1. 685 (Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical
    area when short of which symbol?

    Top red.

    Middle yellow.

    Bottom yellow.
  2. 686 To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should

    Rely on body sensations.

    Increase the breathing rate.

    Rely on aircraft instrument indications.
  3. 687 Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

    Insufficient oxygen.

    Excessive carbon monoxide.

    Insufficient carbon dioxide.
  4. 688 To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should

    Swallow or yawn.

    Slow the breathing rate.

    Increase the breathing rate.
  5. 689 Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?


    Decreased breathing rate.

    A sense of well-being.
  6. 690 Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

    A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.

    An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.

    Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.
  7. 691 Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?

    Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.

    Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

    Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
  8. 692 Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as

    Humidity decreases.

    Altitude increases.

    Oxygen demand increases.
  9. 693 Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart?

    At airfields where DP's have been established, DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures.

    To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure.

    To use a DP, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard
  10. 694 (Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at

    DENAY intersection.

    Glide slope intercept.

    ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.
  11. 695 (Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is

    11,000 feet MSL.

    7,000 feet MSL.

    9,000 feet MSL.
  12. 696 (Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed
    approach point?

    4.8 NM.

    5.2 NM.

    12.0 NM.
  13. 697 (Refer to figure 37) If the glide slope becomes inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM,
    what MDA applies?

    1,157 feet.

    1,320 feet.

    1,360 feet.
  14. 698 (Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope
    interception is

    2,365 feet MSL.

    2,400 feet MSL.

    3,000 feet MSL.
  15. 699 The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as
    practical to ATC when

    Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in

    Requested to contact a new controlling facility.

    Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.
  16. 700 (Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A

    One VOR receiver.

    One VOR receiver and DME.

    Two VOR receivers and DME.
  17. 701 Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are

    Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.

    To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.

    Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion.
  18. 702 While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be
    maintained until

    Reaching the FAF.

    Advised to begin descent.

    Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.
  19. 703 (Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN
    represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

    Denver VORTAC.

    Dymon outer marker.

    Cruup I-AQD DME fix.
  20. 704 What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

    A procedure turn is not authorized.

    Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.

    Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
  21. 705 A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when

    Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes.

    Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.

    Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.
  22. 706 On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or
    continue the approach unless the

    Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.

    Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.

    Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,

    can be made.
  23. 707 Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the

    Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.

    Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used. 

    Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.
  24. 708 (Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the
    glide slope becomes inoperative?

    1,420 feet.

    1,340 feet.

    1,121 feet.
  25. 709 For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport
    on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a

    Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.

    Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

    Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM.
  26. 710 For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on
    an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the
    following weather minimums.

    Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.

    Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision.

    Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.
  27. 711 (Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which
    extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

    Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

    8,000 feet MSL.

    2,100 feet AGL.
  28. 712 VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC.

    True, they are both the same

    False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.

    False, but they are correlated
  29. 713 Hypoxia is the result of:

    The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream

    The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen

    All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic
  30. 714 A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc:

    1.0 DME

    2.0 DME to either side of the arc

    0.0. (No deviations are allowed)
  31. 715 If you are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads 6.0 Nm, you are:

    6.0 Nm from the VOR

    4.5 Nm from the VOR

    3.0 Nm from the VOR
  32. 716 TERPs are a US standard used for:

    All ICAO special charts

    IFR departure design criteria

    . Non Jeppesen stars
  33. 717 When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:

    Continue flying the DP as published

    Return for a landing

    Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included
  34. 718 Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:

    True, except as published on STARs

    False, every airport is different

    True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs
  35. 719 Departure Procedures must:

    Be flown if available for that airport

    Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan

    Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC
  36. 720 On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean:

    V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight

    V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation

    V stands or “Victor Collins” whom in 1935 invented the airways between VORs and 344 is the airway

  37. 721 MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and:

    Navigation signal

    Both navigation and communications

    1.500 ground clearance around mountains
  38. 722 When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need:

    Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side

    Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway

    Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line
  39. 723 1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on:

    MVA, MEA and MOCA


    Neither, as the radio altimeter is never activated (2.500 Ft or less) when the aircraft flies in mountainous

  40. 724 In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of
    navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need:

    A Hi or Lo enroute chart

    A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used

    A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation
  41. 725 When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed
    off from TWR:

    Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code

    Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code

    Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code
  42. 726 When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should:

    Write a maintenance report at your next stop

    Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements

    Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing
  43. 727 Position reports when required should include:

    Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point

    Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you


    Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any
  44. 728 You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should:

    Report leaving present altitude.

    Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times

    Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic
  45. 729 You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should:

    Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles

    If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time

    Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt.
  46. 730 In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs.

    You will fly two complete racetrack patterns

    You will fly three complete racetrack patterns

    The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.
  47. 731 If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should:

    Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts

    Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category

    Maintain the speed up so as to hold at the fastest speed possible to be the first to leave the fix and

    expedite ATC
  48. 732 When is an IFR flight plan required?

    When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.

    In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone

    In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.
  49. 733 Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?

    Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.

    Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.

    Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.
  50. 734 To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate
    ATC clearance prior to

    Entering controlled airspace.

    Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums.

  51. 735 To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received
    prior to

    Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.

    Entering weather conditions in any airspace.

    Entering controlled airspace.
  52. 736 When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

    When operating in the Class E airspace.

    When operating in the Class A airspace.

    When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.
  53. 737 When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR
    flight plan and receive a clearance before


    Entering IFR conditions.

    Entering Class E airspace.
  54. 738 No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan

    And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.

    Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.

    And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
  55. 739 During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing
    has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before
    through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet
    the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,

    Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

    Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

    And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
  56. 740 What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is
    forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first
    airport of intended landing,

    And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

    Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

    Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
  57. 741 What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a
    VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR
    flight plan?

    800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.

    800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.

    1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and

    landing under basic VFR.
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