tmp_16631-Lear 40_45 Limitations-890665703

  1. Icing conditions exist when OAT on ground & for takeoff is __°C (__°F) or below, or SAT in flight is __°C (__°F) to -__°C (__°F), and visible moisture in any form is present.
    • 10°C (50°F)
    • 10°C (50°F)
    • -40°C (-40°F)
  2. LR45 Max Ramp Weight
    21,750 lbs
  3. LR45 Max Certified Takeoff Weight
    21,500 lbs
  4. LR45 Minimum Flight Weight
    14,000 lbs
  5. LR45 Max Zero Fuel Weight
    16,500 lbs
  6. LR45 Max Certified Landing Weight
    19,200 lbs
  7. LR40 Max Ramp Weight
    21,250 lbs
  8. LR40 Max Certified Takeoff Weight
    21,000 lbs
  9. LR40 Minimum Flight Weight
    13,500 lbs
  10. LR40 Max Zero Fuel Weight
    16,000 lbs
  11. LR40 Max Certified Landing Weight
    19,200 lbs
  12. VMO
    330 KIAS
  13. MMO Primary Display
    • with Mach Trim Operative - .81MI
    • with Mach Trim Inop & A/P engaged - .81MI
    • with Mach Trim Inop & A/P disengaged
    • - 23,400 to 42,000 feet - .76-.78 MI
    • - Above 42,000 feet - .78 MI
  14. VMO Standby Instruments
    325 KIAS
  15. MMO Standby Instruments
    .75 MI
  16. VLO
    200 KIAS
  17. VLE
    260 KIAS
  18. VFE
    • Flaps 8°......250 KIAS
    • Flaps 20°....200 KIAS
    • Flaps 40°....150 KIAS
  19. Turbulent Penetration
    Lowest of .75 M or 230
  20. Vmcg
    • Rudder Boost On, APR On.....102 KIAS
    • Rudder Boost On, APR Off....100 KIAS
  21. Max Takeoff Pressure Altitude
    14,000 feet
  22. Max Takeoff Tailwind Component
    • Aircraft not modified by SB 45-72-1...10 kts
    • Aircraft modified by SB 45-72-1:
    • - 12,000 feet and below...10 kts
    • - Above 12,000 feet.........0 kts
  23. Max En Route Pressure Altitude
    51,000 feet
  24. Max En Route Fuel Load Imbalance
    • 45-002 thru 45-258 and 45-260 not modified by SB 45-28-8...Wings balanced w/in 500 lbs
    • 45-259, 45-261 thru 45-200 and prior modified by SB 45-28-8...Wings balanced w/in 200 lbs
  25. Max Landing Pressure Altitude
    14,000 feet
  26. Max Landing Tailwind Component
    10 kts
  27. Runway Conditions
    • Landing is limited to paved runways
    • Runway Water...3/4 inch (19mm)
  28. Landing Pressurization
    Cabin not pressurized
  29. Max Fuel Load Imbalance for Landing
    Wings balanced within 200 lbs
  30. EICAS Landing Requirements
    SUMRY or FLT page
  31. A minimum of __ minutes must elapse between landing touchdown and selection of takeoff thrust for next takeoff. This does not prohibit touch-and-go landings.
