170 Additional Systems Questions

  1. What is the "Dark and Quiet" Cockpit concept?
    The concept is based on the assumption that while in flight, all systems are normal when the overhead main, glareshield and control pedestal panels have no lights on, no aural warnings are being issued, the selector knobs are positioned at 12 o'clock.
  2. What does the white bar strip on any cockpit switch indicate?
    The switch is not in its normal position.
  3. When does EICAS automatic mode de-cluttering occur after takeoff?
    De-cluttering occurs 30 seconds after landing gear retraction and flap/slat retraction, APU OFF, if all parameters are displaying normal indications.
  4. Name a few items that are de-cluttered on the EICAS after takeoff.
    Oil pressure, oil temperature, engine vibration, slat position, flap position, speed brake position, landing gear position, and pitch trim green band.
  5. When is the EICAS de-clutter feature disabled?
    When the landing gear is extended, APU is operating, EICAS Full button pushed in, Cautionary or Abnormal indication detected, or the speedbrake is extended.
  6. Each navigation and strobe light is composed of two lamps. Normally only one lamp is on, while the second lamp is on standby. In case of failure, how are the lights switched?
    Panel behind the F/O seat under the direction of Maintenance Control
  7. When do the photo luminescent escape path strips be charged?
    Prior to the first flight of the day by interior cabin lighting.
  8. When is the passenger door escape slide automatically disarmed?
    When the door is opened from the outside.
  9. What is the purpose of the vent flap on the passenger and service doors?
    To relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the doors
  10. Are door warnings provided for all doors and hatches in the pressurized vessel?
    Yes, an EICAS CAUTION message displays.
  11. When will the reinforced cockpit door latch open?
    After the forth emergency call chime cycle ends, the door will open if the INHIB Push button is not pushed within 30 seconds after EMERG CALL push button activation.
  12. What pressurizes the potable water central storage tank?
    Engine and APU bleed air
  13. What are the four alert levels EICAS provides the crew?
    Warning, caution, advisory, status
  14. What happens when a new warning, caution, advisory, or status are displayed?
    They are presented flashing in inverse video.
  15. What is the purpose of the aural warning?
    Aural warnings are used when the pilot needs immediate knowledge of a condition without needing to look at a visual display or indicator.
  16. What are the items that will generate the dedicated takeoff configuration aural warning?
    • 1. Flaps not in the takeoff position
    • 2. Parking brakes are applied
    • 3. Pitch trim out of the green range
    • 4. Any spoiler panel deployed
  17. What is the Integrated Control Center (ICC)?
    An electrical control device, which provides power distribution and protection for the electrical loads.
  18. What is the SPDA?
    Secondary Power Distribution AssembliesAn electric load management and power distribution device.
  19. How can the flight crew reset the SPDA remote electronic CBs?
    Via the MCDU.
  20. What is the source priority order for powering the AC main buses?
    • 1. Respective IDG
    • 2. APU generator
    • 3. GPU (if on the ground)
    • 4. Opposite IDG
  21. Does the cool down period apply to the EMER STOP push button to the APU?
    no
  22. What is indicated by an illuminated red bar in the upper half of the EMER STOP button?
    APU fire
  23. When does APU electrical and pneumatic loading become available?
    3 seconds after APU speed has reached 95%
  24. What indication would you have of an APU auto shutdown?
    An "APU FAIL" EICAS caution message
  25. Will the APU auto shutdown in flight for an APU fire?
    no
  26. What supplies fuel to the APU when DC power is the only electrical power available?
    The DC electric pump; after APU start, the AC pump takes over
  27. How is fuel feed to the APU when the engines are running?
    The ejector fuel pump feeds fuel from the right fuel tank.
  28. Can you refuel the airplane without APU/EXT power?
    yes
  29. How would you check the fuel quantity if the electric fuel quantity indicator fails?
    With the magnetic level indicators.
  30. What would be the indication of a fuel imbalance?
    An EICAS "FUEL IMBALANCE" caution is displayed when the imbalance equals or exceeds 794 lbs until the imbalance is reduced to 100 lbs.
  31. Where would the fuel systems indications and parameters be displayed?
    On the Fuel MFD synoptic pages and the EICAS.
  32. What is the function of the AC fuel pump?
    The AC fuel pump is a backup pump supplying fuel to the engine in the event of an ejector pump fail or during engine start.
  33. What indication do you have that the fire-extinguishing bottle has been discharged?
    An ENG FIREXBTL A (B) DISCH advisory on the EICAS.
  34. What indication do you have when both fire-detector loops have failed?
    APU FIRE DET FAIL caution on the EICAS.ENG (1 or 2) FIRE DET FAIL
  35. Can you dispatch with 1 fire detection loop inoperative?
    yes
  36. What occurs after smoke detection in the FWD cargo compartment?
    The recirculation fan shuts off and the ventilation outflow valve closes
  37. What happens when you push the FIRE EXTINGUISHER CARGO SMOKE push button?
    The high rate fire-extinguishing bottle is discharged immediately into the selected cargo compartment. One minute later, the second bottle is discharged at a reduced rate for 60 minutes.
  38. Can the low rate fire-extinguishing bottle be discharged before 1 minute has elapsed?
    Yes, by pressing the associated push button again
  39. Will the low rate fire-extinguishing bottle discharge automatically on the ground after one minute?
    No. The flight crew must push the cargo fire-extinguishing pushbutton again.
  40. What EICAS warning would be the indication of a lavatory smoke fire?
    "LAV SMOKE"
  41. When would the lavatory fire-extinguishing bottle be discharged?
    When the temperature inside the waste container is high.
  42. What position on the IGNITION SELECTOR KNOB does the FADEC disregard in flight?
    OFF
  43. What does the N1 WING ANTI-ICE CYAN LINE during final approach indicate?
    The minimum thrust level (N1) to meet bleed requirements
  44. Does the FADEC protect against hot or hung starts for in-flight engine starts?
    No.
  45. What is indicated when an amber WML icon is displayed next to the respective engine N2 indication?
    An engine has flamed out and the FADEC has automatically turned on both igniters and is attempting an auto relight.
  46. What action must be taken if the auto relight does not occur within 30 seconds?
    The start should be manually terminated by moving the START/STOP selector knob to the STOP position
  47. What provides the interlock function to protect against inadvertent thrust reverser deployment and stowing?
    The FADEC.
  48. What position must the thrust levers be in to enable the thrust reverser trigger?
    Idle.
  49. What happens to the thrust reverser within 3 seconds after an engine inoperative condition is detected?
    The thrust reverser trigger cannot be released.
  50. How many channels does the FADEC have?
    2, one channel is always active, while the other is an automatic backup
  51. How is FADEC powered?
    Above 50% N2 the FADEC is powered by the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA). Below this value (or incase the PMA becomes inoperative) the airplane’s electrical system provides back up power.
  52. How does the FADEC use the two igniters for an engine start on the ground?
    The FADEC alternates the use of igniters at each start.
  53. What is the Automatic Thrust Control System (ATTCS) and how is it controlled?
    The ATTCS is controlled by the FADEC and is available on takeoff and go-around.

