What is the difference between a hub and a switch?
A hub passes information to all hosts on the network.
A switch passes information to only the designated hosts on the network.
What does SIEM stand for and what does it do?
Security Information and Event Manager
-relies on the Syslog protocol to collect the data from all these different network devices and client devices on our enterprise network, and then we're going to use that to normalize, correlate, and aggregate that logging data into a single repository for further analysis.
What is ICMP?
Internet Control Message Protocol
What is GRE?
Generic Routing Encapsulation
What is IPSec and what layer does it operator on?
Internet Protocol Security
Layer 3
What frequency or frequencies does 802.11a support? What speeds and distances?
5 GHz
54 Mbps
35 meters
What frequency or frequencies does 802.11b support? What speeds and distances?
2.4 GHz
11 Mbps
140 meters
What frequency or frequencies does 802.11g support? What speeds and distances?
2.4 GHz
54 Mbps
140 meters
What frequency or frequencies does 802.11n support? What speeds and distances?
2.4 GHz / 5.0 GHz
300 Mbps / 600 Mbps
70 meters / 35 meters
What frequency or frequencies does 802.11ac support?
5 GHz
6.9 Gbps
120 meters
What frequency or frequencies does 802.11ax support?
2.4 GHz / 5 GHz / 6 GHz
1.2 Gbps / 9.6 Gbps / 9.6 Gbps
120 meters / 90 meters / 45 meters
What frequency or frequencies does 802.11be support?
2.4 GHz / 5 GHz / 6 GHz
5.76 Gbps / 11 Gbps / 23 Gbps
92 meters / 61 meters / 45 meters
What are the three dual band wireless standards?
802.11n
802.11ax
802.11be
Which if these standards does not support 5.0 GHz?
C) Wireless b
What defines an open Wi-Fi network?
D) It has no security or protection
Which security protocol is associated with the use of Initialization Vector (IV)?
B) WEP
WPA security protocol uses which of the following technologies?
C) TKIP and RC4
What two technologies are associated with WPA2 for encryption and integrity?
D) AES and CCMP
WPA3 uses which authentication method and key exchange protocol?
C) SAE and Dragonfly
Why is WPS considered insecure and often recommended to be disabled?
D) It relies on an 8-digit PIN that can be brute-forced
In wireless networking, a pre-shared key is typically used for:
A) Personal mode security
What distinguishes Enterprise Mode from Personal Mode in Wi-Fi security?
A) It authenticates each user with a unique username and password via an authentication server
What are three things to do to help secure a Wireless network?
1. Use MAC filtering
2. Disable SSID broadcasting
3. Disable WPS
In networking, what type of wireless network allows devices to connect directly to each other without the need for a centralized access point?
D) Ad Hoc
Which of the following allows an access point to use multiple antennas to send and receive data at faster speeds?
A) MIMO Technology
When establishing a network, what feature enhances user authentication and controls internet access in public Wi-Fi environments?
B) Captive Portal
In a large-scale Wi-Fi deployment for a shopping mall, which type of access point is most suitable for seamless roaming and centralized management?
A) Lightweight Access Point
In a business setting prioritizing advanced security, which Wi-Fi security protocol offers improved protection against offline dictionary attacks and enhanced encryption compared to its predecessor?
D) WPA3
What is TCP?
Transmission Control Protocol
Establishes a connection before data is exchanged and allows sequencing to verify messages are in the proper order.
What is UDP?
User Datagram Protocol
Does not establish a connection or sequencing; instead it focuses on speed of transmission.
What is ICMP?
Internet Control Message Protocol
Tells systems when they are trying to connect remotely if the other end is available.
What is DNS?
Domain Name System
The internet's phonebook
What is a firewall?
Keeps stuff from here talking to stuff over there
The bouncer of a network
What is a subnet mask?
A subnet mask dictates the size of the network.
Allows networks to be split in to logical sections.
How does Tracert work and what protocol does it use?
Allows you to see exactly what routers you touch as you move along the chain of connections to your final destination.
ICMP protocol
What is an IDS?
Intrusion Detection System
two basic variations: Host Intrusion Detection Systems and Network Intrusion Detection Systems.
What is telnet?
a very small and versatile utility that allows for connections on nearly any port.
What is ARP?
Address Resolution Protocol
allows for the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
What is the difference between a Forest, a Tree, and a Domain?
Forest: A collection of trees is bundled together into a Forest.
Tree: A tree is a collection of domains bundled together by a common domain trunk, rules, and structure.
Domain: A Domain is a collection of these organizational Unit's as well as the policies and other rules governing them.
What is SNMP?
Simple Network Management Protocol
SNMP enabled devices broadcast information about possible errors that can be picked up by programs that know what to look for.
What is the loopback address and what is it used for?
127.0.0.1 or localhost
Verifies that TCP/IP is configured correctly on the NIC.
What are the layers of the OSI model and how many?
Seven layers:
Physical
Data Link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
What is the maximum length of an Ethernet cable?
The maximum length is 100 meters which includes 90 meters of cable between the patch panel and the wall jack plus 5 meters on each side of stranded cable from the jack to the device.
What is the job of the network layer?
Deals with routing, switching, and transmission of data from one point to another.
Also responsible for error handling and packet sequencing.
How would you determine connection path between a local host and a server?
Tracert
Allows information about the route used to reach the server including routers or switches passed through.
What is ipconfig for?
a command that determines: TCP/IP settings, DHCP configuration, DNS, Default Gateway, and Subnet mask.
Also able to change DHCP settings including /release and /renew
What is the difference between network gateway and a firewall?
A network gateway joins two networks together and a network firewall protects a computer network against unauthorized incoming or outgoing access. Network firewalls may be hardware devices or software programs.
What is the difference between IPS and a firewall?
The primary function of a firewall is to prevent/control traffic flow from an untrusted network (outside). A firewall is not able to detect an attack in which the data is deviating from its regular pattern, whereas an IPS can detect and reset that connection as it has inbuilt anomaly detection.
What is packet filtering?
Packet filtering is the process of permitting or blocking ip packets based on source and destination addresses, ports, or protocols.
CMD: What is ping used for?
Verifies connectivity between two nodes on a network.
CMD: What is nslookup for?
Queries DNS servers and provides the ability to manage the settings for accessing those servers.
CMD: tcpdump
Capture packets from command line
CMD: What is netstat for?
Displays TCP/IP statistics and details about TCP/IP components and connections on a host.
A switch isn’t forwarding packets as expected. You suspect incorrect MAC address learning. Which command helps verify that?
show mac-address-table
You’re unable to reach a remote network. To check if a route exists on the device, which command should you use?
show route
A user reports intermittent connectivity. You want to inspect line protocol status, errors, and speed/duplex settings. What’s your move?
show interface
After restoring a backup, the device behaves unexpectedly. To confirm the active startup settings, which command do you run?
show config
Devices in the subnet are failing to resolve each other. You suspect an ARP issue. Which command checks the local cache?
show arp
You’re validating port-to-VLAN assignments before implementing access control policies. Which command shows this mapping?
show vlan
A connected VoIP phone won’t power on. You think the switch port may not be supplying PoE. Which command gives insight?
show power
CMD: What is arp for?
