Policy 100 - 200 2017 Exam

  1. 110.1     PURPOSE AND SCOPE
    The ____ ____ of this department is designed to create an efficient means to accomplish our mission and goals and to provide for the best possible service to the public.



    B) organizational structure
  2. 110.2.1 CHIEF OF POLICE

    The Chief of Police is the director of the Department.  All of the following is true, except:



    A) is responsible for keeping the city council informed of Department activities and accomplishments.  (CITY MANAGER, not council)
  3. 110.2.3 COMMANDER

    Commanders exercise ____ over the employees assigned to them and assume staff responsibility over matters relating to the operations within their assigned command.



    B) line command
  4. 110.2.4  LIEUTENANT
    Lieutenants exercise line command and provide ____ to those employees assigned to them, as well as being responsible for keeping the respective commander informed about the activities and accomplishments of those employees.



    A) advice and guidance
  5. 110.2.5 SERGEANT
    Sergeants exercise line command over the employees of their assigned unit and function as the first line supervisory level within the Department. Along with being responsible for ensuring service delivery, sergeants are responsible for all of the following except: 



    A) buy steak dinners when burglers are caught
  6. 110.2.5 SERGEANT
    As first line supervisors, policy indicates that Sergeants are responsible for ensuring 4 actions are completed on behalf of those they supervise.  All of the following, EXCEPT:




    B) mentor
  7. 110.2.6 (a) 2.
    According to policy, who is responsible for 
    assisting crime victims in filing complaints for criminal acts committed against them.



    D) corporals and detectives
  8. 110.2.6 (a) 3.
    According to policy, who is responsible for serving as training instructors and in other non-enforcement roles for the Department?



    A) corporals and detectives
  9. 110.2.6 (b)
    Corporals/detectives will exercise line command over the employees of their assigned Unit in the absence of the sergeant due to all of the following EXCEPT?



    C) authorized break
  10. 110.2.6 (d)

    Can corporals be hired to work overtime in a supervisory role?
    They can not.
  11. 110.2.7
    In policy, who is specifically stated to be responsible for keeping their respective supervisors informed about their activities and accomplishments?



    B) police officers
  12. 110.3 DEPARTMENT ORGANIZATION AND COMMAND PROTOCOL

    APD's ability to make ____ adjustments to meet changing needs is essential in order  to maximize the use of assigned resources.



    C) organizational
  13. 110.3.2 UNITY OF COMMAND

    The principles of unity of command ensure ____ within the Department. Generally, each employee shall be accountable to one supervisor at any time for a given assignment or responsibility. Except where specifically delegated authority may exist by policy or special assignment (e.g., K-9, SWAT), any supervisor may temporarily direct any subordinate if an operational necessity exists.



    D) efficient supervision and control
  14. 110.3.3 SPAN OF CONTROL

    The number of employees under the immediate management of a single supervisor should not normally exceed ____.



    C) 15
  15. 110.3.3

    When staffing requirements are anticipated to exceed fifteen per supervisor, the ____ should be based upon the complexity/variety of the tasks of subordinates and the potential for a supervisor to adequately oversee the number of employees involved.



    B)  span of control
  16. 110.3.4 DELEGATED AUTHORITY

    At all levels of the Department, authority will be delegated to employees to make decisions necessary for the effective execution of their responsibilities. Who is accountable for the use of, or the failure to use, delegated authority.



    D) employees
  17. 110.4 EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES

    Employees shall maintain loyalty to the Department as is consistent with what two things?



    A)  the law and personal ethics
  18. 110.4.1 (a) CHAIN-OF-COMMAND

    If an employee bypasses the chain-of-command, the employee will notify his affected supervisor when?



    D) as soon as practical
  19. 110.4.1 CHAIN-OF-COMMAND

    (b) When a written directive requires an employee notify an immediate supervisor and the immediate supervisor is not readily available, the employee may notify 1 of 3 people in the immediate supervisor's absence.  All of the following, EXCEPT?



    B) the watch commander
  20. 110.4.2 AUTHORITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY

    ____ is essential to the good working order of any organization.



    C) Delegation of authority
  21. 110.4.2 AUTHORITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY

    (d) Employees shall be held accountable for their use, or failure to use, their ____.



    C) delegated authority
  22. 110.4.3 OBEDIENCE TO ORDERS

    The Department is an organization with a clearly defined ____.



    A)  hierarchy of authority
  23. 110.4.3 OBEDIENCE TO ORDERS

    (a) Orders from a supervisor to a subordinate will be all of the following, EXCEPT:
    a) in clear and understandable language
    b) civil in tone
    c) issued pursuant to departmental business
    d) followed without delay
    d) followed without delay
  24. 110.4.3 OBEDIENCE TO ORDERS

    (e) Employees who are given an order which they believe violates a provision of a Meet and Confer Agreement, constitutes a safety hazard, or is in some other way improper, will respectfully inform the supervisor issuing the order of such belief.

    1. If the supervisor does not alter or retract the order, the order will stand and will be obeyed.

    What may the employ do to seek redress?



    A) initiate a formal grievance
  25. 110.4.3 OBEDIENCE TO ORDERS

    (f) 4. An employee receiving an unlawful order will report that fact in writing to the Chief in what way through the next-level supervisor in the chain-of-command as soon as practicable.
    • by memorandum
    • (The memorandum will contain the facts of the incident and the actions taken.)
  26. 116.2 PUBLIC REQUESTS FOR RECORDS

    Public requests for records of this department shall be processed in accordance with what?


