from another jurisdiction, and:

    D. All of the above.
  52. 52. In each case enumerated in this Code, the person making the arrest or the person having custody of the person arrested, shall without unnecessary delay, but no later than ______ hours after the person is arrested, take the person arrested or have him taken before some magistrate of the county where the accused was arrested.

    D. 48
  53. 53. If an officer does not have the arrest warrant in his possession at the time of arrest he shall:

    A. have grounds for a warrantless arrest.
    B. inform the defendant of the offense charged and of the fact that a warrant has been
    C. immediately notify the issuing magistrate.
    D. confirm the status and validity of the warrant before transporting the arrestee.
    • B. inform the defendant of the offense charged and of the fact that a warrant has been
    • issued.
  54. 54. If the facts presented to the magistrate under Article 18.02 (Issuance of a Search Warrant to Photograph an Injured Child) also establish the existence of probable cause that a person has committed some offense under the laws of this state, the search warrant may, in addition:

    A. order the arrest of such person.
  55. 55. When the property which the officer is directed to search for and seize is found he shall take possession of the same and:

    seized are in the possession of the officer.
    B. carry it before the magistrate.
  56. 56. Under which of the following conditions is conducting a nonaccusatory interview of the suspect
    indispensable with respect to identifying whether the suspect is, in fact, likely to be guilty?

    A. When the only evidence supporting a suspect's guilt is circumstantial or behavioral in nature.
  57. 57. Fact analysis refers to the ability to identify from factual information all the following except:

    C. the modus operandi of the principal suspect(s)
  58. 58. Which of the following must be scrupulously avoided when arranging the seating in the interview room?

    A. Positioning the subject's chair facing a window.
    B. Placing the suspect in a chair with lowered front legs or other deviations that place him in an
    "inferior" posture.
    C. Positioning the suspect nearer to the door than the investigator to prevent non-custodial
    subjects from leaving before the interview is completed. D. All of The above.
    • B. Placing the suspect in a chair with lowered front legs or other deviations that place him in an
    • "inferior" posture.
  59. 59. There are two disadvantages to conducting an interview with the Assumption of Guilt approach. First, when there is very little, if any, evidence to support the assumption of guilt, the guilty suspect, who does not immediately make some incriminating slip-up or confess guilt will be on guard during the remainder of the interview. Second:

    D. the suspect who is innocent may become so disturbed and confused that it will be more difficult for the investigator to ascertain the subject's innocence.
  60. 60. Once rapport has been established during a formal interview, the investigator should generally make an introductory statement. Which of the following is not one of the purposes for offering such a statement?

    if he continues to lie.
    • A. To persuade the suspect that if he tells the truth he can expect a more favorable outcome than
    • if he continues to lie.
  61. 61. When attempting to determine what happened to a victim, a suspect's alibi, or what a witness saw or heard, the investigator should elicit this information by asking an initial open question early during the interview. When the subject pauses in his response, the investigator may use a technique called forced silence which:

    A. encourages a full response to the initial open question.
  62. 62. All of the following statements about asking questions are correct except:

    B. It is often useful to ask negative questions, which expect agreement with an implication in the question, and are the hardest questions to lie to.
  63. 63. The foundation for behavior analysis is:

    D. a subject's underlying attitude and demeanor.
  64. 64. What type of response is associated with the greatest level of internal anxiety?

    D. The deceptive response.
  65. 65. One of the most telling behaviors of deception relating to posture and body language, is:

    D. a static posture.
  66. 66. Which of the following behaviors is not common to both truthful and deceptive subjects?

    D. Long rambling answers.
  67. 67. A common mistake many investigators make when formulating an interrogation is to assume, based on the offender's criminal record or demeanor during the interview, that:

    B. he must be a nonemotional offender.
  68. 68. A less direct confrontation statement may be best in Step 1 in a custodial interrogation where:

    the suspect to make unintended disclosures.
    B. the investigator is concerned the suspect will immediately invoke his rights under Miranda if a direct accusation of involvement were to be made.
  69. 69. The most effective attitude for the investigator during the Theme Development Step is:

    A. one of aloof certainty that even if the suspect continues to deny culpability, there is a strong case against him.
    B. uncertainty, conveying an eagerness to have inconclusive pieces of information explained.
    C. impatience, conveying the investigator's annoyance at the suspect's denials when the fact of
    his guilt is so certain.
    D. one that reveals a calm confidence, a patient display of a vital, intense interest to learn the
    truth, and, at the same time, an understanding, considerate, sympathetic feeling toward the suspect.
    • D. one that reveals a calm confidence, a patient display of a vital, intense interest to learn the
    • truth, and, at the same time, an understanding, considerate, sympathetic feeling toward the suspect.
  70. 70. Which of the following is a recommended tactic for dealing with the nonemotional offender in the Theme Development Step?

    B. Seek admission of lying about some incidental aspect of the occurrence.
  71. 71. Once the theme has been introduced and the investigator starts to develop it, there are three primary objectives with respect to handling denials: anticipate denials before they are voiced; discourage weak denials from being voiced; and:

    B. evaluate denials that are voiced.
  72. 72. When various techniques of sympathy and understanding have proved to be ineffective in stopping the denials of a suspect whose guilt is definite, or reasonably certain, the investigator may consider:

    D. using a so-called friendly/unfriendly act.
  73. 73. What is the purpose of using visual aids, such as a weapon or shell casings, during the interrogation?

