Bio 93 Midterm 2

  1. transport work:
    ATP phosphorylates transport proteins
  2. mechanical work:
    ATP binds noncovalently to motor proteins and then is hydrolyzed
  3. exergonic reaction:
    energy released, spontaneous, negative delta G
  4. If DG is positive (DG>0), then free energy is _________ the reaction
    consumed in
  5. endergonic reaction:
    energy required, nonspontaneous, positive delta G
  6. A cell must ______ exergonic and endergonic reaction
    couple
  7. ATP hydrolysis is a(n) _______ reaction?
    exergonic
  8. phosphorylated intermediate:
    higher energy, less stable, and thus more reactive
  9. Enzymes can only allow structures that ____ it's active site
    fit
  10. What can penicillin do to enzymes in bacteria?
    block active sites of enzymes leading to dysfunctional enzyme
  11. If an enzyme is added to a chemical reaction
    the activation energy will be reduced
  12. Cellular respiration refers to
    catabolic reactions used to generate ATP
  13. Site of cellular respiration in all eukaryotic cells
    Mitochondria
  14. Defects in mitochondrial function can cause
    degenerative diseases, cancer, aging
  15. Inherited mitochondrial diseases effects
    muscle weakness, degenerative disease of the CNS, metabolic dysfunction
  16. The relocation of electrons from food to oxygen
    released energy used to synthesize ATP
  17. General Redox Reactions have Two Components
    Oxidation and Reduction
  18. Oxidation (X) is the
    loss of electrons (increasing positive charge)
  19. Reduction (Y) is the
    addition of electrons (reducing positive charge)
  20. In redox reaction for cellular respiration
    glucose is oxidized, oxygen is reduced, and energy is released
  21. What prevents glucose from instantly combining with oxygen?
    Its activation energy
  22. How does the transfer of electrons generate energy?
    an electron loses potential energy when it shifts from a less electronegative atom to a more electronegative one
  23. Transfer of electrons from fuel to transport chain is mediated by
    NADH
  24. Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats can all be used as fuel for
    cellular respiration
  25. Cellular Respiration- First Stage
    • In the cytosol, glycolysis converts glucose to pyruvate
    • glycolysis generates substrates for citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
  26. Cellular Respiration- Intermediate Stage
    pyruvate is converted to Acetyl CoA and pyruvate moves into the mitochondrial matrix
  27. Cellular Respiration- Second Stage
    • Citric Acid Cycle A.K.A. Krebs Cycle or Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
    • takes place in the mitochondria, converts ADP to energy-rich ATP
  28. Cellular Respiration- Third Stage
    • oxidative phosphorylation
    • electron transport and chemiosmosis
  29. What if there is no oxygen in oxidative phosphorylation?
    majority of the ATP synthesis would eventually fail
  30. ATP synthase allows
    passive transport of H+ back to the matrix
  31. A drug that specifically inhibits ATP synthase will
    increase the pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane
  32. Photosynthesis is the process by which
    light is converted to chemical energy stored in sugar and other molecules
  33. Autotrophs produce organic molecules from
    CO2 and other inorganic molecules
  34. Higher plants, protists, algae, and cyanobacteria are
    Phototrophs
  35. Animals, fungi, and many bacteria are
    Heterotrophs
  36. Heterotrophs obtain organic material from
    other organisms
  37. Heterotrophs ultimate depend on photoautotrophs for
    food and O2
  38. In photosynthesis CO2 is _____ and Water is ______
    reduced, oxidized
  39. What is the site of photosynthesis?
    Chloroplasts
  40. Where are chlorophyll molecules found?
    Thylakoid membrane
  41. What wavelength works best for photosynthesis?
    violet-blue and red
  42. Electrons in the porphyrin ring absorb
    light energy (photons)
  43. When chlorophyll absorbs a photon of light, the energy is conserved by
    an electron going to a higher energy state
  44. In photosynthesis, light reactions occur
    in the thylakoid membranes
  45. _____ moves down an electrochemical gradient across a membrane and drive ATP synthesis
    protons
  46. ______ transfer chemical energy from food molecules to ATP
    mitochondria
  47. _______ transform light energy into the chemical energy of ATP
    chloroplasts
  48. Calvin cycle consists of ______,_______, and ______
    fixation, reduction, and regeneration
  49. Carbon Fixation
    carbon dioxide is converted into organic carbon compounds, such as carbohydrates
  50. What is the hereditary substance or material?
    DNA
  51. Which are the 4 nucleotides in DNA?
    Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, and Thymine
  52. In humans A=___,T=____, G=____, and C=____
    30%, 30%, 20%, 20%
  53. What is the structure of DNA?
    double helix
  54. DNA replication begins at special sites called
    origins of replication
  55. At the end of each replication bubble is a
    replication fork
  56. What are helicases?
    enzymes that untwist the double helix at the replication forks
  57. What do single-strand proteins do?
    • binds to and stabilizes single stranded DNA until it can be used as a template
    • removes other proteins from DNA
  58. What do Topoisomerase do?
    corrects "overwinding" ahead of replication forks by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands.