    C)  All answers are correct
  27. 116.2 PUBLIC REQUESTS FOR RECORDS

    How shall the department make known the basic rights of a person who requests public information, the responsibilities of the Department and the procedures, including fees, for inspecting or obtaining copies of records?



    C) prominently display a sign  (the Department SHALL do this)
  28. 116.2.1 PROCESSING OF REQUESTS

    Any member of the public, including the media, may request access to unrestricted records of this department by submitting a separate written request for each individual and specifically identified record sought to an authorized employee during what hours?



    B) normal business hours
  29. 116.2.2 RECEIPT OF PUBLIC INFORMATION (OPEN RECORDS) REQUESTS

    What is the email address that open records requests for APD records may be sent to when sent electronically? 



    B)  management.records@austintexas  (all other city depts: public.information@austintexas)
  30. 116.2.2 RECEIPT OF PUBLIC INFORMATION (OPEN RECORDS) REQUESTS

    In addition to the email address that must be used to send emailed requests for department records, a member of the public may submit a written request by U.S. Postal Service to any department employee at any department mailing address, and a request may be sent to any department fax number. The Public Information Act requires governmental bodies to respond promptly to written requests for information. How is "Promptly" defined here?



    A) as soon as possible under the circumstances and without unreasonable delay
  31. 116.2.2 (a) RECEIPT OF PUBLIC INFORMATION (OPEN RECORDS) REQUESTS

    Upon receipt of a written request for information received by mail, fax, or hand delivery, employees should contact what supervisor in which office?



    B)  open records supervisor in central records
  32. 116.2.2 (a) RECEIPT OF PUBLIC INFORMATION (OPEN RECORDS) REQUESTS

    ...Public and/or media requesting information not contained in the public portion of police reports may file an open records request with who?

    Media requests and requests from students will be forwarded to which office?
    the Department;

    the Department’s Public Information Office.
  33. 116.2.2 RECEIPT OF PUBLIC INFORMATION (OPEN RECORDS) REQUESTS

    (b) Employees shall not release information that has not gone through the open records precess and is cleared through the Department Open Records Supervisor or Department Legal Advisor. What is the one exception?



    B) booking photos
  34. 116.2.2 RECEIPT OF PUBLIC INFORMATION (OPEN RECORDS) REQUESTS

    (c) After reviewing the request and the information being requested, the Open Records Supervisor will decide whether the information should be released or will be denied due to exemptions outlined by ____? The Open Records Supervisor, or ____, will notify the requestor of the denial?



    A) the Attorney General / their designee
  35. 116.2.2 RECEIPT OF PUBLIC INFORMATION (OPEN RECORDS) REQUESTS

    (d) If an Attorney General’s ruling is requested within ____ days of response to an open records request, the Open Records Supervisor, or their designee, will notify the Department Legal Advisor in order to request a ruling.



    A) 61
  36. 116.3.1(b) GENERAL CASE AND CRIME REPORTS
    Confidential Information shall not be made public Tex. Gov't Code § 552.108. What is considered Confidential Information?




    E) all the above
  37. 116.3.1 GENERAL CASE AND CRIME REPORTS

    Certain information pertaining to Victim Information, Confidential Information, or Specific Crimes will not be released unless authorized by whom?



    D) the department legal advisor
  38. 116.3.1 GENERAL CASE AND CRIME REPORTS

    (c) Specific Crimes - Certain types of reports shall not be made public. All of the following are included, EXCEPT: 



    B) stalking (not listed in policy)
  39. 116.3.4 PERSONNEL RECORDS

    Requests for peace officer personnel records are deemed confidential and shall not be made public or otherwise released to unauthorized individuals or entities without what?



    C) a valid court order
  40. 116.3.4 PERSONNEL RECORDS

    Requests for (individual officer) personnel records shall be forwarded to:



    B)  the City’s human rResources department (civil service)
  41. 116.3.4 PERSONNEL RECORDS

    If the requestor wishes to receive a copy of the Department’s personnel records (g file), the request will be forwarded to where/whom?



    A)  the department legal advisor
  42. 116.3.5 INTERNAL AFFAIRS FILES

    Subpoenas for documents or items from files maintained by Internal Affairs (IA) will be directed to the IA commander or lieutenant. No documents or items will be released pursuant to a subpoena without authorization from whom?



    A) the department legal advisor
  43. 116.3.5 INTERNAL AFFAIRS FILES

    (a) 1. When IA is notified that an open records request has been received for a particular file, IA personnel will review the file.  Who will be responsible for ensuring redactions are completed?
    a) the department legal advisor
    b) the city attorney
    c) internal affairs lieutenant
    d) internal affairs commander
    a) the department legal advisor
  44. 116.3.7 BODY WORN CAMERA VIDEO

    Chapter 1701 of the Occupations Code outlines the requirements for releasing information recorded by body worn cameras including recordings as evidence. An officer or other employee commits an offense if the officer or employee releases a recording created with a body worn camera without the permission of the department. What is the offense?