    C. To attract the suspect's visual attention toward the investigator's statements.
  74. 74. A suspect who changes posture in an attempt to establish frontal alignment with the investigator is showing a clear sign that:

    C. he is mentally prepared to tell the truth.
  75. 75. In selecting the alternative question, primary consideration should be given to:

    C. the theme that the investigator has been using.
  76. 76. Which Step is frequently the key to a successful interrogation?

    B. Step 7: Presenting an Alternative Question.
  77. 77. After a suspect has related a general acknowledgment of guilt, the investigator should return to the beginning of the crime and attempt to develop information that can be corroborated by further investigation, and should seek from the suspect full details of the crime and information about the suspect's subsequent activities. What should be particularly sought are:

    A. details for which evidence is available.
    B. activities that the suspect engaged in immediately prior to and immediately following the
    C. facts that would be known only by the guilty person.
    D. details or facts that support the theme offered by the investigator.
    C. facts that would be known only by the guilty person.
  78. 78. Many investigators have the impression that once a confession has been obtained, the investigation ended, but seldom, if ever, is this true. In some instances, the investigator may find that the post confession investigation contradicts minor information provided in a suspect's confession. This is not unusual, but the investigator should:

    D. prepare a statement detailing the contradiction and attach it to the suspect's confession.
    B. review with the prosecutor the best manner in which to handle the inconsistency at trial.
  79. 79. In the first 250 DNA exonerations reported by the Innocence Project there were 41 false confessions. These confessions all involved:

    B. verylonginterrogations.
  80. 80. A review of the available information in false confession cases has revealed that in many of the interrogations the investigators:

    D. engaged in the use of impermissible threats and promises.
  81. 81. As a leader you must always be looking forward for the sake of your team. When you face a problem and don't know what steps need to be taken to advance the team, ask the following questions: Why do we have this problem? How do we solve this problem? And:

    D. What specific steps must we take to solve this problem?
  82. 82. Which of the following is not one of the Eight Values of Questions?

    A. Questions help us to learn who we are.
  83. 83. Questioning motives is not the same as questioning your character. Motives are usually attached to specific situations or actions. Character is based on:

    B. values.
  84. 84. In a world where people spend much of their time shoring up their weaknesses, focusing on ______ will set you apart from others.

    B. maximizing your strengths
  85. 85. In which level of listening does the focus shift from ourselves to the other people speaking? To not only their words, but also their emotions, inflection, facial expressions, posture and so on.

    A. Focused.
  86. 86. Maxwell's goal with every group of people with whom he meets is the same:

    B. To connect.
  87. 87. There's one last question Maxwell asks of team members most frequently after, "What do you think?" That question is:

    D. "What am I missing?"
  88. 88. The four most common and destructive blind spots among leaders are:

    1. Inconsistent values.
    2. Poor listening skills.
    3. A singular perspective.
    4. Insecurity.
    5. An out-of-control ego.
    6. Weak character.

    C. 2, 3, 4, 5
  89. 89. Maxwell believes that if you miss any one of these things, you cannot be genuinely successful. Those three things are: knowing your purpose in life; growing to your maximum potential; and:

    A. sowing seeds to benefit others.
  90. 90. If you could cultivate only one habit to practice every day, Maxwell believes it should be:

    C. giving more than you receive.
  91. 91. Three main components come into play in the development of a leader: Environment: Incarnation of Leadership; Exposure: Inspiration for Leadership; and:

    B. Equipping: Intention for Leadership.
  92. 92. As leaders, we should always be aware that leadership carries responsibility:

    A. That what we do affects the people whose feelings and well-being are within our influence.
    B. You have been given the opportunity to lead, and you have a responsibility to those who
    came before you to do it well.
    C. You are not always responsible for great results, but you are responsible for making a great
    D. You owe it to yourself, your family, your friends, and your colleagues to talk the talk and
    walk the walk.
    A. That what we do affects the people whose feelings and well-being are within our influence.
  93. 93. If you want to be the best leader you can be, no matter how much or how little natural leadership talent you possess, you need to become a serving leader. And here's the good news:

    D. it's a choice; what it takes to serve others is within your control.
  94. 94. You need to examine four areas to get a sense of whether it is time for you to step up and lead. 1. Pay attention to the need you see. 2. Use your natural abilities to help others. 3. Make the most of your passion. 4.:

    B. Develop your influence.
  95. 95. The best strategy for leading people, who are more knowledgeable than you, or superior leaders to you, may be to:

    D. enlist help from the most influential person on the team.
  96. 96. If you lead people who are falling short of their potential, you need to start asking why. You always need to make sure that:

    B. you are not the problem, before you look to see where the problem is.
  97. 97. Maxwell asks, "How can you succeed with a leader who is difficult to work with?" First, consider whether you might actually be the problem. Second:

    what can't be fixed.
    A. Determine whether you have specific evidence to support your opinion.
  98. 98. Leadership decisions should always be made:

    C. at the lowest possible level; the people on the front lines usually know the problems and solutions best.
  99. 99. The hallmark of a good communicator is:

    B. taking the complex and making it simple.
  100. 100. All of the following are characteristics of those with leadership potential except:

    A. Leaders are experts.
Card Set
Practice Test 2
practice test 2