    • The selection is made on the MCDU –TAKEOFF DATA SET MENU page and the indication is displayed on the EICAS as follows:
    • ATTCS label in white – system is armed
    • ATTCS label in green – system is engaged
    •                   The engagement only happens when the thrust levers reach the TO/GA set position.

    The selection from ON to OFF must be in accordance with the performance calculations for the 190 and is required to be ON for the 170/175.
  54. What indication would you see when the ATTCS has been activated?
    Whenever the ATTCS is activated, the green ATTCS indication on the EICAS disappears and the cyan thrust mode will be displayed with an additional RSV indication
  55. Can you transfer hydraulic fluid between systems?
    no
  56. What is the PTU and what is it used for?
    Power Transfer Unit

    The PTU is a mechanical pump, which is driven by system 1 hydraulic pressure, and uses hydraulic fluid from system 2 to assist in gear retraction in the event of EDP 2 or engine 2 failure.
  57. When does the PTU operate?
    During takeoff and landing, with the selector knob in the AUTO position the hydraulic system logic activates the PTU if the #2 engine or the #2 engine driven pump fails. The PTU will be automatically started when all the following conditions are met:

    • -Flaps not set to zero OR landing gear not up and locked
    • -EDP #1 not failed
    • -Hydraulic reservoir #2 quantity above 12%