    C) class A Misdemeanor
  45. 116.3.7 BODY WORN CAMERA VIDEO

    (b) Release of information recorded by body worn camera
    1. When submitting a request for BWC video, a member of the public is required to provide all of the following info, EXCEPT:



    A) The name and employee number of the officer
  46. 116.8 RECORDS RETENTION

    No employee shall dispose of any record maintained by this department without proper authorization from whom?



    B) records administrator or records analyst
  47. 118.3 DEFINITIONS (Criminal Histories)

    Criminal Justice Agency - Is a ____ or ____ agency that is engaged in the administration of criminal justice under a statute or executive order and that allocates a substantial portion of its annual budget to the administration of criminal justice, or a non-governmental railroad or campus police department that has obtained an originating agency identifier from the FBI



    B) federal or state
  48. 118.3 DEFINITIONS (Criminal Histories)

    ____ is an activity that is included in the administration of criminal justice, or screening of applicants for employment with a criminal justice agency.



    B) criminal justice purpose
  49. 118.3 DEFINITIONS (Criminal Histories)

    Authorized Recipient - Any ____ or ____ authorized by court order, statute or case law to receive CHRI.



    C) person or agency
  50. 118.4 AUTHORIZED RECIPIENTS OF CHRI

    CHRI may be obtained by authorized recipients for criminal justice purposes only. The information may be disseminated via radio devices when needed and if necessary to whom, for a criminal justice purpose?



    C) another criminal justice agency
  51. 118.3 DEFINITIONS

    CHRI is an acronym for what?
    Criminal History Record Information
  52. 118.4.1 TERMINAL AGENCY COORDINATOR (TAC)

    Who is the designated Terminal Agency Coordinator (TAC) for the Austin Police Department. The TAC is responsible for ensuring compliance with this procedure.



    D) police technology lieutenant
  53. 118.4.4 POLICE CADETS

    When are police cadets authorized access to criminal history information?
    when under the direct supervision of a Field Training Officer.
  54. 118.6 REVIEW OF CRIMINAL OFFENDER RECORD

    Who should an individual seeking to review his arrest or conviction record be directed to contact?



    C) Texas DPS
  55. 118.9 PENALTIES FOR MISUSE OF RECORDS

    It is what offense to obtain CHRI in an unauthorized manner, to use the information for an unauthorized purpose, to disclose the information to a person who is not entitled to the information or to provide a person with a copy of the person's criminal history record information or to violate any rule pertaining to CHRI adopted by DPS under state law? In addition, it is a ____ ____ felony if the CHRI is obtained, used or disclosed for remuneration or the promise of remuneration.



    A) class B / 2nd degree
  56. 118.10.1   EXPUNCTION REQUESTS

    (a) Who is designated as the recipient of requests for expunction of departmental records?
    a) the APD legal advisor
    b) city attorney 
    c) municipal court judge
    d) Texas DPS
    a) the APD legal advisor
  57. 118.10.1   EXPUNCTION REQUESTS
    Any employee receiving a request for expunction of Department records shall immediately deliver the request to the legal advisor.  How should the delivery be made according to policy?



    C) hand deliver
  58. 200.1.2 DEFINITIONS

    Bodily Injury is defined as...



    D)  Physical pain, illness or any impairment of physical condition
  59. 200.1.2 DEFINITIONS

    Deadly Force is defined as...


    C)  Force that is intended or known by the officer to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is known to be capable of causing death or serious bodily injury
  60. 200.1.2 DEFINITIONS

    Force is defined as...



    C) Any physical contact with a subject by an officer using the body or any object, device, or weapon, not including unresisted escorting or handcuffing a subject
  61. 200.1.2 DEFINITIONS

    Non-Deadly Force is defined as...



    D)  Any application of force other than deadly force.
  62. 200.1.2 DEFINITIONS

    Objectively Reasonable is defined as an objective standard... and all of the following, except:



    C) and does not cause in its manner or use, serious bodily injury or death
  63. 200.1.2 DEFINITIONS


    Serious Bodily Injury is defined as...
    Bodily injury that creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ
  64. 200.1.3 DUTY TO INTERCEDE

    Any officer present and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond that which is ____ under the circumstances shall, when in a position to do so, intercede  to prevent the use of such excessive force. Such officers should also promptly report these observations to a supervisor.



    D)  objectively reasonable
  65. 200.2   RESPONSE TO RESISTANCE POLICY

    While the ____ and ____ of force may vary, it is the policy of this department that officers use only that amount of objectively reasonable force which appears necessary under the circumstances to successfully accomplish the legitimate law enforcement purpose in accordance with this policy.



    C) type and extent
  66. 200.2   RESPONSE TO RESISTANCE POLICY

    (d) Any complaint by a subject that an officer caused pain or injury shall be treated as a response to resistance force incident, except what types of complaints?
    complaints of minor discomfort from unresisted handcuffing.
  67. 200.2.1 DETERMINING THE OBJECTIVE REASONABLENESS OF FORCE

    Any interpretation of objective reasonableness about the amount of force that reasonably appears to be necessary in a particular situation must allow for the fact that police officers are often forced to make split-second decisions in circumstances that are ____, ____, and ____ and the amount of time available to evaluate and respond to changing circumstances may influence their decisions.