Provides a way of obtaining information from an manipulating a device's ARP table.
What type of cabling must be used when running cable in the roof or below the floor?
Plenum cabling.
What are the three tenets of the standard security model?
Confidentiality
Integrity
Availability
What is the 1st layer of the OSI model?
Physical
What is the 2nd layer of the OSI model
Data Link
What is the 3rd layer of the OSI model?
Network
What is the 4th layer of the OSI model?
Transport
What is the 5th layer of the OSI model?
Session
What is the 6th layer of the OSI model?
Presentation
What is the 7th layer of the OSI model?
Application
What is the IEEE base standard for Wi-Fi?
802.11
What is the IEEE base standard for Ethernet?
802.3
What is a PAN?
Personal Area Network
What is a LAN?
Local Area Network
What is a CAN?
Campus Area Network
What is a MAN?
Metropolitain Area Network
What is a WAN?
Wide Area Network
What are the six different network topologies and brief descriptions?
1. Point to Point – Direct connection between two devices.
2. Ring Topology – Devices form a closed loop; data circulates sequentially.
3. Bus Topology – Shared backbone cable; all devices tap into the same line.
4. Star Topology – Central hub connects all nodes individually.
5. Hub and Spoke Topology – Like star, but often spans wider networks (e.g., WANs).
6. Mesh Topology – Every device links with many or all others; highly redundant.
What are the three Wireless network topologies?
1. Infrastructure mode – uses a WAP as a centralized point
2. Ad hoc mode – Peer to Peer connection
3. Wireless Mesh topology - connects different nodes, devices, and radio signals (Bluetooth, cellular, Wi-Fi, etc.).
What are the three datacenter topologies?
1. Three-Tiered Hierarchy – Classic design with core, distribution, and access layers; highly structured.
2. Collapsed Core – Core and distribution merged; simplifies small-to-medium data centers.
3. Spine and Leaf Architecture – High-performance mesh where every leaf connects to every spine; ideal for scalability.
What are the basic traffic flows in a network?
1. North leaving network
2. South entering network
3. East - West in network
Which of the following network geographies refers to a network that spans several buildings within walking distance of each other, such as at a business park?
D) CAN
Which of the following type of network models doesn't differentiate between the devices that provide services and those that request services?
D) Peer-to-Peer
HongHong, a network administrator, was asked by the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to set up a new office with a network that has full redundancy. What topology would BEST meet the CIO's requirement?
D) Mesh
Dion Worldwide has created a network architecture that relies on two main data centers, one in the United States and one in Japan. Each satellite office in the United States and Canada will connect back to the American data center, while each satellite office in Asia will connect back to the Japanese data center. Both the American and Japanese data centers are interconnected, as well. Therefore, if a client in the Philippines wants to send a file to the office in Miami, it will go first to the Japanese datacenter, then route across to the American datacenter, and then to the Miami satellite office. Which of the following network topologies best describes the Dion Worldwide network?
B) Hub and spoke
As data passes through the OSI model during transmission, what are the proper names for the data at each layer, starting from Layer 7 down to Layer 1?
Layer 7 (Application) – Data
Layer 6 (Presentation) – Data
Layer 5 (Session) – Data
Layer 4 (Transport) – Segments
Layer 3 (Network) – Packets
Layer 2 (Data Link) – Frames
Layer 1 (Physical) – Bits
What is multiplexing?
involves optimizing a limited amount of resources for more efficient utilization; enables simultaneous usage of a baseband connection by multiple users
What is a MAC and what is it comprised of?
Media Access Control
48 bit or 12 hexadecimal number
What are three layer 3 protocols?
IPv4
IPv6
ICMP
What are two layer 4 protocols?
TCP = Transmission Control Protocol
UDP = User Datagram Protocol
What are the main protocols for layer 5?
H.323
RTP = Real-time transport protocol
NetBIOS
What are the six TCP flags?
SYN = Synchronization = Used to synchronize connection during the three-way handshake
ACK = Acknowledgement = Used during the three-way handshake, but also used to acknowledge the successful receipt of packets
FIN = Finished = Used to tear down the virtual connections created using the three-way handshake and the SYN flag
RST = Reset = Used when a client or server receives a packet that it was not expecting during the current connection
PSH = Push = Used to ensure data is given priority and is processed at the sending or receiving ends
URG = Urgent = Similar to PSH and identifies incoming data as urgent
Which type of network device operates at layer 1 of the OSI model and requires connected devices to operate at half-duplex using CSMA/CD?
C) Hub
Which of the following applies to data as it travels from Layer 1 to Layer 7 of the OSI model?
A) Deencapsulation
According to the OSI model, at which of the following layers is data encapsulated into a frame?
A) Layer 2
Which network device operates at layer 2?
C) Switch
What layer of the OSI model is responsible for data encryption and character set conversion, such as ASCII to UTF-8?
D) Layer 6
You have been asked to recommend a capability to monitor all of the traffic entering and leaving the corporate network's default gateway. Additionally, the company's CIO requests to block certain content types before it leaves the network based on operational priorities. Which of the following solution should you recommend to meet these requirements?
C) Install a NIPS on the internal interface and a firewall on the external interface of the router
What is the flag used to terminate a connection between two hosts when the sender believes something has gone wrong with the TCP connection between them?
C) RST
A reset (RST) flag is used to terminate the connection. This type of termination of the connection is used when the sender feels that something has gone wrong with the TCP connection or that the conversation should not have existed in the first place.
You have just finished installing a new web application and need to connect it to your SQLnet database server. Which port must be allowed to enable communications through your firewall between the web application and your database server?
A) 1521
SQLnet uses ports 1521, and is a relational database management system developed by Oracle that is fully compatible with the structured query language (SQL)
Which port is commonly used for receiving emails from a mail server?
C) 110
Port 110 is commonly associated with the POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) protocol and is used for receiving emails from a mail server.
What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?
B) Loopback
In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1.
What happens when convergence on a routed network occurs?
D) All routers learn the route to all connected networks
Routers exchange routing topology information with each other by using a routing protocol.
Ivy is analyzing the routing protocols used in her company's network. She notes that EIGRP is configured for automatic summarization. Which of the following impacts should Ivy expect due to EIGRP's automatic summarization feature?
C) Decreased routing table size
EIGRP's automatic summarization can decrease the routing table size by summarizing routes at network boundaries, reducing memory and processing requirements on routers.
Which of the following IEEE specifications describes the use of the link aggregation control protocol (LACP)?
A) 802.3ad
Link Aggregation Control Protocol or LACP is one element of an IEEE specification (802.3ad) that provides guidance on the practice of link aggregation for data connections.
During the setup of a new office floor, Dorothy, a network administrator, configures ports on a switch to connect VoIP phones and workstations. She wants to ensure that voice traffic is prioritized over data traffic. Which of the following configurations should Dorothy use to BEST achieve this?