    NOTE: The PTU will not be activated if the airplane is on the ground
  58. What is the primary power source for Hydraulic systems 1 and 2?
    The respective engine driven pump (EDP).
  59. What is used as a back up for the engine driven pump?
    The AC electric hydraulic pump.
  60. When is the electric hydraulic pump activated?
    With the electric hydraulic pump selector knob in AUTO, whenever an EDP fails or for takeoff and landing when the flaps are not set to the zero position.
  61. What is the primary power source for hydraulic system 3?
    The electric hydraulic pump 3A
  62. What is electric hydraulic pump 3B used for, and when does it operate?
    As a backup for electric hydraulic pump 3A, and is activated whenever the hydraulic pump selector knob is in AUTO and electric pump 3A fails.
  63. Do all Multi Function Spoiler panels deploy symmetrically in response to speed brake lever position?
    yes
  64. What happens when you select only half of either Pitch Trim switch on the control wheel or the Pitch Trim SYS 1 (2) cutout for more than 5 seconds?
    If only ½ of the trim switch is erroneously actuated for more than 7 seconds, that switch will be automatically deactivated, an aural warning “TRIM” will be activated for 6 seconds and an advisory EICAS message will be observed requiring a maintenance action to clear.
  65. What Flight control system on the ERJ-170 is not Fly By Wire?
    The ailerons.
  66. Where can you find a visual representation of the flight control system operations and parameters?
    The flight control system synoptic page on the MFD.
  67. Explain is general terms what Direct mode is?
    The Flight Control Mode (FCM) is removed from the control loop and the control limits default to the values set by the Primary Actuator Control Electronics (P-ACE). The high level functions of the particular flight control are removed.
  68. What are the 2 modes of operation for the elevator and rudder fly by wire systems?
    Normal and direct.
  69. What would cause the FCM to go into the direct mode?
    The loss of airspeed data.
  70. What are some examples of flight control high level functions?
    • -Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed
    • -Auto-thrust compensation with elevator
    • -Mach trim and autopilot trim function in AFCS
    • -Angle-of-Attack limiting with elevator offset
    • -Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting
    • -Yaw damper and turn coordination via AFCS
    • -Rudder flight authority
    • -Roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speed
    • -Automatic spoiler deployment at high mach number
    • -Configuration change compensation with horizontal stabilizer
  71. Are ground spoilers and speed brakes operational when operating in the Direct mode?
    no
  72. Which flight controls use electrical power instead of hydraulic power for actuation?
    The flaps, slats, and horizontal stabilizer.
  73. If the RAT is deployed do to an electrical failure, what effect does that have on the flight controls?
    All flight controls that require electrical power will move at half speed. The flaps/slats are also limited to 3 to assure adequate airspeed for RAT operation.
  74. Which spoiler panels are multi functional?
    The three outboard spoilers.
  75. What happens if the yaw and roll trim switches are held in position more than 3 seconds?
    The trim stops. The knob must now be released and re-energized prior the nextapplication.
  76. If the Captain or First Officer's control column is separated in flight, when can they be reset?
    They can only be reset by maintenance on the ground.
  77. When does the Autopilot automatic
    The autopilot disengages if one of the following conditions occur:

    • -AP button is pressed on the guidance panel
    • -AP button is pressed on either pilot’s control wheel
    • -Either manual pitch trim switch is activated
    • -Either stick shaker is activated
    • -Windshear escape guidance is activated
    • -Reversion of the fly-by-wire sytem to direct mode
    • -Either the aileron or elevator control systems are disconnected
    • -A pilot input contrary to the autopilot is made on the controls with a long time light force or a short time stronger force
    • -Internal monitor failure
  78. What is the indication of a normal or an abnormal autopilot disengagement?
    Normal- the FMA “AP” annunciation blinks red for 5 seconds and disappears and triggers the aural warning “AUTOPILOT” alert

    Abnormal- the same as a normal autopilot disconnect and an EICAS “AP FAIL” caution message present
  79. What is indicated by information that is displayed in green on the FMA and PFD?
    Active, non FMS related information.
  80. What is the "PREV" button on the DCU used for?
    It enables an automatic transition from LNAV to LOC or BC.
  81. What happens to the previously engaged vertical mode when the Windshear protection is automatically activated?
    Any other flight director modes are cancelled and the following modes are inhibited while in a caution or warning windshear condition.

    Altitude pre-select, go-around and takeoff modes are cancelled while in a caution or warning windshear condition. No lateral mode is inhibited while in windshear mode.
  82. What 3 things will deactivate the Flight Director Command Bars for the takeoff mode?
    • 1. The selection of another vertical mode (such as FLCH).
    • 2. The use of touch control steering (TCS).
    • 3. Autopilot Activation.
  83. How do you activate the Autothrottles (AT) on the ground?
    50° Thrust lever angle, and the autothrottle TO mode (white) must be armed
  84. What is the minimum altitude to activate the autopilot in flight?
    400 feet on takeoff
  85. Will the autopilot remain engaged in the event of an engine failure?
    yes
  86. What is the primary and backup method of tuning the radios?
    The MCDU is the primary and the CCD is the secondary
  87. What happens when you push the RAMP button on the Audio Control Panel (ACP)?
    The ramp button bar will illuminate and you can use the mike on your headset to communicate with the ground assuming the headset is plugged in at the external power panel.
  88. What happens when you operate the Master Volume Control Knob on the ACP?
    The knob will adjust the volume on the most recently selected audio.
  89. What is the position keeping priority for the FMS?
    GPS, DME/DME, IRS, Dead Reckoning.
  90. How long does a stationary alignment of the IRU take?
    5-7 minutes.
  91. Can the IRU be aligned in flight?
    Yes, an align in motion takes between 15-30 minutes.
  92. Will the MFD automatically revert to the PFD display in the event of a malfunction of the PFD?
    yes
  93. What happens when the vertical speed exceeds 4000 fpm?
    The pointer parks at the-end of the scale and the digital display shows the actual vertical speed.
Author
jascott246
ID
334654
Card Set
170 Additional Systems Questions
Description
170 Additional Systems Questions
Updated