    D)  tense, uncertain and rapidly evolving
  68. 200.2.1 DETERMINING THE OBJECTIVE REASONABLENESS OF 

    ...The question is whether the officer's actions are "____ ____" in light of the facts and circumstances confronting him.
    objectively reasonable
  69. 200.2.2 USE OF FORCE TO AFFECT A DETENTION, AN ARREST OR TO CONDUCT A SEARCH

    An officer is justified in using reasonable force when the officer reasonably believes the use of such force is immediately necessary (all of the following apply, EXCEPT:) 



    B) To take physical control of any person at a scene who is a witness to a felony.
  70. 200.2.3 NOTICE OF AUTHORITY AND IDENTITY

    If it is not already reasonably known by the subject to be searched or arrested, or it is not ____ to do so, officers should make clear their intent to arrest or search and identify themselves as a peace officer before using force (Tex. Penal Code § 9.51(a)(2)).



    B) reasonably impracticable
  71. 200.3 DEADLY FORCE APPLICATIONS

    An officer has no duty to retreat and is only justified in using deadly force against another when and to the extent the officer reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary to (a) Protect himself or others from what he reasonably believes would be an imminent threat of ____?



    A) death or serious bodily injury
  72. 200.4 REPORTING THE RESPONSE TO RESISTANCE

    Any response to resistance by a member of this department shall be documented in all of the following ways in an appropriate report as prescribed by Policy 211 (Response to Resistance Inquiry, Reporting, and Review) EXCEPT:



    D) neatly
  73. 200.4.1 NOTIFICATION TO SUPERVISORS

    Supervisor notification shall be made in what timeframe  following any force incident or allegation of use of force.



    A) as soon as practicable
  74. 200.4.2 MEDICAL ATTENTION

    Prior to booking or release, medical assistance shall be obtained for any subject who: (all of the following, EXCEPT:)



    C) has requested medical attention for any reason
  75. 200.4.2 MEDICAL ATTENTION

    Based upon the officer's ____ of the nature and extent of the subject's injuries, medical assistance may consist of examination by fire personnel, paramedics, hospital staff or medical staff at the jail.



    B) initial assessment
  76. 200.4.3 (a) ASSISTING MEDICAL PROFESSIONALS

    An officer who restrains a patient to assist medical personnel, with an amount of force which does not rise above what level, is not required to report a Response to Resistance or notify their supervisor as outlined in APD Policies 211 and 200.4.1.



    D) holding the patient down
  77. 202.1.1 POLICY

    3. In the event force is used against an animal by an officer and the animal is injured or there is a reasonable belief the animal was injured, regardless of whether visible injury exists, officers shall make a reasonable attempt to ensure the animal receives care for its injuries. This may include but is not limited to all of the following, EXCEPT:




    D) Paying for all medical expenses, even if the dog bit the officer first, because it's the right thing to do
  78. 202.1.3 (c) MOVING VEHICLES

    When encountering a vehicle being operated in a threatening manner, officers may leave  a position of cover in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT:



    C) to protect the life of the officer or another
  79. 202.3.1 (b) REPORTING A FIREARM DISCHARGE FOR THE HUMANE DESTRUCTION OF A SERIOUSLY INJURED ANIMAL

    APD Policy indicates all of the following, EXCEPT:



    C) The incident report should indicate the means in which the animal was destroyed.
  80. 202.3.1 REPORTING A FIREARM DISCHARGE FOR THE HUMANE DESTRUCTION OF A SERIOUSLY INJURED ANIMAL

    (c) Supervisors who approves the humane destruction of an animal shall do all of the following EXCEPT:




    E)  Review the primary reporting employees' DMAV, if available.
  81. 204.2 POLICY (LEG RESTRAINT DEVICE)
    Who will be assigned leg irons as part of their issued equipment on their personal inventory list?  



    D) patrol sergeants and corporals
  82. 206.3 BATON AND IMPACT WEAPON GUIDELINES

    The baton and/or an impact weapon is authorized for use when, based upon the circumstances perceived by the officer, such force reasonably appears ____ to result in the safe control of a subject.



    A) justified and necessary
  83. 206.3 BATON AND IMPACT WEAPON GUIDELINES

    The baton and/or an impact weapon is authorized for use when, based upon the circumstances perceived by the officer, such force reasonably appears justified and necessary to result in the ____ of a subject.



    D) safe control
  84. 206.3 BATON AND IMPACT WEAPON GUIDELINES

    The need to immediately incapacitate the subject must be weighed against the risk of causing serious injury. The head, neck, spine and groin should not be intentionally targeted except when the officer has an objectively reasonable belief the subject:



    A) may cause serious bodily injury or death to the officer or others.
  85. 206.3 BATON AND IMPACT WEAPON GUIDELINES

    All of the following areas should not be intentionally targeted except when the officer has an objectively reasonable belief the subject may cause serious bodily injury or death to the officer or others, EXCEPT:




    E) spleen
  86. 206.4 CHEMICAL AGENT GUIDELINES

    Chemical agents are devices used to minimize the potential for injury to employees, offenders, or other subjects. They should be used only in situations where such force:



    D) reasonably appears necessary.
  87. 206.4 (a) CHEMICAL AGENT GUIDELINES

    Authorized employees may use chemical agents when the application of the chemical agent is objectively reasonable to subdue or control a subject in all of the following, EXCEPT:




    D) To control a handcuffed subject who is violently resisting search or transport and all other means to bring the subject under control have been attempted.
  88. 206.4.3 TREATMENT FOR CHEMICAL AGENT EXPOSURE

    Subjects who have been affected by the use of chemical agents should be afforded means of cleansing the affected areas as soon as practicable. Those subjects who complain of further severe effects shall be afforded a medical examination by whom?