    15 minutes
  32. EICAS or MFD __ or __ page must be selected for takeoff and landing.
    SUMRY or FLT
  33. Do not extend flaps above __ feet.
    18,000 feet
  34. Do not extend gear above __ feet.
    18,000 feet
  35. No __ maneuvers, including __ are approved. Intentional stalls are prohibited above __ feet.
    • Aerobatic
    • Spins
    • 18,000 feet
  36. Autopilot must be __ for takeoff and landing.
  37. Do not intentionally __ the autopilot
  38. Autopilot Minimum Use Height:
    - Climb, En Route or Descent __ feet AGL
    - Approach __ feet AGL
    • Climb, En Route or Descent...500 feet AGL
    • Approach............................200 feet AGL
  39. Autopilot and Flight Director are approved for __ approaches.
    Cat 1
  40. Starter cooling periods between consecutive uses:
    • After Start Attempt 1; 1 Minute
    • After Start Attempt 2; 2 Minutes
    • After Start Attempt 3; 30 Minutes
  41. ITT Limit APR
    • AR: 963°C
    • BR: 1013°C
  42. ITT Limit T/O
    • AR: 941°C
    • BR: 991°C
  43. ITT Limit MCT
    • AR: 916°C
    • BR: 991°C
  44. ITT Limit MCR
    • AR: 900°C
    • BR: 974°C
  45. ITT Limit Start
    • AR: 941°C
    • BR: 991°C
  46. Tire Limiting Speed (Ground Speed)... __ kts
    165 kts
  47. Do not takeoff or land with wing fuel imbalance greater than __ lbs.
    200 lbs
  48. APU Generator Limits
    Continuous- __ amps
    300 amps
  49. Fuels approved for the main aircraft engines are also approved for the __
  50. Delta P Pressurization Limits..... __
    +9.9 psid to -0.5 psid
  51. Do not __ with the cabin pressurized.
  52. Operating the APU during __ refueling is prohibited.
    Gravity Fill
  53. Operating the APU during fluid de-icing/anti-icing is __ .
  54. Do not takeoff with an -APU FAIL- amber CAS illuminated. In the event the APU automatically shuts down due to and APU failure, a visual inspection of the unit must be conducted prior to __ .
  55. HI FLOW must be __ with takeoff power selected , or for landing, anti-icing operations and flight above 30,000 feet.
  56. ENG Sync must be __ for takeoff, landing and single-engine operation.
  57. The max amperage from an external power source must be limited to __ amps.
    1,500 amps
  58. Generator output is limited as follows:
    -- Continuous - __ amps
    -- Transient - Higher transient loads for cross-starts and battery charging are __ .
    • 300 amps
    • Authorized
  59. Crew and pax O2 masks are not approved for use above __ feet cabin altitude. Prolonged operation of pax O2 masks above __ feet cabin altitude is not recommended.
    • 40,000 feet
    • 25,000 feet
  60. Rudder boost must be __ for takeoff.
  61. Do not extend spoilers with flaps __ while airborne, except as specified in EMERGENCY and/or ABNORMAL PROCEDURES.
  62. Autospoilers must be __ for takeoff and landing, except do not __ autospoilers for training maneuvers where engine failure will be simulated above V1 speed or for touch-and-go landings.
    • Armed
    • Arm
  63. __ __ use Thrust Reversers for backing up aircraft.
    Do not
  64. TR circuit breaker must __ be intentionally pulled in flight, except as specified in QRH.
  65. Thrust Reverser must not be used for __ __ __ landings.
  66. Max reverse thrust usable at speeds down to __ KIAS.
    40 KIAS
  67. Thrust Reversers limited to __ when in MANual mode.
  68. Lear 40 Mmo primary
    • with Mach trim op/inop and A/P engaged
    • 26,800 - 36,000: .81 36,000 - 40,000: .81-.80 above 40,000: .80
    • with Mach Trim Inop & A/P disengaged
    • - 23,400 to 42,000 feet - .76-.78 MI
    • - Above 42,000 - .78
  69. Max crosswind
    None. Max demonstrated 22kts
  70. Vmca
    • Flaps 8: 103
    • Flaps 20: 101
  71. Vmcl
    • Flaps 8: 105
    • Flaps 40: 98
  72. Max load factor
    • Flaps up.............+2.9g to -1.0g........max bank angle 70°
    • Flaps down.......+2.0g to -0.0g.........max bank angle 60°
  73. Ground temperature limits
    • -23c or above prior to engine start
    • Cabin temp above -15c prior to takeoff
  74. External power
    1500 amp and 28 volts DC
  75. Engine computer
    Must be on at all times. Except as specified.
  76. Baggage compartment 40/45
  77. What part is it certified under?
    Part 25
  78. What types of operation is it certified for? Ditching?
    • Day,night, IFR, vfr, icing.
    • Not certified for ditching
  79. What documents need to be onboard?
    • A.worthiness
    • R.egistration
    • R.adio license
    • O.perating limitations
    • W.eight and balance

    Plus primus 1000, FMS and RMU manuals.