A) Configure the voice VLAN on the switch ports where VoIP phones are connected.
Configuring the voice VLAN on the switch ports where VoIP phones are connected is the best way to ensure that voice traffic is prioritized over data traffic.
You are a network administrator tasked with configuring a new switch for a company's expanded office space. The switch needs to handle data efficiently to support both high-speed internet access and VoIP services. The office has a mix of devices, some of which only support Fast Ethernet, while others are capable of Gigabit Ethernet speeds. To optimize network performance and ensure compatibility with all devices, you must carefully set the duplex and speed settings for each port on the switch. Which of the following configurations should you apply to the port connecting to a device that only supports Fast Ethernet to ensure optimal performance?
A) Set the port to full-duplex mode with a speed of 100 Mbps.
Full-duplex mode allows for simultaneous transmission and reception of data, which is ideal for optimizing performance. A speed of 100 Mbps is appropriate for Fast Ethernet devices, ensuring compatibility and optimal performance.
Which characteristic represents the potential difference between two points in an electrical circuit?
D) Voltage
Voltage represents the potential difference between two points in an electrical circuit.
Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent the round-trip time it takes for a packet to be sent by a device to a server and then a response received from that destination server?
B) Latency
Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back.
A network administrator at a small company wants to improve security by detecting unauthorized access attempts or suspicious activities on their network. They have configured a setup that allows them to examine all the traffic that successfully passes through the company's firewall in real-time without affecting the actual data flow. Which network monitoring technique are they most likely using?
D) They have enabled port mirroring on the network switch to duplicate all firewall traffic to a monitoring station for analysis.
They have enabled port mirroring on the network switch to duplicate all firewall traffic to a monitoring station for analysis. By enabling port mirroring, the administrator can duplicate the traffic passing through the firewall to a monitoring device for real-time analysis.
Shirley is employed as a network administrator and has been tasked with configuring DNS records to optimize the organization's web services. She needs to create an alias for one domain name to another to simplify access to a specific web resource. Which specific record type should Shirley use to create this alias between domain names?
B) CNAME
he Canonical Name (CNAME) record is used to create an alias for one domain name to another. It is commonly used when a domain's canonical (official) hostname is changed but old URLs need to still resolve to the new location.
A technician has configured AAA on a network device to authenticate users with a RADIUS server. However, the technician is unable to log in using RADIUS credentials but can log in with a local account. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
B) The RADIUS shared secret key is incorrect.
The RADIUS shared secret key is used to establish a secure connection between the network device and the RADIUS server. If the shared secret key is mismatched, authentication requests will fail, and the technician will only be able to log in using local credentials.
A NAC service has discovered a virus on a client's laptop. Where should the laptop be redirected to in order to be remediated?
D) Quarantine network
Network Access Control (NAC) is an approach to computer security that attempts to unify endpoint security technology (such as antivirus, host intrusion prevention, and vulnerability assessment), the user or system authentication, and network security enforcement. When NAC detects an issue with a client, it places them in a quarantine network until the device can be remediated to meet the entry requirements for the given network.
Which of the following levels would a critical condition generate?
B) 2
Level 2 is used for a critical condition, and it means that there is a failure in the system’s primary application and it requires immediate attention.
Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent variable delay experienced by a client when receiving packets from a sender?
D) Jitter
Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs.
You are troubleshooting a wireless network connectivity issue on a student's workstation at Dion Training. The workstation is unable to join the network and complete the authentication process. The wireless access point is configured to use WPA2 and the student's workstation is configured to use AES. When you attempt to connect to the network, you receive an error of "Network security key mismatch". Which of the following issues would cause this error?
D) Incorrect passphrase
he passphrase in a wireless network serves as the password or network security key. If the incorrect passphrase was entered, you will receive an error such as “Network security key mismatch” and the wireless device will be unable to communicate with the wireless access point.
Jake, a system administrator, notices that users are experiencing high latency when accessing the company's cloud-based applications. He wants to reduce latency to improve user experience. Of the following options, what action should Jake take to best achieve this goal?
D) Optimizing routing paths
Optimizing routing paths involves selecting the most efficient routes for network traffic, which can significantly reduce latency.
According to the OSI model, at which of the following layers is data encapsulated into packets?
A) Layer 3
At layer 3, the segments are encapsulated into packets.
Andy is a network technician who is preparing to configure a company's network. He has installed a firewall to segment his network into an internal network, a DMZ or screen subnet, and an external network. No hosts on the internal network should be directly accessible by their IP address from the Internet, but they should be able to reach remote networks if they have been assigned an IP address within the network. Which of the following IP addressing solutions would work for this particular network configuration?
C) Private
A private IP address is an IP address reserved for internal use behind a router or other Network Address Translation (NAT) devices, apart from the public.
A network administrator needs to optimize the IP address allocation for a large corporate network by dividing it into smaller, more efficient subnetworks. The administrator has been given the IP address range 192.168.0.0/24 and needs to create four equal subnets. Which subnet mask should be used to achieve this?
B) 255.255.255.192
Using 255.255.255.192 (/26) divides the 192.168.0.0/24 network into four equal subnets, each offering 64 IP addresses (62 usable).
When routers have multiple routes to the same destination, which term describes the parameter used to select the best route based on its reliability and trustworthiness?
B) Administrative distance
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a routing source, with lower values indicating higher trust (0-255); it's used by routers to select the best route when multiple routes exist.
Explain what the First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is?
B) A protocol used to provide redundancy for the default gateway in a LAN environment.
FHRP provides redundancy for the default gateway, ensuring uninterrupted connectivity for devices in case of failure.
Julie is analyzing a routing problem in her network where packets are not taking the fastest route to their destination. She knows that within the same routing protocol, there's a value that influences path selection by determining the "cost" of using a particular route. What is this value called?
A) Metric
A 'metric' is used within a routing protocol to determine the best path to a destination.
Dion Training is planning to deploy a new high-availability website that will be served from multiple web servers. The IT team wants to ensure that the website remains accessible even if one of the servers goes down. They need a technology that allows users to access the website through a single IP address, which then distributes the traffic among the web servers. Which technology should they use?
B) Virtual IP (VIP) to provide a single IP address for the website that can be shared among multiple servers for load balancing and redundancy.
Using a Virtual IP (VIP) is the appropriate technology for this scenario because it allows the IT team to configure a single IP address that serves as the front end to the clients. This VIP can then distribute incoming traffic across multiple web servers in the backend. This approach ensures high availability and load balancing, making it an ideal solution for maintaining the accessibility of the website even if one server becomes unavailable.
Your company has purchased a new building down the street for its executive suites. You have been asked to choose the best encryption for AP4 and AP5 in order to establish a secure wireless connection between the main building and the executive suites.
Which of the following is the BEST encryption from the options below to maximize network security between AP4 and AP5?
D) WPA2-CCMP
WPA2-CCMP is the most secure option.
