DMV PA - CDL Transporting Passengers Endorsement Multiple Choice Test Questions

1. Commercial bus drivers must have a CDL if:

a. They drive a vehicle that has air brakes
b. They drive a vehicle that is required to carry more than fifteen (15) passengers including the driver.
c. They drive a vehicle that has a gross weight rating of more than 26,000 pounds.
d. They drive a vehicle that is designed to carry more than nine passengers.

2. Carry on baggage cannot be stored:

a. On the seats
b. Under the seat
c. Behind the seats
d. In the aisle

3. Buses may carry:

a. Small arms ammunition labeled orm-d
b. Car batteries
c. Explosives
d. Class 1 poison

4. When arriving at the destination announce:

a. The location
b. The next departure time
c. The reason for stopping
d. All of the above

5. A disruptive passenger:

a. Should not be discharged where it would be unsafe for them.
b. Is not your responsibility
c. Should not be allowed on the bus
d. May be thrown off the bus

6. If your bus leans toward the outside on a banked curve, you are:

a. Driving too slow
b. Driving on a wet surface
c. Driving too fast
d. Driving at the correct speed

7. You must stop your bus between:

a. 15 and 50 feet before a railroad crossing
b. 5 to 10 feet before a railroad crossing
c. 20 to 25 feet before a railroad crossing
d. None of the above

8. At the end of each shift you should:

a. Report any defects
b. Take all your personal belongings
c. Inspect your bus
d. All of the above

9. The interlock system for the brake and accelerator on a transit coach may be used:

a. To replace the rear door emergency buzzer
b. As a safety feature when the exit door is open
c. To replace the parking brake
d. All of the above

10. Your bus is disabled. The bus, with riders aboard, may be towed or pushed to a safe place only:

a. If getting off the bus would be more risky for the riders
b. By a tow truck with a GVWR of at least 27,000 pounds (lbs.)
c. If the distance is less than 1 mile
d. By another bus with its 4-way flashers on.

11. You may sometimes haul small arms ammunition, emergency shipments of drugs, or hospital supplies on a bus. The total weight of all such hazardous materials must not be greater than ___ pounds.

a. 750
b. 500
c. 250
d. 100

12. How many seats not securely fastened to the bus are usually allowed?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

13. It is best to wear your seat belt:

a. Only if your bus holds more than 27 people
b. Only when you will be driving over 35 mph
c. Only when driving on sand, gravel, or ice covered roads
d. At all times

14. Which of the following types of cargo can never be carried on a bus with riders?

a. Tear gas
b. Emergency hospital supplies
c. Emergency drug shipments
d. Small arms ammunition (orm-d)

15. If a rider wants to bring a car battery or a can of gasoline aboard your bus, you should:

a. Have the rider pay a second fare
b. Instruct them to sit next to an open window
c. Not allow them to do it
d. Tell them they must go to the rear of the bus

16. Some city transit buses may have a brake-door interlock system, this system:

a. Should be used in place of the parking brake
b. Releases the brakes
c. Should be used in emergencies
d. Works when the passenger exit doors are open

17. When it is carried on a bus, hazardous material must be:

a. Stored in the passenger compartment
b. Labeled
c. Packed in a yellow box.
d. All of the above

18. You have passed all the requirements for a "Class B" bus driver's license. Which of these vehicles are you not licensed to drive?

a. Class A bus
b. Class B bus
c. Class C bus
d. All of these vehicles can be driven with a Class A bus license.

19. Federal regulations set an axle weight limit of _____ pounds on a tandem axle (four feet apart).

a. 26,000
b. 32,000
c. 34,000
d. 40,000

20. You must put a loaded bus into motion from a stopped position on a steep upgrade (4% or more). Which of these is the best technique to follow when you have a bus with a manual transmission?

a. Accelerate hard and release the clutch quickly
b. Hold the foot brake until the clutch has been fully released.
c. Slowly release the clutch while releasing the parking brakes
d. Use the same method that is used when starting on a level surface or downgrade.

21. The drivers seat should be adjusted:

a. Only when the bus is moving at 30 mph or less
b. Only when the bus is at a stop
c. Whenever the driver finds it necessary while driving
d. None of the above

22. In general, the best braking technique to use in maintaining a safe speed when driving on a downgrade is:

a. Using only downshifting
b. Using only the parking brakes
c. Use the snub braking method (5 mph below safe speed)
d. Fanning or pumping the brakes

23. Which of these is the best general rule for night driving?

a. Increase the normal (daytime) following distance by one second.
b. Drive slightly slower than the other traffic
c. Drive slightly faster than the other traffic
d. Drive close to the shoulder of the road

24. Off tracking of the rear wheels is affected by:

a. Greater distance between the front and rear wheels
b. Sharper turns and curves
c. Faster speed on turns and curves
d. All of the above

25. How are buses supposed to handle most railroad grade crossings?

a. Come to a complete stop before crossing
b. Turn the vehicle flashers on before crossing
c. Tap the electric horn before crossing
d. Slow down and prepare to stop if a train is approaching