  80. How does engine sync work?
    Left engine is master. 5% limit

  81. When dies starter cut out?
    51% n2 (approx 50%book??????)
  82. How many spools do each engine have?
  83. Where is APR displayed?
    Top of EICAS
  84. When will APR activate if it is armed?
    Difference of 15% N2
  85. How soon after shutdown must engine oil be checked?
    1 hour
  86. Are engine dipsticks the same?
    No the left is longer.
  87. What are the functions of the standby fuel pump.
    • Automatically during engine start
    • As a backup to the main ejector pump.
    • For wing to wing transfer.
  88. What triggers L/R fuel qty low.
    • Approximately 365lbs in wing tank.
    • (Approx. 45 min reserve)
  89. What must be done when using gravity filler port to ensure wings are full.
    Vent/expansion lines must be drained so air does not get trapped in wings.
  90. What do winglets do?
    Reduce induced drag.
  91. What are the danger areas around the lear?
    • Radar: 15 ft from the nose
    • Intake: 12 ft
    • Exhaust: 40 ft
  92. How many static wicks can be missing?
    • Check the MEL
    • 4
    • Most inboard
  93. How many emergency exits?
  94. What are the functions of the emergency com button?
    • Com 1
    • Nav 1
  95. Tire PSI?
    • Nose: 109 +/- 5
    • Main: 165 +/- 5
  96. What lights are on the hot battery bus?
    • 1. tail cone \
    • 2. baggage / goes out with door closed and latched
    • 3. SPPR panel
    • 4. Pylon light (switch in baggage)
    • 5. Entry door light
    • 6. Overhead cockpit light
    • 7. Emergency lights
  97. Fire bottle discharge indicators?
    • Red: overheat/overpressure
    • Yellow: manual discharge
  98. How can you turn the radar on while still on the ground?
    Press the STAB button 4 times.
  99. Limitations for turning radar on while on the ground?
    • 15 ft from people.
    • 100 ft metallic items, buildings, and people refueling.
  100. Lear 45XR/40XR usable fuel?
    • Total fuel: 6062
    • Wing fuel: 3354
    • Fuselage fuel: 2708
  101. What kind of engines/apu?
    • Honeywell TFE731-20BR-1B
    • Allied signal RE100LJ
  102. Can you use engine sync when in Apr ?
  103. Can you use Apr with deec's in man
  104. How long can you stay at take off power? Apr?
    5 minutes. 5 minutes
  105. How many fuel tanks does the Lear 45 / 40 have?
  106. How many fuel vents are installed?
  107. How many fuel pumps are installed?
    Two main ejector pumps. To engine driven pumps. To electric standby pumps.
  108. When will the right Electric standby pump come on automatically?
    During engine and APU start.
  109. How is fuel heated?
    Engine oil cooler.
  110. What are the two ways to open the fuel crossfeed valve?
    Defueling panel and cockpit switch
  111. How many hydraulic pumps are installed?
    2 engine driven pumps, one on each Engine, and 1 electric aux pump.
  112. Can the engine driven hydraulic pumps charge the B-accumulator?
  113. What flight controls are hydraulic?
    Flaps and spoilers.
  114. If the destination altitude is 48 feet. What is the landing pressurization set to?
    100 feet.
  115. where is the foot heater switch located?
    there is not one it is automatic.
  116. Where are the outflow valves located?
    The pressure bulkhead in front of the pilots feet.
  117. What cabin altitude warnings do you get it?
    • Landing elevation set to 8000 ft or less:
    • 8,750 Master Caution single chime amber CAS message.
    • 9,500 master caution in single chime emer pressurization activates
    • 10,000 Master warning, triple chime, voice warning "cabin altitude".
    • 13, 700 both outflow valves close (cabin altitude limiter)
    • 14, 500 master caution, single chime, passenger oxygen masks deploy, emergency lights activate.
    • Landing: elevation set above 8, 000. Everything above happens at 14,500 except cabin altitude limiters 13, 700 with aircraft below 24,500.
  118. How are windshields heated?
    Ac from alternator.