Your company has installed a guest wireless network in the break room. According to company policy, employees may only connect to the network and use it during their lunch break. Which of the following policies should you have each employee sign to show they understand and accept the use conditions for this guest network?
A) AUP
An acceptable use policy (AUP), acceptable usage policy, or fair use policy is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator, or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict the ways in which the network, website or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used.
A network administrator wants to increase the speed and fault tolerance of a connection between two network switches. To achieve this, which protocol should the administrator use?
D) LACP
The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) provides a method to control the bonding of several physical ports to form a single logical channel.
Dion Training allows its visiting business partners from CompTIA to use an available Ethernet port in their conference room to establish a VPN connection back to the CompTIA internal network. The CompTIA employees should obtain internet access from the Ethernet port in the conference room, but nowhere else in the building. Additionally, if a Dion Training employee uses the same Ethernet port in the conference room, they should access Dion Training's secure internal network. Which of the following technologies would allow you to configure this port and support both requirements?
A) Implement NAC
In this scenario, implementing NAC can identify which machines are known and trusted Dion Training assets and provide them with access to the secure internal network.
Jeff has been tasked with implementing 802.1X on his corporate network for enhanced security. What is the primary outcome Jeff can expect from deploying 802.1X?
A) To provide a framework for authenticating and authorizing devices before allowing access to the network.
802.1X is an IEEE standard for port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the network's security, providing an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN. 802.1X does not deal with separating broadcast domains; that function is typically associated with VLANs.
A technician needs to limit the amount of broadcast traffic on a network and allow different segments to communicate. Which of the following should the technician install to satisfy this requirement?
C) Add a multilayer switch and create a VLAN
By adding a multilayer (layer 3) switch, the technician can improve network routing performance and reduce broadcast traffic. Creating a VLAN provides LAN segmentation, as well, within the network and the multilayer switch can conduct the routing between VLANs as needed.
During a network expansion, Martyn, a network engineer, configures a new VLAN for a group of users. However, users in the new VLAN report they are unable to access the internet. He verifies that the internet access is functional for other VLANs. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
C) The new VLAN is not allowed on the trunk link
If the new VLAN is not allowed on the trunk link, traffic from that VLAN cannot traverse the network to reach the router for internet access. Ensuring the trunk link is configured to allow the new VLAN resolves the issue.
A customer is trying to configure an 802.11b wireless card in an old laptop to connect to an 802.11g wireless router. When the customer scans for the wireless network's SSID (Dion-Corp), it is not displayed within Windows. What is the MOST likely reason that the SSID is not being displayed?
D) The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router
If the SSID (Secure Set Identifier) is disabled, then the wireless network name will not be broadcast to any available devices within range.
What is the TIA-568B pinout from top to bottom?
Orange White
Orange
Green White
Blue
Blue White
Green
Brown White
Brown
What is the TIA-568A pinout from top to bottom?
Green White
Green
Orange White
Blue
Blue White
Orange
Brown White
Brown
Which type of ethernet cable is needed for a switch to switch connection?
Cross-over cable
TIA-568B to TIA-568A
If a switch supports MDIX, what type of cable is needed for switch to switch connections?
Straight through
TIA-568B to TIA-568B
What is MMF?
Multi-mode fiber
What is SMF?
Single mode fiber
What is the IPv4 loopback address?
127.0.0.1
Draw out the Sunny Table:
Subnet
1
2
4
8
16
32
64
128
256
Host
256
128
64
32
16
8
4
2
1
CIDR
/24
/25
/26
/27
/28
/29
/30
/31
/32
Default Mask
.0
.128
.192
.224
.240
.248
.252
.254
.255
What are the leading bits for a Class A network?
0-127
What are the leading bits for a Class B network?
128-191
What are the leading bits for a Class C network?
192-223
What is OSPF and its routing type?
Open Shortest Path First
Link state
What is BGP and its routing type?
Border Gateway Protocol
Path vector
Only exterior gateway protocol
What is EIGRP and its routing type?
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
Cisco east-west traffic flow protocol
Advanced distance vector
What is RIP and its routing type?
Routing Information Protocol
Distance vector
What is IS-IS and its routing type?
Intermediate System to Intermediate System
Link state
What is FHRP?
First Hop Redundancy Protocol
Endpoints have a single endpoint gateway
What does 802.1Q do?
Enables VLAN tagging.
What is STP, what standard did it come from and what does it do?
Spanning Tree Protocol
802.1D
Prevent loops in bridged (switched) networks
What is 802.1X used for?
Controls network access by authenticating devices before allowing them to connect to a LAN or WLAN.
What is a PDU?
Power Distribution Unit
What is IPAM?
IP Address Management
What is EOL?
End of Life
What is EOS?
End of Support
What is LLDP?
Link Layer Discovery Protocol
What is DRP?
Disaster Recovery Protocol
What is RTO?
Recovery Time Objective
How long can we be down?
What is RPO?
Recovery Point Objective
How much data loss is acceptable?
What is MTTR?
Mean Time to Repair
Time required to fix the issue
What is MTBF?
Mean time between failures
What is DHCP and DORA?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
DORA
Discover = Endpoint sends DHCP discovery packet
Offer = Server sends an IP address offer
Request = Endpoint locks in the offer
Acknowledge = DHCP server confirms
What is NDP?
Neighbor Discovery Protocol
Uses multicast over ICMPv6
What is SLAAC and how does it work in general?
Stateless Address Autoconfiguration
1. Device initiation = generates its own link local address
2. Router solicitation = sends a multicast message to any routers asking them to identify themselves
3. Router advertisement = router respond with info they know about the network and where the device fits in
4. Address configuration = the device itself creates its IPv6 address
5. Final check = performs a neighbor solicitation to make sure there are no conflicts and it can join the network
What is a FQDN and give an example?
Fully Qualified Domain Name
www.diontraining.com
What is an A record?
Address record
Defines the IPv4 address of a host (forward lookup)
What is an AAAA record?
Address record
Defines the IPv6 address of a host (forward lookup)
What is a CNAME record?
Canonical name record
Maps a domain or subdomain to another domain name (alias)
What is a MX record?
Mail Exchanger record
Determines the host name for a mail server
What is a SOA record?
State of Authority
Important info about a domain or zone
What is a TXT record?
Text record
Human-readable text information
What is a NS record?
Name server record
List the name servers for a domain
What is a PTR record?
Pointer record
The reversal of an A or AAAA record (reverse lookup)
What is PKI?
Public Key Infrastructure
What is IAM?
Identity and Access Management
What is the AAA framework?
Authentication = are you who you claim to be?
Authorization = what access do you have?
Accounting = logging access data
What is RADIUS and what does it do?
Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service
Provides AAA framework
What is SAML?
Security Assertion Markup Language
Authenticate through a third-party
What are the five types of MFA factors?
Something you know
Something you have
Something you are
Something you do
Somewhere you are
What is the CIA triad?
Confidentiality = prevent disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals or systems
Integrity = Messages can’t be modified without detection
Availability = Systems and networks must be up and running
What is GDPR?
General Data Protection Regulations
EU regulation about data protection and storage
What is PCI DSS?