    C) competent medical personnel
  89. 206.4.4 TRANSPORTING OF PRISONERS SUBJECTED TO CHEMICAL AGENT EXPOSURE

    When transporting prisoners who have been subjected to chemical agents, officers shall ensure that the prisoner remains in what position?
    upright (not prone)
  90. 206.5.1 DEPLOYMENT (KINETIC ENERGY PROJECTILES)

    (b) The safety of hostages, innocent subjects and officers takes priority over the safety of subjects engaged in:



    D) perceived criminal or suicidal behavior
  91. 206.5.2 (a) EXAMPLES OF CIRCUMSTANCES APPROPRIATE FOR DEPLOYMENT (LL SHOT GUN) Examples include, but are not limited to, the following types of situations, EXCEPT:




    C) The subject is refusing to comply with lawful orders and is engaged in any disturbance against the public peace.
  92. 206.5.3 (e) ADDITIONAL DEPLOYMENT CONSIDERATIONS
    Before discharging projectiles, the officer should consider the following factors:




    C) distance and angle to the target
  93. 206.5.3 (a) ADDITIONAL DEPLOYMENT CONSIDERATIONS

    Before discharging projectiles, the officer should consider the following factors:
    The subject's capability to pose ____.



    C) an imminent threat to the safety of officers or others.
  94. 206.5.3 (c) ADDITIONAL DEPLOYMENT CONSIDERATIONS

    Before discharging projectiles, the officer should consider the following factors:
    The credibility of the subject's threat as evaluated by the officers present, and the subject's ____ to carry out the threat.



    B)  physical capacity/capability
  95. 206.5.3 ADDITIONAL DEPLOYMENT CONSIDERATIONS

    Before discharging projectiles, the officer should consider the availability of other force options and those options ___?



    D)  the availability of other force options and those options possible effectiveness.
  96. 206.5.4 SHOT PLACEMENT AND DEPLOYMENT DISTANCES

    Officers should generally follow their training instructions regarding minimum deployment distances and target areas. The need to immediately incapacitate the subject must be weighed against ____ ?



    B)  the risk of causing serious injury or death.
  97. 206.5.4 SHOT PLACEMENT AND DEPLOYMENT DISTANCES (KINETIC ENERGY PROJECTILES)

    The head and neck should not be intentionally targeted, however any target area or distance may be considered when it reasonably appears necessary to:



    C) accomplish immediate incapacitation in order to prevent serious injury or death to officers or others.
  98. 206.6   PAIN COMPLIANCE TECHNIQUES

    Pain compliance techniques may be effective in controlling:



    D)  a passive or actively resisting individual.
  99. 206.6   PAIN COMPLIANCE TECHNIQUES

    Officers may only apply those pain compliance techniques for which the officer has an objectively reasonable belief that the use of such a technique appears necessary to:



    A)  further a legitimate law enforcement purpose.
  100. 206.6.1 (a) USE OF FORCE TO SEIZE EVIDENCE

    What techniques are the maximum amount of force authorized to seize evidence (e.g., narcotics) when there is probable cause to believe it is being held or hidden in the mouth of a subject.



    B) pressure point techniques
  101. 206.6.1(b)USE OF FORCE TO SEIZE EVIDENCE
    What is the maximum amount of force authorized to seize blood from a subject pursuant to a mandatory blood draw.



    B) soft empty hands techniques
  102. 208.1 PURPOSE AND SCOPE

    The TASER® is intended to control what type of individual while minimizing the risk of serious injury. It is anticipated that the appropriate use of such a device will result in fewer serious injuries to officers and suspects.



    C)  a violent or potentially violent individual
  103. 208.2 (c) POLICY (TASER)

    Whenever practicable, officers should carry a total of how many TASER Device cartridges on their person while carrying a TASER Device?
    two or more
  104. 208.3 (a) VERBAL WARNINGS (TASER)

    The (Taser) warning serves what purpose(s)?
    • 1. Provide the individual with a reasonable opportunity to voluntarily comply.
    • 2. Provide other officers and individuals with warning that a TASER Device may be deployed.
  105. 208.4 USE OF THE TASER DEVICE

    The TASER Device should only be used when its operator?



    A) can safely approach the subject within the operational range of the TASER Device
  106. 208.4.3 (a) SPECIAL DEPLOYMENT CONSIDERATIONS

    The use of the TASER Device should generally be avoided in all of the following situations, EXCEPT?




    D)  Individuals who are thought to be under the influence of a drug.
  107. 208.4.5 MULTIPLE APPLICATIONS OF THE TASER DEVICE
    In the event the first TASER application is ineffective, an officer should consider all of the following before additional application of the TASER Device, EXCEPT:



    A) Whether the subject is under the influence of any drug which could render the Taser ineffective
  108. 208.5 MEDICAL TREATMENT

    Following successful TASER deployment, an individual who falls under any of the following categories should, as soon as practicable, be examined by paramedics or other qualified medical personnel, EXCEPT:





    E) Subject is a child under the age of 14
  109. 208.6 (a) TRAINING

    Employees who have not carried a TASER Device as a part of their assignment for ____ shall be recertified by a department approved TASER Device instructor prior to again carrying or using the device.