  119. Are leading edges heated?
    Yes with bleed air
  120. Do you have to monitor minimum N1 with NAC heat on?
    No it is automatic.
  121. Why do both ITTs rise during an anti ice test with one bleed air heat off
    Because air for anti-ice comes before high pressure shut off valve.
  122. What kind of brakes are installed?
    Carbon fiber.
  123. Do we use any different technique when braking?
    Yes, it is better to get brakes hot
  124. The landing gear doors stay open with the gear down?
    Nose gear doors stay open. Main gear doors close.
  125. If a CB says Pull and reset. How many times can you reset it?
    Only once.
  126. Are circuit breakers magnetic or thermal?
  127. What does it mean if a circuit breaker has a red ring around it?
    It is powered off the emergency bus.
  128. What does the available light mean for the GPU?
    It means that the GPU is good.
  129. When will a bus tie close automatically?
    during an engine or APU start. With a GPU connected. When only one generator is online and the other gen bus is at least 20 volts.
  130. What indication will you see with an alternator failure?
    Windshield heat fail.
  131. If you lose a generator in flight what does the panel look like?
    Left and right non essential bus loadshed. Generator fail. Bus tie closes.
  132. What does the panel look like with a dual generator failure?
    • Left and right non essential buses off.
    • left and right main buses off.
    • L/R gen fail.
    • EMER on.
  133. Why is the right amp load always higher than the left?
    EMER battery charges off the right.
  134. When do emergency lights automatically come on?
    Dual generator failure and mask deployment.
  135. Will you have landing lights with a dual generator failure?
  136. Is the right side pilot overhead map light on the hot battery bus?
  137. How many ice detector lights are installed?
    One on the right side.
  138. Why are balanced tabs installed?
    For a heavier control feel.
  139. Do both ailerons have trim tabs?
    No only the left side.
  140. Can you use spoilers and flaps at the same time?
  141. What does a trim settings for takeoff give you?
    Trimmed for V2.
  142. What is pitch trim bias and when is it used?
    pitch trim bias is used if a stabilizer jam occurs. pitch trim bias modifies geometry of elevator up down spring to relieve elevator pressure.
  143. List all the ways you can disconnect the autopilot.
    • Ap button
    • Manually trimming barrel switch
    • Activating SEC trim switch
    • Selecting pitch trim selector switch to OFF
    • Pressing the YD button
    • Pressing GA switch on left thrust lever
    • Selecting either AHRS Reversionary switch away from normal
    • Depressing either control wheel master switch
    • Touch control steering (temporary)
    • Over powering autopilot
  144. What is the corrective action if a DU number 3 fails?
  145. What does a #2 ic-600 failure look like?
    Red X's on DU number 3 and number 4
  146. What will pitch and roll modes give you?
    basic wings level functions.
  147. Can you display weather on both DM use at the same time?
    No only one.
  148. What does a yellow frequency mean?
    It was remotely tuned using the opposite RMU.
  149. What does it mean if FMS needles are yellow?
    • The pilot and co pilot have selected navigation from the same source.
    • FMS 1 and FMS 1
  150. How is oxygen quality measured?
  151. About what altitude must 1 pilot be on oxygen?
  152. Why do you go to 100 percent with smoke in the cockpit?
    It provides 100 percent undiluted oxygen at all cabin altitudes.
  153. How are thrust reversers powered?
  154. If you have a TR deploy. Will the throttle retard?
  155. Must both gear be on the ground to deploy thrust reversers?
    Yes both left and right squat switches must be in ground mode.
  156. Are thrust reversers automatically locked out when fire switch is pushed?
  157. Delta P limits
    • Controller 9.3
    • Cash message 9.5
    • Outflow valve 9.7
  158. What cas ice detect indications do you get?
    • White Ice Detect - ice is detected and wing/stab is on and L/R NAC is on
    • Amber Ice Detect - ice is detected with anti ice off
    • Amber ice detect fail
  159. What will set off a configuration warning?
    • Flaps not set for takeoff
    • Spoilers not retracted
    • Pitch trim not in a safe position for takeoff
    • Parking brake not released
    • Thrust reverser unlocked
    • Rudder trim not in a safe position for takeoff
    • Aileron trim not in a safe position for takeoff
    • Pitch trim bias not in proper position
  160. Where is CAS TO inhibit displayed and when?
    Bottom of EICAS during TO above 40 kts with weight on wheels and TL at MCR or above
  161. If you loose the CWP what else do you loose?
    Caution warning panel, aural warnings.