  59. What enzymes catalyze the elongation of new DNA at a replication fork?
    DNA polymerase
  60. Most DNA polymerases require a ____ and a template strand
    primer
  61. Which enzyme can start an RNA chain from scratch and adds RNA nucleotides one at a time using DNA as a template?
    primase
  62. The leading strand moves ____ the replication fork
    towards
  63. The leading strand is dependent on the actions of _____ _______
    DNA polymerase
  64. The lagging strand moves _____ from the replication fork
    away
  65. The lagging strand is synthesized as a series of fragments callled _____ ______
    Okazaki fragments
  66. Okazaki fragments are later joined by
    DNA ligase
  67. ____ ______ proofread newly made DNA, replacing any incorrect nucletides
    DNA polymerase
  68. Eukaryotic chromosomal DNA molecules have special nucleotide sequences at their ends called
    tolemeres
  69. Tolemeres _____ the erosion of genes near the ends of DNA molecules
    postpone
  70. An organism's ______ is carried in its sequence of bases
    genotype
  71. the ______ is a consequence of the proteins that are expressed
    phenotype
  72. The Central Dogma (diagram)
    DNA-->RNA-->Protein
  73. _____ are the linkages between genotype and phenotype
    proteins
  74. The process by which DNA directs protein synthesis
    gene expression
  75. The initial RNA transcript from any gene
    primary transcript
  76. Because bacteria lack nuclei, transcription and translation are
    coupled
  77. ______ attach to mRNA molecule while transcription is still in progress
    ribosomes
  78. almost all transcription for eukaryotes occur in the ____
    nucleus
  79. ______ occurs mainly at ribosomes in the cytoplasm
    translation
  80. How many codons in the genetic code?
    64 codons
  81. The genetic code is ______ but not ________
    redundant, ambiguous
  82. What does the genetic code is redundant but not ambiguous mean?
    The genetic code is redundant (more than one codon may specify a particular amino acid) but not ambiguous (no codon specifies more than one amino acid)
  83. Codons must be read in the correct ______ _______ in order for the specified polypeptide to be produced
    reading frame
  84. What are the three stages of transcription?
    Initiation, elongation, and termination
  85. RNA synthesis is catalyzed by _____ ________ which pries the DNA strands apart and hooks together the RNA nucleotides
    RNA polymerase
  86. RNA synthesis follows the same base-pairing rules as DNA, except ______ substitutes for _______
    uracil, thymine
  87. _______ ________ mediate the binding of RNA polymerase and the initiation of transcription
    transcription factors
  88. The completed assemble of transcription factors and RNA polymerase II bound to a promoter is called a ______ _______ ________
    transcription initiation complex
  89. A promoter called a ____ ___ is crucial in forming the initiation complex in eukaryotes
    TATA box
  90. Each end of a pre-mRNA molecule is modified in a particular way: the 5' end receives a ______ _____ ___ and the 3' end gets a ___ ___ _____
    modified nucleotide cap, poly-A tail
  91. RNA splicing removes ____ and joins ______, creating an mRNA molecule with a continuous coding sequence
    introns, exons
  92. What are spliceosomes?
    large and complex molecular machines found primarily within the splicing speckles of the cell nucleus of eukaryotic cells
  93. Genes produce proteins via _______ and then ______
    transcription, translation
  94. A cell transfers an mRNA message into a protein with the help of ____ ______
    transfer RNA (tRNA)
  95. Molecules of tRNA are not identical because (2 reasons)
    • each carries a specific amino acid on one end
    • each has an anticodon on the other end
  96. The anticodon base pairs with a complementary codon on
    mRNA
  97. Accurate translation requires two steps; the first being
    a correct match between the tRNA anticodon and an amino acid
  98. Accurate translation requires two steps; the second being
    a correct match between the tRNA anticodon and an mRNA codon
  99. What is aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?
    an enzyme that finds correct match between the tRNA anticodon and an amino acid
  100. What is a wobble and what does it do?
    • a wobble is flexible pairing at the third base of a codon
    • it allows some tRNAs to bind to more than one codon
  101. What are the three stages of translation
    initiation, elongation, and termination
  102. Translation initiation steps:
    • a small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA
    • a large ribosomal unit completed the initiation complex
  103. Translation elongation steps:
    • codon recognition
    • peptide bond formation attaching the amino acid
    • translocation
  104. Termination of translation:
    • ribosome reaches a stop codon on mRNA
    • release factor promotes hydrolysis
    • ribosomal units and other components dissociate
  105. How is a polyribosome formed?
    when a number of ribosomes translate a single mRNA simotaneously
  106. What do polyribosomes enable?
    it enables a cell to make copies of a polypeptide very quickly
  107. The primary transcript of a gene contains
    introns
  108. Substrate-level phosphorylation refers to:
    Generation of ATP and ADP from a phosphorylated substrate
  109. A cell with a mutation in the gene that codes for actin would be most likely to show disruption in
    Formation of the cleavage furrow
  110. The formation of ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation requires the use of:
    enzymes
  111. What occurs in Meiosis I
    crossing over
  112. In meiosis, groups of 4 chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle and their alignment determines independent assortment during:
