OM 7-3

  1. There are several elements of preparedness for a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident including:
    • Planning
    • Training
    • Equipment
  2. Hazard Recognition consists of:
    • Awareness and acknowledgment of the threat.
    • The ability to perceive through intelligence, investigation and observation the indications that an attack is being contemplated, planned, or has occurred.
  3. Working Relationships with Outside Agencies: A WMD incident will not involve the implementation of a unified command as part of the Incident Command System (ICS).True/False
  4. Situational Awareness: If any personnel discover information relating to actual or suspected terrorist threats or activities they shall:
    Ensure the information is immediately reported to PaCIC.
  5. Planning: Planning is critical in all of our emergency functions including a threat of WMD. Plans must be outward-directed and should be tested in situational training exercises to ensure their validity. True/False
  6. The window of time that is available to save lives and mitigate the casualty effects of a WMD attack is known as _______________.
    The golden hour
  7. Which of the following are elements of preparedness for a WMD incident?
    • Hazard Recognition
    • Planning
    • Training
    • Equipment
  8. Which of the following are elements of preparedness for a WMD incident?
    • Working Relationships with Outside Agencies
    • Situational Awareness
    • Support for Personnel and Families
  9. If you encounter an incident where there are indications that a chemical, biological, or radiological weapon has been used, you should do the following:
    • Evacuate
    • Don Respiratory Protection
    • Call for help
    • Decontaminate
    • Isolate
  10. The issued Air Purifying Respirator can be used to fight fires and underground. True/False
  11. True or False: The Tyvek suit protects against radiation exposure and physical hazards, such as extreme heat or cold.
  12. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is designed to protect the responder from?
    • Inhaling WMD agents
    • Absorbing WMD agents
    • Ingesting WMD agents
  13. Department issued Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) does protect the wearer from exposure to radiation. True/False
  14. Level C Personal Protective Equipment, the one issued to our members, is appropriate for what conditions?
    • The identity of an agent is known
    • The agent concentration is below the level of Immediate Danger to Life and Health
  15. The issued chemical protective over-garment ensemble consists of what parts?
    • Tyvek coverall with hood
    • Overboots
    • Neoprene chemical resistant gloves
  16. Air purifying respirators (APR?s) supply air and should be used for fire fighting operations? True/False
  17. When wearing the issued chemical protective over-garment, what is the best answer in regards to your duty gear (ie. Belt, weapon, baton, etc.)?
    The Dept. taskforce commander will make an incident specific determination concerning the use and replacement of duty gear
  18. When receiving a threat of a WMD (Weapon of Mass Destruction) the FBI JTTF (Joint Terrorism Task Force) should be notified immediately. True/False
    False (A initial assessment should be done to determine if the threat is credible)
  19. If the victim of a threat attack is not a prominent individual or organization (potential target), it should be evaluated in the initial assessment. True/False
  20. The following are characteristics of a suspicious letter or package.
    • Excessive postage, no postage, or non cancelled postage
    • Postmark different than return address.
  21. Checking for the presence of a suspicious substance or device includes but is not limited too; Taking samples of a suspicious powder and submitting it to the laboratory for analysis. True/False
    False (The substance should be evaluated, but sending it to the lab does not assist in an initial assessment)
  22. Following the initial threat assessment, the incident should be classified into one of four pattern groups. Pattern A is the least severe and should be treated accordingly. True/False
    False (Pattern A is the most severe where a ?Threat can be articulated and a substance/device is involved.?)
  23. In the event of the actual or credible threatened use of a CBRN agent, which of the following should not be done?
    b). Approach the scene from downhill and downwind and make contact with potentially contaminated areas and people.
  24. True or False: Use the acronym AWARE as a memory aid:
    • True
    • Approach from upwind/uphill.
    • Wear PPE.
    • Alert other responders of potentially dangerous conditions.
    • Restrict entry into the affected area.
    • Evaluate victims? signs/symptoms and alert emergency responders.
  25. Perimeter control and security at a WMD incident scene are crucial to an effective response and investigation. The first consideration is maintaining and preserving the crime scene. True or False
  26. As a general rule, use the initial isolation distances listed in the Emergency Response Guidebook to define the:
    hot zone
  27. Law enforcement can facilitate the effective emergency response to a WMD release by understanding the layout of the field perimeter. All personnel assigned to the response should know with the exception of:
    Nearest medical facility
  28. When responding to a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) event, the first priority of the responder is?
    His/her own safety.
  29. During a WMD event, who may assume the lead responsibility for investigation and detailed processing of the crime scene if processing of the crime scene may not be immediately feasible?
    The Federal Bureau of Investigation
  30. What are the investigative tasks that can and should be performed prior to the arrival of the specialized units during a WMD event?
    • Photograph, videotape and sketch the scene
    • Conduct interviews of witnesses and victims
    • Be Alert for the possibility that the terrorist(s) is among the victims
  31. True or False. Evidence from a WMD event will be processed and documented at the scene?
  32. True or False. When collecting evidence from a WMD event, Hazmat personnel do not need to be requested to conduct basic tests for reactivity/volatility?
  33. The Department shall use the services of ______ to transport suspected chemical or biological agents.
    Weaver Investigations Inc.
  34. The designated primary laboratory for detection and identification of bioterrorism agents is:
    The Pennsylvania Department of Health, Bureau of Laboratories, Lionville, PA
  35. Suspicious materials or devices can be brought into a Department Facility:
    Under NO circumstances
  36. True or False. Evacuation of people who are in an area endangered by the release of a WMD will be complicated by their concern for their pets and agricultural livestock.
  37. True or False. Personnel shall follow the procedures defined in AR 5-10, Blood-Bourne Diseases, when encountering or handling injured victims or suspects at a WMD incident.
  38. Notification to __________ and to the appropriate FBI Resident Agency, Field Office or Joint Terrorism Task Force regarding any suspected terrorist threat, activity, or attack.
  39. Suspects who are arrested and are at a WMD incident scene or who are otherwise suspected as being contaminated should be secured and searched, preferably by members who are wearing PPE. True/False
  40. If requested to do so by the FBI, members are authorized to prepare FBI investigative reports to facilitate the federal investigative effort as directed by the Department On-Scene Commander. True/False
  41. Actual or suspected exposure of personnel to CBRN agents shall be reported as work-related injuries as defined in AR 4-4, Injury Investigations, Work-Related Injury, and Limited Duty. True/False
  42. Debriefing: Personnel being relieved of assignment to the incident shall be engaged in a ________ review to obtain their evaluation of the effectiveness and efficiency of the response to the incident. They shall also be directed to have a critical incident debriefing in accordance with AR 4-28, Critical Incident Stress Management.
Card Set
OM 7-3
2017 Promotion Test