    D) 6 months or more
  110. 208.7.1   PROPER MAINTENANCE

    The supervisor or designee will perform quarterly functionality checks (of the TASER device). When shall this check shall occur?



    B)  quarterly when notified by Risk Management to conduct quarterly CAD audits.
  111. 208.8   DEPLOYMENT RECORD RETENTION

    All TASER Device deployment information shall be maintained by the Department for a minimum of how many years?



    B) 3 years  (minimum)
  112. 211.1.1 DEFINITIONS

    ____ is the preliminary review of the events surrounding a response to resistance incident, including the initial response to the scene and follow-up investigations.



    B)  Inquiry
  113. 211.1.1 DEFINITIONS

    The process of documenting the information gathered in the inquiry of a response to resistance incident through written, oral and visual means and compiling that information into the appropriate packet for review.



    A)  Reporting
  114. 211.1.1 DEFINITIONS

    The process of evaluating all the given information obtained in the force incident inquiry and reporting stages to determine if the response to resistance was objectively reasonable and within policy guidelines.



    D) Review
  115. 211.1.2 IDENTIFYING RESPONSE TO RESISTANCE DOCUMENTATION

    Who completes a Level 1 inquiry packet?



    C) SIU
  116. 211.1.2 IDENTIFYING RESPONSE TO RESISTANCE DOCUMENTATION

    Who completes the Level 2 inquiry packet?



    B)  the supervisor conducting the inquiry
  117. 211.1.2 IDENTIFYING RESPONSE TO RESISTANCE DOCUMENTATION
    How is a Level 3 incident documented?  



    A) Documentation is handled through Versadex case notes and do not require an inquiry packet
  118. 211.2.1 (i) LEVEL 1 FORCE INCIDENTS AND IN-CUSTODY DEATHS

    When is the utilization of the Precision Immobilization Technique a Level 1 force incident?



    B) when serious bodily injury or death occurs
  119. 211.2.1 (g) LEVEL 1 FORCE INCIDENTS AND IN-CUSTODY DEATHS

    When is the use of any impact weapon, including kinetic energy projectiles, and improvised weapons, a Level 1 force incident?



    D)  when the weapon strikes the head of a subject
  120. 211.3.1 CRIMINAL MISCONDUCT

    Regardless of the original force level of the incident, if there is any credible evidence that criminal misconduct may have occurred by the officer then the incident shall be treated in what manner?



    A) as a level 1 force incident
  121. 211.3.2 POLICY VIOLATION

    (a) When reviewing a level 2 or 3 force incident, if there is any credible evidence a policy violation may have occurred by the officer then the supervisor shall handle the response to resistance inquiry as which level of force incident?
    Level 2
  122. 211.6.2 SPECIAL INVESTIGATIONS UNIT (SIU) RESPONSIBILITIES IN LEVEL 1 AND IN- CUSTODY DEATH INCIDENTS

    The ranking SIU supervisor on-scene of a Level 1 incident shall assume command of the scene. SIU shall conduct a response to resistance inquiry and forward the inquiry packet to IA or the involved employee's chain of command within what time period, unless extended by an assistant chief.



    C) 45 calendar days
  123. 211.8 (a) LEVEL 3 INCIDENT INQUIRY, REPORTING, AND REVIEW REQUIREMENTS

    Supervisors shall respond to the scene of any Level 3 incident under what four circumstances?




    C) When requested by the arrested suspect
  124. 211.8 (b) LEVEL 3 INCIDENT INQUIRY, REPORTING, AND REVIEW REQUIREMENTS

    Supervisors shall review the primary reporting employees' response to resistance incident report.  Upon review, supervisors shall change the 8400 title code in the Versadex incident report and detail page to which title code for Level 3 force incidents?



    D) 8403
  125. 211.8 LEVEL 3 INCIDENT INQUIRY, REPORTING, AND REVIEW REQUIREMENTS
    Supervisors shall review the primary reporting employees' response to resistance incident report.  Supervisors shall add a Versadex case note to the report to document all of the following information, EXCEPT:



    B) any injuries that occurred as a result
  126. 211.8 (d) LEVEL 3 INCIDENT INQUIRY, REPORTING, AND REVIEW REQUIREMENTS

    Supervisors shall conduct a thorough review of all documents including the response to resistance incident report and any supplements to ensure completeness, accuracy, and quality. Each level of the chain-of-command, up to the lieutenant, shall review the incident and complete a case note to document their review, within how many days of receiving the incident for review.



    B) 8 work days
  127. 211.8 (e) LEVEL 3 INCIDENT INQUIRY, REPORTING, AND REVIEW REQUIREMENTS

    All of the following level 3 incidents will be forwarded to the Force Review Board for their review, EXCEPT:



    C) weaponless strikes on a subject that result in a complaint of pain
  128. 211.8 (c) LEVEL 3 INCIDENT INQUIRY, REPORTING, AND REVIEW REQUIREMENTS

    When is it required that the (Taser) data report shall be downloaded and  a copy scanned into the image section of the Versadex incident report or submitted into evidence with the spent cartridge for retention.