    metaphase I
  113. What are the two phases of the cell cycle?
    interphase and mitotic phase
  114. What are the three stages of interphase?
    G1, S, and G2
  115. G1:
    synthesis of macromolecules and cytoplasmic organelles
  116. S: DNA replication
  117. G2: additional growth
  118. Mitotic phase:
    • mitosis and cytokinesis
    • equal distribution of genetic material to 2 daughter cells
  119. Mitosis:
    sister chromatids separate, one to each daughter cell
  120. Cytokinesis:
    process of division of the cytoplasm
  121. What are the five subphases of mitosis?
    prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
  122. Prophase (mitosis)
    • the chromosomes start to condense
    • the mitotic spindle begins to form
    • the nucleolus disappears
  123. Prometaphase (mitosis)
    • the chromosomes finish condensing
    • the nuclear envelope breaks down
    • the mitotic spindle grows more and some of the microtubules begin to capture chromosomes
  124. Metaphase (mitosis)
    all the chromosomes align at the metaphase plate
  125. Anaphase (mitosis)
    the chromosomes separate and each pair are pulled towards opposite ends of the cell
  126. Telophase (mitosis)
    • the mitotic spindle is broken down
    • two nuclei form-nuclear membranes and nucleus reappear
    • the chromosomes begin to decondense
  127. Cytokinesis (mitosis)
    • cell membrane divides
    • forms a cleavage furrow before division (animal cell)
    • forms a cell plate (plant cell)
  128. A chromosome is:
    a single DNA molecule
  129. A chromosome undergoes replication in the __ phase of the cell cycle
    S
  130. How does a cell regulate and control the cell cycle?
    checkpoints
  131. Define checkpoints:
    critical control points where stop and go signals regulate the cycle
  132. What checkpoint did 93stop trigger according to the data?
    at the end of G1
  133. I f a cell does not receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint:
    the cell exists the cell cycle and goes into G0, a nondividing stage
  134. ______ give go-ahead signals at G1 and G2 checkpoints
    Cdks (cyclin-dependant kinases)
  135. What do growth factors do?
    stimulates surrounding cells to divide
  136. What happens when cell cycle regulations fails?
    cancer
  137. Cancer cells lose two aspects of a normal cell which are:
    anchorage dependence and density-dependent inhibation
  138. Anchorage dependence:
    cells require a surface for division
  139. Density-dependent inhibation
    • cells form a single layer
    • cells wont divide if there isn't enough space around them
  140. Proto-oncogene:
    • a normal cellular gene corresponding to an oncogene
    • has the potential to become cancer but that requires some alteration to become an oncogene
  141. Oncogene:
    a gene found in viruses or as part of the normal genome that is involved in triggering cancerous characteristics
  142. Tumor-suppressor genes
    genes whose normal products inhibit cell division
  143. What are think is best ways to cause uncontrollable cell division?
    • Express an oncogene to overstimulate cell cycle
    • Lose a tumor suppressor gene to remove inhibitory signaling of cell cycle
  144. Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?
    to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
  145. Mitosis is the way in which _______ cells divide
    somatic (non-sex)
  146. Meiosis is:
    a special type of cell division used in sexual reproduction for the formation of gametes
  147. Karyotype:
    image of a person's chromosomes
  148. Human cells have ___, making up ___ pairs of homologous chromosomes
    46, 23
  149. Which human chromosome was the first to be sequenced in its entirety?
    22
  150. What are the phases of meiosis I?
    Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, and Cytokinesis
  151. Prophase I (meiosis)
    • the chromosomes begin to condense and pair up
    • the chromosomes begin crossing over
  152. Metaphase I (meiosis)
    homologue pairs—not individual chromosomes—line up at the metaphase plate for separation
  153. Anaphase I (meiosis)
    • the homologues are pulled apart and move apart to opposite ends of the cell
    • The sister chromatids of each chromosome remain attached to one another and don't come apart
  154. Telophase I and cytokinesis (meiosis)
    • the chromosomes arrive at opposite poles of the cell
    • two haploid cells form
  155. Chiasmata
    the X-shaped structure formed at the point below the brain where the two optic nerves cross over each other
  156. What are the phases of meiosis II?
    prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II, and cytokinesis (same as meiosis I)
  157. Meiosis II:
    • separates sister chromatids
    • results in four haploid daughter cells containing unduplicated chromosomes
  158. Diploid cell:
    a cell that contains two sets of chromosomes
  159. Haploid cell:
    a cell that contains a single set of chromosomes
  160. Meiosis-How is variability generated?
    • Independent assortment of chromosomes
    • Crossing over
    • Random fertilization
  161. The fruit fly has four pairs of chromosomes. The house fly has six. In which species would you expect to see more genetic variation among the progeny?
    the house fly
Author
jocelyn8
ID
336067
Card Set
Bio 93 Midterm 2
Description
midterm 2
Updated