  162. What info indications do you get with a engine fire?
    • Master warning
    • L/R fire cwp
    • L/R fire cas
    • Fire on engine instruments
    • Aural warning
    • Fire switch lights up
  163. How many fire bottles are installed on the airplane?
    3, 2 engine and 1 apu
  164. How many fire loops on each engine?
    1, 3 sections accessory gear box, hot section, pylon.
  165. What happens when you push the fire push switch?
    • Closes the bleed air valves
    • Disconnects the generator and alternator.
    • Disables the onside windshield heating
    • Closes fuel shutoff valves
    • Closes hydraulic shutoff valves
    • Closes the thrust reverser isolation valve
    • Arms the fire bottle squibs
    • Inhibits engine ignitors
  166. Where are handheld fire extinguishers located?
    Behind each pilot seat and one in the cabin.
  167. What are the emergency exits?
    Top hatch of main cabin door and over the right wing.
  168. I thrust reversers considered in landing distance?
  169. How much distance do you add to a rolling take off
    300 feet.
  170. Where is contaminated runway take off data found?
    Contaminated section of AFM
  171. Why are some tabs blue and some tabs white in the AFM?
    Blue is flight tested White is derived.
  172. Max refueling and defueling pressures
    55 psi and minus 10 psi
  173. What kind of sensor is inside the engine nacelle
    total inlet pressure and temperature.
  174. What purpose of the drooped leading edge? Vortilons? Stall strips and triangles?
    Improve low-speed handling. Minimize lateral flow. Improve stall characteristics.
  175. What is considered normal oil consumption?
    1 quart every 25 hours. 1 quart Low is considered normal
  176. When does the emergency battery light come on?
    Discharge greater than 5 amps.
  177. what are the trend times for the airspeed and altitude tape?
    Airspeed trend 10 seconds. Altitude trend 6 seconds.
  178. Which display is on the emergency battery bus?
    RMU number 1.
  179. How do you get engine indication with a dual generator failure?
    Channel A of both DAU's are on the emergency bus. Engine indications are displayed on RMU number one.
  180. What size battery do we have and how long does it last?
    38 amp/hour lead acid battery. Last 50 min.
  181. Why do both battery switches need to be turned on at the same time?
    The IC 600's need to complete self tests.
  182. Do generators come online with a GPU plugged in? APU?
    GPU no. APU yes.
  183. What does DEEC stand for
    Digital electronics engine computer.
  184. What kind of over speed protection do we have?
    • Deec on or in MAN
    • 105% gov
    • 107% N1 ultimate overspeed protection shut down.
    • 109% N2 ultimate overspeed protection shut down.

    • Deec off
    • 105% N2 gov
  185. What are two ways to cut off fuel to the engine?
    Trust lever cut off. Fire switch push.
  186. When will the ignitor turn on after start?
    Uncommanded rollback or rapid deceleration.
  187. How much thrust for each engine? Apr?
    3500 lbs of thrust and 3650 lbs with APR up to 104°f.
  188. What is required of an alternate Airport?
    Alternate airport must have operative approach other than GPS and airplane must be capable of using it.
  189. limitations of the APU?
    • Starter limits
    • Attempt #1 wait 1 min
    • Attempt #2 wait 2 min
    • Attempt #3 wait 15 min

    • Ground operations only up to 10,000 ft
    • Prohibited during deicing
    • Must be shutdown prior to takeoff.
    • Operation with amber APU fan fail is limited to 100°
    • Fuel burn is 150 lbs per hour
  190. What should the fire bottle pressure be?
    600psi (400-800)
  191. What kind of hydraulic fluid?
  192. Approved fuels?
    JP-5, JP-8, Jet A and Jet A-1
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tmp_16631-Lear 40_45 Limitations-890665703
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