    A)  If a TASER Device is used in the force incident
  129. 211.9 INCIDENTS DURING SECONDARY LAW ENFORCEMENT RELATED EMPLOYMENT (LERE)

    Who shall conduct the inquiry of a force incident that occurs while working secondary law enforcement related employment (LERE)?
    How can a Level 3 be handled differently?
    Supervisors in the area where the force incident occurred

    For Level 3 force incidents, if there are two or more officers and one of the officers is a supervisor not involved in the force incident, the LERE supervisor may conduct the review.
  130. 211.11 SPECIAL CIRCUMSTANCES

    Who may approve a Level 3 incident to be documented in an after-action report for tactical situations arising from a search warrant, SWAT call-out, or other incident requiring an approved operations plan?
    An electronic copy of the after-action report shall be forwarded to what unit?



    A) Commanders / Inspections Unit
  131. Vehicle Pursuits
    214.1 PURPOSE AND SCOPE

    Vehicular pursuits require officers to exhibit a high degree of ____.



    A)  common sense and sound judgment
  132. 214.1.1 PHILOSOPHY (PURSUITS)

    Officers must remember that the most important factors to the successful conclusion of a pursuit are:



    C)  self-discipline and sound professional judgment
  133. 214.1.1 PHILOSOPHY (PURSUITS)

    Officers' conduct during the course of a pursuit must be ____; that is, what a reasonable officer would do under the same circumstances.



    A) objectively reasonable
  134. 214.2 DEFINITIONS

    A tactic designed to cause a violator's vehicle to follow a particular path by blocking side streets and/or exit ramps with a patrol unit that has its emergency lights on.
    a) channel
    b) turning
    c) kipping
    d) routing
    a) channel
  135. 214.2 DEFINITIONS

    In policy, "terminate" means what?



    D) deactivate lights and siren, and cease pursuit
  136. 214.2 DEFINITIONS

    An active attempt by a law enforcement officer in a motor vehicle to apprehend the occupant(s) of another moving motor vehicle when the driver is not merely failing to stop at the direction of an officer using emergency lights and siren, but is actively attempting to evade apprehension or is continuing to commit further violation(s) of the law - Is called what in policy?



    A) vehicle pursuit
  137. 214.3 PURSUIT CONSIDERATIONS AND RESTRICTIONS

    The following policy is established to provide officers with guidelines for driving with ____ for the safety of all persons using the highway.



    D)  due regard and caution
  138. 214.3.1 (d) RESTRICTIONS ON VEHICLE PURSUITS

    Officers will not engage in a pursuit under any of the following circumstances:
    The road surface is wet or otherwise slippery, unless the violator has committed ____ , and then only when all considerations for safety have been taken into account and the pursuit is still deemed reasonable.



    D) a felony involving violence
  139. 214.3.3 WHEN TO TERMINATE A PURSUIT

    Officers and supervisors must ____ weigh the seriousness of the offense against the potential danger to motorists, themselves, and the public when electing to continue a pursuit.



    C)  objectively and continuously
  140. 214.3.3 WHEN TO TERMINATE A PURSUIT

    Officers shall discontinue the pursuit when they become aware their vehicle has developed a mechanical malfunction. Policy cites three examples.  All of the following, EXCEPT?



    C) Any sign of carbon monoxide seeping into the vehicle
  141. 214.3.4 (c) PURSUIT DRIVING CONSIDERATIONS AND RESTRICTIONS

    In the event that the pursued vehicle drives the wrong way on a roadway, the following tactics should be used, EXCEPT:



    A) Request the drone unit for assistance
  142. 214.4   PURSUIT GUIDELINES

    (b) Any officer who drops out of a pursuit may, with permission of a control supervisor, ____ the pursuit to the termination point in order to provide necessary information and assistance in the arrest of the subject(s).



    B) trail
  143. 214.4 PURSUIT GUIDELINES

    1. The term "trail" means what?
    • 1) follow the path of the pursuit at a safe speed while obeying all traffic laws
    • 2) without activating emergency equipment. 
    • 3) If pursuit is slow, remain remained removed enough to indicate you are not part of pursuit
  144. 214.4 PURSUIT GUIDELINES

    (c) Pursuit communications shall be handled as follows:

    If a pursuit is confined within the City limits, on which channel will radio communications be conducted unless instructed otherwise by a supervisor or communications dispatcher?



    C) the primary channel
  145. 214.4 PURSUIT GUIDELINES
    (c) Pursuit communications shall be handled as follows:
    2. If a pursuit contains multiple agencies and/or leaves APD jurisdiction, who will determine the appropriate radio channel to use?
    Communications
  146. 214.4.1 POLICE MOTORCYCLES AND UNMARKED UNITS
    Police motorcycles and unmarked units equipped with emergency lights and siren may initiate a pursuit under what conditions?
    They should terminate their involvement in the pursuit immediately upon arrival of a sufficient number of distinctively marked law enforcement vehicles equipped with emergency lights and siren, or any law enforcement aircraft.
  147. 214.4.2 POLICE UNITS WITHOUT EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

    Police units not equipped with emergency lights and siren are generally prohibited from initiating or joining in a pursuit. Officer(s) in such vehicles may become involved in ____ ____ involving serious crimes or life-threatening situations; however, those officers should terminate their involvement in the pursuit immediately upon arrival of a sufficient number of distinctively marked law enforcement vehicles equipped with emergency lights and siren, or any law enforcement aircraft.