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard
What is a way to prevent a "friendly" DoS?
Enable STP which prevents Layer 2 loops?
What is switch spoofing?
Pretend to be a switch and send trunk negotiation
What is VLAN hopping and the two types of ways to achieve this?
When an attacker tries to hop to a VLAN they do not have access to.
Switch spoofing - pretend to be a switch and send trunk negation
Double tagging - craft a packet that has two VLAN tags and uses the native VLAN
What is MAC?
Media Access Control
What is MAC flooding?
Attacker starts sending traffic with different source MAC addresses
Forces out legitimate MAC address
When table is full, switches begin flooding traffic to all interfaces
What is ARP Poisoning?
Also called IP spoofing
Attacker responds as the router (spoofed IP) with its MAC address
Device will now send traffic to the attacker
What is DNS Poisoning?
Also called DNS spoofing
Modify the DNS server or modify the client host file
What are two types of rogue services?
Rogue DHCP server
Rogue Access Point
What is an Evil Twin?
An attacker deployed AP that resembles a legitimate AP.
What are some forms of social engineering?
Phishing
Shoulder surfing
Tailgating
Piggybacking
Dumpster diving
What are flavors of malware?
Virus = requires human intervention to replicate
Worms = self replicating
Ransomware = encrypts data
Trojan horse = pretends to be something else
Rootkit = hides in the OS itself
Keylogger = captures keystrokes
Adware/Spyware = presents advertisements
Bloatware = not malicious but can cause issues in your system
Logic bombs = waits for an event to occur and then they execute
What are the seven steps to the Troubleshooting Methodology?
1. Identify the problem
2. Establish a theory
3. Test the theory
4. Establish a plan of action
5. Implement the plan
6. Verify full system functionality
7. Document findings
What protocol is commonly associated with port 53?
C) DNS
Which protocol is connection-oriented and ensures reliable data delivery by establishing a virtual circuit between sender and receiver?
C) TCP
Which statement accurately describes characteristics of a UDP connection?
A) UDP is suitable for real-time applications due to its low latency
Which port is commonly used for receiving emails from a mail server?
D) Port 110
Which port and protocol combination(s) are commonly associated with Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)?
C) Port 3389 - TCP
Review Ethernet cabling items:
Category
Speed
Max Distance
Ethernet Standard
CAT 5
100 Mbps
100 meters
100BASE-T (Fast Ethernet)
CAT 5e
1 Gbps
100 meters
1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet)
CAT 6
10 Gbps (≤55m); 1 Gbps (>55m)
100 meters
10GBASE-T / 1000BASE-T
CAT 6a
10 Gbps
100 meters
10GBASE-T
CAT 7
10 Gbps
100 meters
10GBASE-T
CAT 8
Up to 40 Gbps
30 meters
25G/40GBASE-T
What is a RJ-11?
Phone wiring cable
What is RJ-45?
Ethernet cable
What is RG-6?
Coaxial cable
What is RG-59?
Coaxial cable (older specification)
What layer are media converters and transceivers considered?
Layer 1
Are SFPs or QSFPs faster?
QSFPs.
You are entrusted with establishing a secure and compliant network infrastructure within a commercial building that has air ducts, confined spaces, and concerns of fire safety compliance. What specific cable type should be chosen to guarantee both optimal fire safety measures and better compliance in such environments?
B) Plenum
When setting up a home network you are asked to connect the line from the wall to the customer’s modem, which connector is most commonly used to connect this cable from the service provider to a cable modem?
B) F-Type
Which of the following statements regarding Twinaxial cables is incorrect?
C) Twinaxial cables are primarily utilized in fiber optic networks for long-distance connectivity.
Which form factor is typically associated with a single-channel data link in networking equipment?
B) SFP
For short-distance data transmission in local networks, which fiber optic type is MOST commonly used?
B) Multi Mode Fiber
What is a fox and hound or toner probe used for?
Tracing a cable to fix a break or to document your network
Which is a key function of a UPS in a data center?
D) Ensuring Continuous Power to Equipment
In data center fire safety, what system is designed to minimize damage to networking infrastructure and is most effective in extinguishing a fire?
B) Clean Agent Fire Suppression
What voltage level is commonly used for equipment designed to be used in Europe?
D) 230 Volts
What lockable device is the MOST crucial for safeguarding physical networking equipment?
A) Server Rack Enclosure
In adherence to standards for physical networking installations, what is the recommended orientation for a server rack to optimize cooling efficiency?
C) Port-side exhaust
In the 2.4 GHz frequency band, what channels do not overlap?
1, 6, and 11
What device does this symbol represent, which OSI layer does it operate on, what is its primary function, and how many collision and broadcast domains does it create?
Router
Layer 3
IP Addresses
Collision Domains = 1 per port
Broadcast Domains = 1 per port
What device does this symbol represent, which OSI layer does it operate on, what is its primary function, and how many collision and broadcast domains does it create?
Switch
Layer 2
MAC address routing
Collision Domains = 1 per port
Broadcast Domains = 1
What device does this symbol represent, which OSI layer does it operate on, what is its primary function, and how many collision and broadcast domains does it create?
Bridge
Layer 2
MAC address forwarding
Collision Domains = 1 per port
Broadcast Domains = 1
What device does this symbol represent, which OSI layer does it operate on, what is its primary function, and how many collision and broadcast domains does it create?
Hub
Layer 1
Multiport repeater
Collision Domains = 1
Broadcast Domains = 1
What device does this symbol represent, which OSI layer does it operate on, what is its primary function, and how many collision and broadcast domains does it create?
Multilayer Switch
Layer 3
Combo switch and router
Collision Domains = 1 per port
Broadcast Domains = 1 per port
What is a link cost when dealing with STP?
Link cost is the speed of the link with the lower link's speed being a higher cost.
Which IEEE standard defines the protocol for VLAN tagging in Ethernet networks?
D) 802.1Q
In the context of VLANs, what is the term used to refer to the default VLAN on a trunked port?
C) Native VLAN
In a corporate network, unauthorized devices connecting to Ethernet ports pose a security risk. What feature can be implemented to restrict access based on the allowed MAC addresses?
D) Port Secuirty
In a large enterprise network, a recent expansion added redundant connections between switches to ensure network reliability. However, concerns arise about potential loops. What protocol should be implemented to prevent broadcast storms and network loops in this scenario?
D) STP
In a corporate network, the IT team needs a method to organize and manage different broadcast domains efficiently. Which feature enables administrators to dynamically add, modify, and delete broadcast domains without disrupting network operations?
A) VLAN Database
What are the IPv4 addresses ranges defined and what are they for private networks?
RFC (Request for Comment) 1918
-10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
-172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
-192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
What is APIPA and what are the ranges?
Automatic Private IP Address
169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
What are the three types of IPv6 data flows?
Unicast, Multicast, and Anycast
An IPv6 has how many bits and is written in what format?
128 bits in Hexadecimal format
What are the two steps to writing IPv6 in shorthand?