26. Which of these is a good rule for backing a straight bus?

a. None of these
b. Back toward the side opposite the driver
c. Use voice signals to communicate with a helper
d. Turn the steering wheel so that the front moves away from the direction in which you want the back of the vehicle to go

27. Which of these forms of signaling is not recommended?

a. Using four way flashers to warn of danger ahead
b. Signaling to others that you will change lanes
c. All of these answers are proper to use
d. Signaling to others that it is safe to pass your bus

28. Following are some situations that require special attention from all drivers. Which one is an even bigger problem for the driver of a vehicle with a low ground clearance?

a. Off tracking on sloped curves
b. Humps or dips in the road
c. Backing on level ground
d. Driving in slippery conditions

29. In a pressurized cooling system, coolant level should be checked:

a. Only by a mechanic
b. Every 90 days
c. Only while the engine is hot
d. None of the above.

30. You need to evacuate your bus in an emergency, passengers should be directed to a safe place no less than ___ feet from the bus.

a. 75
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200

31. If your bus has an emergency exit door, it must:

a. Not have any signs, stickers, or markings anywhere near it
b. Have a red electric door light turned on at all times
c. Be secured when operating the bus
d. Meet all of the requirements listed in the answers above.

32. Which of the following must be closed while the bus in in motion?

a. Emergency windows
b. Windows
c. Roof vents
d. Both a and b

33. The standee line is:

a. A two inch line on the floor to the rear of the driver's seat
b. A line two feet from the rear exit
c. There is no such thing on a bus
d. A two inch line dividing the aisle in half

34. Charter drivers should:

a. Mention rules
b. Not allow riders on the bus until departure time
c. Explain rules
d. All of the above

35. At drawbridges with no signal you must stop at least:

a. 5 to 10 feet before the draw of the bridge
b. 15 to 20 feet before the draw of the bridge
c. 50 feet before the draw of the bridge
d. 20 to 25 feet before the draw of the bridge

36. Prohibited practices on the bus include:

a. Talking with riders while driving
b. All of these
c. Towing a disabled bus
d. Fueling your bus with riders on board

37. Buses may have recapped or re-grooved tires:

a. Only on the outside wheel of dual wheels.
b. On any or all of the wheels
c. Anywhere except on the front wheels
d. Only when the average speed will be less than 40 mph

38. When you inspect your bus, you must make sure that:

a. Rider signaling devices are working
b. Every handhold and railing is secure
c. Emergency exit handles are secure
d. All of the above

39. If you have riders aboard, you must never fuel your bus:

a. With any of the windows open
b. In a closed building
c. Without a static chain
d. With a higher grade of fuel

40. A bus may carry baggage or freight only if it is secured so that:

a. Any driver can use all exits
b. Riders are protected from falling or shifting packages
c. The driver can move freely and easily
d. All of the above

41. You must not permit standing riders:

a. In front of the standee line
b. Within two feet of any window
c. Between the wheel wells
d. Within two feet of an emergency exit

42. Due to the extreme size of a bus, the driver must watch for:

a. Clearance your bus needs
b. Poles and wires
c. Gaps your bus needs to accelerate
d. All of the above

43. How many folding aisle seats are allowed in a bus?

a. 4
b. 0
c. 6
d. 8

44. Which of the following answers lists the three types of emergency equipment you must have on your bus?

a. Hydraulic jack, fire extinguisher, signal flare
b. Repair kit, spare electric fuses, and fire extinguisher
c. Fire extinguisher, spare electrical fuses, and emergency reflectors
d. Emergency reflectors, fire extinguisher, signal flares and tire repair kit

45. You do not have to stop but slow down at:

a. When a policeman or flagman is directing traffic
b. Street car crossing
c. Railroad tracks used only for industrial switching within a business district
d. All of the above

46. When you apply for a bus driving job, you must report to the company all motor vehicle accidents you have been involved in during the past __ year(s).

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

47. If you increase your speed from 20 to 60 mph (original speed times 3), how much more braking distance is required at 60 mph than at 20 mph.

a. 3 times
b. 3 * 2 or 6 times
c. 3 * 3 or 9 times
d. 3 * 4 or 12 times

48. When driving at more than 40 mph, what is the safe minimum following distance for ideal daytime conditions?

a. Four seconds
b. One second for every 10 feet of vehicle length (rounded upward to the nearest 10 feet)
c. Answer "a." plus one second.
d. None of the above

49. Federal regulations do not allow a driver to drive if he or she is:

a. Taking medication of any kind
b. Ill or impaired, and the condition interferes with the ability to drive safely
c. Ill for longer than three hours
d. All of the above

50. The proper time to cancel your turn signal for a lane change or turn is:

a. When you know that all other divers have seen your signal
b. About halfway through the maneuver
c. Just before starting the maneuver
d. When the maneuver is complete

51. When must a driver's inspection report be completed?

a. After every rest break
b. At the end of every work day
c. At every duty status change
d. At the start of every trip

52. When you are not sure who has the right of way, the safest course of action is to:

a. Let the vehicle on the right have the right of way
b. Let the faster vehicle have the right of way
c. Let whoever got there first have the right of way
d. Let the other driver have the right of way

53. Which of these statements about speed management is true?

a. You should be able to stop within the distance that you can see ahead
b. The posted speed limit is safe for all conditions
c. The heavier the bus, the less stopping distance required
d. All of the above are true.