1. Drop any leading zeros
2. Use double :: once for consecutive groups of zeros
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:ff00:0042:8329
→
2001:db8::ff00:42:8329
Which of the following statements best reflects the compatibility requirements between IPv4 and IPv6 standards?
D) Dual-stack implementation enables coexistence, allowing devices to support both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously
An organization with multiple departments requires efficient use of IP addresses for its network infrastructure. The network administrator is tasked with subnetting to accommodate varying numbers of hosts in different departments. Which networking technique would be most suitable for this scenario?
B) Variable Length Subnet Masking (VSLM)
Which of the following is a private IPv4 address?
B) 172.16.254.10
In a video conferencing application, which IPv4 address class is most appropriate for multicast group communication, where data is intended to be sent to multiple recipients simultaneously?
A) Class D
Which type of IP address are you likely to see if a DHCP server is not working?
D) APIPA
What are the NAT IP address types?
Inside local
Inside global
Outside local
Outside global
In a small office, multiple internal devices need internet access. The network administrator wants to conserve public IP addresses. Which technique would be most appropriate for this scenario?
D) PAT = Port Address Translation
In a large enterprise network with multiple autonomous systems, which routing protocol is commonly used for inter-domain routing between different autonomous systems?
B) BGP
A company with internal servers requires them to be accessible from the internet. To enhance security and maintain private IP addresses internally, what is the best technique the network administrator should implement?
D) Static NAT
In a redundant network design, which protocol enables multiple routers to share a virtual IP address, providing seamless failover in case of an active router failure?
A) HSRP = Hot Standby Router Protocol
In a network, administrators want to establish a secure and scalable tunnel for encapsulating a variety of protocols. Which protocol should be used for this purpose?
B) GRE
QoS tries to address what three major categories?
Delay = the time a packet travels from source to destination
Jitter = Uneven arrival of packets
Drops = dropped packets due to congestion
Leon, the company's network administrator, is concerned about the integrity of DNS responses received from external servers due to recent incidents of DNS cache poisoning. They want to implement a solution that ensures the authenticity of DNS data to mitigate such attacks. Which security mechanism is designed to provide authentication and integrity for DNS data and best accomplish this task?
A) DNSSEC
Ivan, as a network administrator, is tasked with ensuring accurate time synchronization across all devices in their company's network. Due to the diverse geographical locations of their offices, maintaining precise time becomes crucial for coordinated operations and secure transactions. Which protocol should they implement to synchronize time across the network effectively?
B) NTP
Leslie’s company is expanding its network infrastructure to accommodate a growing number of employees and devices. They need to implement a method for automatically assigning IP addresses to devices on the network without the need for manual configuration. This will streamline the onboarding process for new devices and reduce administrative overhead. Which IPv6 addressing mechanism would allow devices on the network to automatically configure their own unique IP addresses based on the network prefix advertised by the router?
A) SLAAC
As a network administrator for a large corporation, Claude is tasked with enhancing the security and privacy of the company's network infrastructure. Recently, there have been concerns about the confidentiality of DNS queries, as traditional DNS queries are sent in plaintext, leaving them susceptible to eavesdropping and manipulation. This poses a significant risk, especially when employees access sensitive resources or handle confidential information. To mitigate these risks, he decides to explore alternative methods for DNS resolution that offer encryption and privacy protections. Which technology provides this enhanced security and privacy for DNS queries?
D) DoH
Sylvia is on a VoIP call and has noticed that the voice of the person she is talking to is sort of jumbled up. What is the term for the issue she is experiencing?
B) Jitter
What sets 5G apart from other cellular generations?
Has low, mid and high bands.
What is the IEEE 802.16 standard for?
Microwave connections
What is MPLS and what does it do?
Multiprotocol Label Switching
-Label routing
oshua lives in the United States. He is at his local Verizon store, choosing a new phone. Verizon is an American cellular service provider. Joshua and his girlfriend travel to Europe twice a year, in the past he has paid high roaming costs so he could use his Verizon based phone. His girlfriend encourages him to buy a GSM phone. Why would she suggest this?
B) GSM phone use SIM cards, so he can get a European SIM card and avoid roaming charges
Ahmed, a network technician, has moved into his very own home, more than a block from the nearest other house. He is enjoying the freedom of not having roommates, family, or even close neighbors. He wants the fastest possible fiber optic connection so he can play video games and stream loud music. Which of the following should he choose?
A) FTTH
In the realm of networking standards, particularly for delivering high-speed internet access, which option is most suitable as it is specifically designed to optimize data transmission over cable infrastructure, offering compatibility and efficiency?
B) DOCSIS
A multinational corporation with constant communication needs between its global offices seeks a WAN connection. They prioritize security and speed over all other factors. Which WAN connection type would be best for those considerations?
A) Dedicated leased line
Johnson University is a rural university. The university’s fiber optic connection isn’t providing the needed bandwidth. The university’s buildings are close together and are easily connected to one another through existing fiber connections. Their tallest building has a clear line of sight and the administration isn’t opposed to having an antenna attached to it. Which of the following would provide the fastest connections and the most bandwidth for the lowest price?
A) Microwave connection
What is SaaS and what does it cover?
Software as a Service
Full stack including networking, storage, servers, virtualization, middleware, runtime, data, and application
What is PaaS and what does it cover?
Platform as a Service
Networking, storage, servers, virtualization, OS, middleware, and runtime.
What is IaaS and what does it cover?
Infrastructure as a Service
Networking, storage, servers, and virtualization
Exam special notes on IaaS and PaaS
Typically, IaaS allows for an OS to be installed as part of the solution. If the exam asks about a mostly hardware solution that includes OS it is likely still IaaS and not PaaS.
What is an SDN?
Software defined network
Which deployment model provides dedicated infrastructure for a single organization, offering greater control and security over resources while maintaining scalability and flexibility?
B) Private cloud
Which cloud characteristic allows a number of users to share the same physical resources while maintaining isolation and security between them?
C) Multi-tenancy
Which of the following options best exemplifies a cloud networking service where resources such as applications are centrally hosted and accessed via the internet?
D) SaaS
Which of the following best illustrates the most suitable use case for a Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN)?
A) A multinational corporation with branch offices worldwide requiring centralized network management
Which of the following is a benefit of SASE?
D) It provides users and devices secure, fast, and reliable access to resources in the cloud
Define a threat?
Person or event that has the potential for impacting a valuable resource in a negative manner
Define a vulnerability?
Quality or characteristic within a given resource or environment that might allow the threat to be realized
Within the CIA triad, what does the “A” stand for?
B) Availability
Which of the following terms refers to a decoy computing system or network set up to lure attackers and gather information about their activities?
C) Honeynet
Which of the following standards sets requirements for handling credit card data to ensure secure payment transactions?
B) PCI DSS
Which of the following practices involves reducing the attack surface and enhancing security by removing unnecessary features and configuring settings on a device?
D) Device hardening
What term refers to a malicious technique or software crafted to exploit vulnerabilities in computer systems, often leading to unauthorized access or system compromise?
B) Exploit
A company implements VLANs to segregate its departments' network traffic. During a security audit, a potential vulnerability is identified where an attacker could gain unauthorized access to another VLAN. What technique could the attacker use?
A) VLAN hopping
Sarah is in a hurry to get to her office this morning. She isn’t paying attention to her surroundings. She swipes her badge and quickly goes through the door. She doesn’t even notice that Jonathan, a PenTester, has taken advantage of her speed and has also gone through the door without swiping a badge. What type of social engineering attack has Jonathan performed?
D) Tailgaiting
Cozyco Investments has experienced a cyberattack aimed at intercepting web traffic to steal sensitive information, it involved a technique that corrupts the DNS cache of a server to redirect users to malicious websites. Which of the following is the most likely to have been used?
D) DNS poisoning
While connecting to a public Wi-Fi network at a coffee shop, you unknowingly connect to a rogue access point set up by an attacker to intercept your data. This scenario is an example of:
C) Evil twin
Bankco, a financial institution, is concerned that the sensitive data that it transmits between branches over a wide area network (WAN) could be compromised. Considering this, what type of attack could intercept and manipulate this data in transit?
D) On-path attack
To get into a website, a person must be able to enter their password, username, and answer two personal questions. How many authentication factors does this website test?
B) 1
What communication protocol does RADIUS use?
B) UDP
In a corporate environment with separate departments needing isolated network access, which process would be most effective for ensuring both network segmentation and traffic monitoring?
C) Configure a VLAN
Nordic Treasures, a small business, has decided that it wants to improve its security stance and take steps to secure its internal communications. It was decided that due to a low budget, they will implement a system that provides better authentication without relying on third-party certificate authorities. Which method would be the most suitable?
D) Utilizing PKI with self-signed certificate
Which type of security measure is used to control access to an area by using a retina scan?
D) Biometric
What is an ICS?
Industrial Control System
Single plant/system
What is a DCS?
Distributed Control System
Small connection of ICS systems in a single area?
What is a SCADA?
Supervisory Control and Data Aquisition
Different ICS and DCS plants in a WAN
Nigel, a network technician, was discussing implementing a better security stance with his supervisors. They decided together that they should implement a Zero Trust philosophy to best assist with ongoing concerns over their networks. Which of the following best describes this Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA) when compared to other methods?
B) A security model based on the assumption that threats are already inside the network and no entity, whether inside or outside, should be trusted by default
Which remote access protocol encrypts data for secure transmission over the internet and is commonly used for managing network devices remotely?
A) SSH
Which network device feature is commonly used to enforce traffic filtering based on predefined criteria such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols?
A) ACL
Which technology is commonly used to monitor and control industrial processes in sectors such as manufacturing, energy, and utilities?
B) SCADA
Which network solution is commonly implemented to allow guests and personal devices to access the internet without compromising the security of the primary corporate network?
C) BYOD
What is jitter?
Network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of the data packets over a network connection occurs
What is latency?
The measure of the time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network
Which mechanism enables proactive notification of network events and facilitates efficient monitoring and troubleshooting in network management?
C) SNMP
In network administration, which technique is commonly used for monitoring network traffic without disrupting normal operations?
D) Port mirroring
In cybersecurity operations, which technology is primarily used for centralizing the collection, correlation, and analysis of security event logs from various sources?
D) SIEM
In the context of network baselines, what term refers to an unusual deviation from the established patterns of network activity?
D) Anomaly
In network monitoring, what type of sensor is commonly used to intercept and analyze network traffic for security and performance monitoring purposes?
D) Packet capture sensor
What is the primary benefit of scripted automation?
D) It reduces errors
Which of the following statements accurately describes Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?
B) IaC is a programming approach that automates the management and provisioning of infrastructure resources
What is the primary advantage of using dynamic inventories in networking?
D) Simplifies network management and reduces manual effort
What is the primary difference between playbooks and templates in networking?
B) Playbooks and templates server different purposes, but both are used for automating network configuration
What is the primary purpose of orchestration in networking?
C) Automating network device configurations
What are the five levels of documentation and processes?
Policies = defines the role of security inside of an organization and establishes the desired end state for that security program
Standards = implements a policy in an organization
Baselines = Creates a reference point in network architecture and design
Guidelines = Recommended action that allows for exceptions and allowances in unique situations
Procedures = Detailed step-by-step instructions created to ensure personnel can perform a given task or series of actions
What is an SLA?
Service level agreement
What is a MOU?
Memorandum of Understanding
Which term specifically denotes a formal contractual arrangement between a service provider and a client, detailing the anticipated standard of service?
A) SLA
Which type of diagram would you use for information flow between networking devices?
B) Logical diagram
Which of the following is a tangible asset?
C) Servers
Which of the following is a key feature of an IPAM solution?
D) It allows comprehensive reporting of network performance analysis and anomaly detection.
Which of the following is a formalized system for tracking network components and managing their life cycle?
D) Asset management
What is the gold standard for downtime and how many minutes/year is this?
99.999% or five 9s
5 minutes of downtime per year
In the event of a natural disaster causing a complete shutdown of your primary data center, which type of backup site would ensure the quickest recovery with minimal data loss?
A) Hot backup site
Which metric measures the maximum acceptable amount of data loss in a disaster recovery scenario?
D) RPO
Ample Automations, a processing company, is implementing a disaster recovery plan for their critical systems. They want to ensure high availability and are considering different approaches. Which of the following is a characteristic of an active-active approach?
A) Involves multiple servers actively processing request simultaneously
Which type of backup site is partially operational and requires some time to become fully functional in the event of a disaster?
D) Warm backup site
What is the purpose of load balancing in regards to networking?
A) Distributing network traffic evenly across multiple servers
Which step in the troubleshooting methodology involves identifying changes made to the network configuration before the issue arose?
C) Establish a theory of probable cause
Which of the following statements does not fit “Identifying the Problem”, while following the troubleshooting methodology?
A) Question the obvious
When should the troubleshooting methodology be employed?
D) Whenever encountering network issues, regardless of scope or complexity.
What is the final step in the troubleshooting methodology?
A) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned throughout the process.
How many steps are involved in the troubleshooting methodology?
D) 7
You are a network technician troubleshooting connectivity issues in a large office building with multiple WiFi networks. To identify potential interference and optimize signal strength, which tool would be most effective for investigating WiFi signals?
D) WiFi analyzer
You are a network administrator troubleshooting DNS resolution issues for your organization's website. You suspect there might be a problem with the DNS records. You want to be able to use a command that allows an in-dept query and that allows you control over the environment. Which of the following commands should you use?
A) nslookup
You're a network engineer investigating network performance issues in a large office environment. Users complain about delays when accessing resources on the local network. After reviewing the network infrastructure, you suspect there might be issues with address resolution. Which command would you use to inspect the network device's cache for IP and MAC address mappings?