54. An oncoming vehicle keeps its high beams on. You should deal with this hazard by:

a. Turning your high beams on
b. Blinking your trailer or side lights
c. Looking to the right side of your lane
d. Putting down your visors to block the beams

55. According to federal regulations, the minimum depth required for tire tread on steering axle tires is ____ of an inch.

a. 2/32
b. 4/32
c. 6/32
d. 8/32

56. All of the following should be in good working order before driving. Which item must be in good working order before the bus can leave?

a. Destination sign
b. Windows
c. Service brakes
d. Rest room service

57. Which of these statements about gear ranges in buses with automatic transmissions is true?

a. The highest range should only be used with heavy loads
b. The highest range should be used at all times except when roads are slippery
c. Lower ranges should only be used by buses equipped with engine brakes.
d. Lowest ranges should be used for greater engine braking on downgrades

58. If your bus becomes disabled on a freeway or expressway and you must stop on the left side of the road, it is best to stop so that the bus is:

a. At an angle to traffic with the front door facing the downstream side of traffic
b. In line with traffic, against the farthest left wall divider, or line
c. In line with traffic and centered between the left edge of the shoulder and the left edge of traffic
d. None of the above

59. A straight vehicle weighing 20,000 pounds GVWR which hauls 20 passengers falls into which CDL class:

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. All of the above.

60. As the driver of a bus, how can you best avoid hindering other traffic on the highway?

a. By staying in the right hand lane
b. By driving slightly faster than the other traffic
c. By traveling in convoy packs with other heavy vehicles
d. By passing only the slowest vehicles

61. Name some things to check in the interior of a bus during the pre-trip inspection.

A. Parking brake and steering mechanism
B. Lights, reflectors, and horn
C. Tires and windshield wipers
D. All of the above

62. As you check the outside of the bus, you should close any open emergency exits or open access panels.

A. True
B. False

63. When checking the interior of a bus before driving it which of the following parts of the bus must be in sage working condition?

A. Signaling devices (emergency buzzer)
B. Handrails, emergency exit handles
C. Air Conditioners and heaters
D. A and B
E. C and D

64. Are bus drivers required to wear seatbelts?

A. Yes
B. No

65. Is it alright to leave carry on baggage in a doorway or aisle?

A. Yes
B. No

66. Most hazardous materials cannot be carried on a bus, but some hazardous materials are allowed.

A. True
B. False

67. What are some hazardous materials you can transport by bus?

A. Poison, tear gas, and irritating materials
B. Small arms ammunition, hospital supplies, and drugs
C. Explosives and radioactive materials

68. In buses designed to allow standing you can stand anywhere you want.

A. True
B. False

69. What is a standee line?

A. A strip around the outside of the bus.
B. A two inch line on the floor to show riders where not to stand.
C. A two inch line between the seats.

70. Does it matter where you make a disruptive passenger get off the bus?

A. Yes
B. No

71. How far from a railroad crossing should you stop?

A. Between 10 and 40 feet
B. Between 15 and 50 feet
C. Between 20 and 60 feet

72. When must you stop before crossing a drawbridge?

A. Stop at least 30 feet before the draw of the bridge.
B. Stop at least 40 feet before the draw of the bridge.
C. Stop at least 50 feet before the draw of the bridge.

73. What are "prohibited practices" while operating a bus?

A. Avoid fueling with riders on board.
B. Don't talk to riders while driving.
C. Don't tow or push a disabled bus with riders aboard.
D. All of the above.

74. Urban mass transit coaches may have a brake and accelerator interlock system. The rear door of a transit bus has to be open to put on the parking brake.

A. True
B. False

75. If you work as an interstate carrier, you must complete a written inspection report for each bus driver.

A. True
B. False

76. Are recapped or regrooved tires allowed on buses?

A. Yes, on all wheels.
B. Yes, on all wheels except the front wheels.
C. No, recapped or regrooved tires are not allowed on buses.

77. Before driving who is responsible for inspecting emergency equipment?

A. The shop
B. The dispatcher
C. The driver

78. What are the shape of hazardous material labels?

A. Round
B. Rectangular
C. Diamond-shaped

79. Which poor weather condition can cause the most dangerous driving?

A. Ice
B. Rain
C. Snow

80. If you have to swerve quickly to avoid an accident you want to know:

A. If all of your passengers are wearing seat belts.
B. Where other vehicles are around your bus.
C. Where your passengers are seated.