B) show arp
In a bustling office environment, Kirsty, a network technician, is tasked with identifying connectivity issues in a cluttered server room. Wires snake through the room, shelves are stacked with equipment, and desks are filled with paperwork. Amidst this chaos, the technician needs a tool to pinpoint the exact connections causing trouble. What tool should the technician use to efficiently identify connectivity issues in the cluttered server room?
D) Toner
Leon, a network security analyst, is investigating suspicious network activity in a large corporate office. It has a combination of both wireless and wired access. They need to monitor traffic within the building to plan for additional office space. Leon wants to determine resource usage and optimize performance. The network spans multiple floors, with various departments interconnected. Which tool should Leon use to examine the traffic?
A) NetFlow analyzer
What is attenuation?
Loss of signal strength on a network cable or connection over the length of the cable
How do you troubleshoot attenuation on copper? Fiber?
Cable certifier / Fiber light meter
How do you troubleshoot interference on copper? Fiber?
Spectrum analyzer / Spectrum analyzer
How do you troubleshoot decibel loss on copper? Fiber?
Cable certifier or cable analyzer / Fiber light meter
How do you troubleshoot for a bad port?
Loopback adapter
How do you troubleshoot incorrect pinouts, shorts or opens?
Cable tester, cable certifier, or wire mapping tool.
What is CRC?
Cyclic Redundancy Error
-Any error that occurs when the check of a data block’s integrity upon reception does not match the checksum value attached during transmission
Which of the following causes attenuation?
D) Cables longer than their specified distances
You're overseeing a large-scale data transfer between servers in different geographical locations. Despite robust network infrastructure, some files arrive corrupted, leading to delays and errors in processing. Upon investigation, you suspect that the corruption is occurring during transmission due to noise interference or hardware issues. In this scenario, which method is most suitable for detecting these errors?
D) Cyclic Redundancy Check
You're setting up a new Ethernet network in an office building. After completing the cabling installation, you find that some computers are unable to connect to the network. Upon inspection, you discover that some RJ45 connectors are not crimped correctly, causing intermittent connectivity issues. Which of the following is an issue that results from inadequate crimping?
B) Improper termination
You are troubleshooting a network issue and notice that packets are being discarded due to their size being below the minimum allowed by the network protocol. Which of the following could be the cause?
D) Runts
While troubleshooting a network connectivity issue between two devices, you discover that the cable connecting them is not appropriate for networking purposes. The cable currently in use has a single copper conductor surrounded by a layer of insulation and a metallic shield. What type of cable is likely causing this issue?
A) Coaxial
Donna, a customer experience manager on the upper floors of a large corporate building, has frequently experienced dropped connections and slow internet speeds. The IT department conducts tests and finds that the Wi-Fi signal strength diminishes significantly as you move higher in the building. What is the most likely issue?
B) Insufficient wireless coverage
Albert works as a production assistant in a large corporate environment that relies on a wireless network for their day-to-day tasks. Recently, some of his co-workers have reported sudden disconnections from the Wi-Fi network, especially when moving between different areas of the office. Despite having a strong Wi-Fi signal, these disconnections occur randomly and affect multiple devices. Additionally, there have been no recent changes to the network configuration or equipment. What is the most likely issue causing the sudden disconnections experienced by employees?
B) Client disassociation issues
In a suburban neighborhood, residents subscribe to the same internet service provider (ISP) and utilize Wi-Fi for their home networks. Recently, several households have been experiencing intermittent connectivity issues and fluctuations in internet speed. Despite having high-speed internet packages, some residents notice that their Wi-Fi signal strength weakens significantly during certain times of the day, particularly in the evening when many households are online simultaneously. Additionally, the distance between the Wi-Fi routers and the devices within these households remains relatively consistent. What is the most likely cause of the connectivity issues and fluctuations in internet speed experienced by residents?
D) Signal degradation
Denise manages a small design studio where employees frequently move around the open workspace to collaborate on various projects. However, they encounter frequent disruptions to their internet connection when transitioning between different zones. Despite the studio's compact layout, the Wi-Fi network fails to seamlessly hand off connections between access points (APs), leading to frustration and delays in completing tasks. Despite attempts to troubleshoot the issue, such as relocating routers and adjusting settings, the problem persists, hindering productivity. What is the likely cause of the frequent disruptions to the internet connection for employees in the design studio?
D) Roaming misconfiguration between access points
In a wireless network deployment, users in certain areas experience intermittent connectivity issues despite having strong signal strength. Upon investigation, it's discovered that neighboring access points (APs) are operating on frequencies that interfere with each other, resulting in disrupted communication for connected devices. What is the likely primary cause of the connectivity issues?
D) Channel overlap
How do you fix multicast flooding?
Configure switch to block unknown multicast packets.
Tracy in the Sales department is experiencing difficulties accessing certain resources and applications critical for their work. Despite having proper network connectivity, they are unable to connect to the sales database and customer relationship management system. The IT department suspects a network configuration issue is causing the problem. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the reported network issues?
D) Incorrect VLAN assignment
In a bustling office environment, employees rely heavily on the company's Wi-Fi network to access resources, collaborate, and communicate. However, lately, users have been encountering difficulties connecting their devices to the network. Despite being within range of the Wi-Fi access points, devices struggle to obtain IP addresses and often fail to connect to the network altogether. The IT department is tasked with resolving these connectivity issues promptly. Which of the following could be the likely cause of the reported network issues?
A) Address Pool Exhaustion
In a large office building, the IT department recently implemented a new subnetting scheme to accommodate the growing number of devices on the network. However, some employees are reporting issues with connecting to certain network resources. Despite having proper network connectivity, they are unable to access shared folders and printers. The IT team suspects a network configuration issue is causing the problem. Which of the following could be the likely cause of the reported network issues?
D) Incorrect subnet mask
In a network environment, users report intermittent connectivity problems and sluggish performance. Upon investigation, it's revealed that multiple switches are interconnected without proper spanning tree protocol (STP) configuration. What is the likely cause of the network issues?
A) Network loop
A user is unable to access webpages on the internet despite being connected to the company's network. You have verified that they are connected to the proper network/SSID. Of the following, which would be the most likely cause of this issue?
A) Incorrect default gateway
You get several emails from co-workers experiencing intermittent disruptions in their video conference calls. They note occasional freezes and audio delays, but otherwise seem to be functioning normally. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A) Jitter
Which of the following will occur when a network is overwhelmed by continuous multicast traffic?
C) Broadcast storms
On a university campus, students living in dormitories often complain about sluggish internet speeds, especially during evenings when many are simultaneously online. Despite having a robust internet infrastructure, students report difficulty in accessing online lectures and submitting assignments on time due to the slow connection. Moreover, the university's IT department notices a significant spike in network traffic during these peak hours. What is the most likely cause of the slow internet speeds experienced by students in the dormitories?
D) Network congestion
In a network environment, users report experiencing sluggish internet speeds and intermittent connectivity. Upon investigation, it's discovered that a router is encountering severe congestion, leading to performance degradation. What is the most likely cause of the network performance issue?
B) Packet loss
Which of the following commands would help to determine where packets are being lost?