    C)  emergency activities
  148. 214.4.4 (a) SUPERVISORS INITIATING A PURSUIT

    When a supervisor initiates a pursuit, who should acknowledge the pursuit over the radio and assume responsibility as the control supervisor?  Who is expressly prohibited from serving as a control supervisor for a field supervisor?
    • a supervisor working in the same area, or, if not available, communications will notify the nearest field supervisor
    • Corporals serving as acting sergeants may not assume responsibility as the control supervisor in this situation.
  149. 214.4.5 PURSUITS INITIATED BY OTHER LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES

    Units from  this department should not participate in, join, or assume control of a pursuit initiated by another agency unless approved by whom?



    C) a supervisor or watch lieutenant
  150. 214.4.6 APD PURSUITS ENTERING OTHER JURISDICTIONS

    (b) When a pursuit enters another agency's jurisdiction, who should determine whether to request the other agency to assume the pursuit by taking into consideration distance traveled, unfamiliarity with the area, and other pertinent factors. 



    B) the primary officer or supervisor
  151. 214.4.7 LOSS OF PURSUED VEHICLE AND SUBJECT BAILING

    (b) When subjects abandon the vehicle and flee on foot, who will be responsible for coordinating any further search?



    A)  the primary unit (with the permission of the control supervisor.)
  152. 214.5.3 CONTROL SUPERVISOR RESPONSIBILITIES

    (a) When an officer initiates a pursuit, who shall assume the responsibility as the control supervisor.
    • 1) The immediate supervisor (sergeant or corporal) of the officer initiating the pursuit,
    • 2) or if unavailable, the nearest available field supervisor (sergeant or corporal)
  153. 214.5.3

    In policy, who is responsible to ensure that aircraft assistance is requested, ensure that the proper radio channel is being used and ensure the notification and/or coordination of outside agencies if the pursuit ?



    B) control supervisor
  154. 214.5.4 COMMUNICATIONS RESPONSIBILITIES

    Upon notification that a pursuit has been initiated, Communications shall ensure that what two people are notified of the pursuit? Who is to be notified "as soon as practicable?"
    • Communications supervisor and appropriate lieutenant. 
    • watch commander
  155. 214.5.5 AIR SUPPORT RESPONSIBILITIES

    Once the Air Unit has established visual contact with the pursued vehicle and is capable, what should it begin to do?
    call the actions of the pursuit
  156. 214.6.2 TIRE DEFLATION DEVICE (TDD)

    TDD's shall not be used when what type of vehicle is involved in the pursuit?



    A) Motorcycle
  157. 214.6.2 TIRE DEFLATION DEVICE (TDD)

    Which of the following scenarios does NOT require supervisor approval prior to TDD deployment? (The other two do require approval)


    A) There is a reasonable belief that there is a child in the fleeing vehicle
  158. 214.6.2 (b) TIRE DEFLATION DEVICE (TDD)

    All pursuing units should allow what distance behind the target vehicle to allow sufficient time for the setup and retrieval of the TDD.



    D) at least 3 to 5 second gap
  159. 214.6.3 PRECISION IMMOBILIZATION TECHNIQUE

    Which vehicles should not normally be used to perform PIT?



    A)  StarChase equipped vehicles
  160. 214.6.3 PRECISION IMMOBILIZATION TECHNIQUE

    Under normal circumstances, a PIT maneuver at speeds above ____ should not be applied. However, if exigent circumstances exist, higher speeds may be authorized with supervisor approval.

    a) 30 mph
    b) 35 mph
    c) 40 mph
    d) 45 mph
    c) 40 mph
  161. 214.6.3 PRECISION IMMOBILIZATION TECHNIQUE

    PIT is a Level ____ force incident, unless the PIT results in serious bodily injury or death.


    C) Level 2 (Level 1 if death or SBI)
  162. 214.6.3 PRECISION IMMOBILIZATION TECHNIQUE

    A CR-3 is not required after the utilization of the PIT unless what occurs?
    a) damage to third- party property
    b) over $1000 damage to any property
    c) the PIT results in any injury
    d) the suspect driver is not arrested
    a) damage to third- party property
  163. 214.6.3 PRECISION IMMOBILIZATION TECHNIQUE

    In the event of third-party property damage as a result of a PIT, an incident title code "crash/city vehicle" (3651) will be included in the report.  All of the following documentation is to be included in the pursuit packet, EXCEPT:



    A) witness statements
  164. 214.6.4 LOW SPEED INTERVENTION

    Other than an approved usage of PIT, police vehicles shall not be used to physically force a pursued vehicle off the roadway or to a stop, or to otherwise change its direction of travel or alter its speed unless three conditions are met.  All of the following are conditions EXCEPT:



    D) It is reasonably believed that the suspect driver is attempting to flee the scene
  165. 214.6.5 STARCHASE PURSUIT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

    The StarChase tag will not normally be deployed in any of the following situations unless the suspect poses a substantial risk to the public, EXCEPT:




    A) The suspect is considered armed and dangerous
  166. 214.6.5 STARCHASE PURSUIT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
    In addition to the normal pursuit reporting procedures required by policy, Officers who use the StarChase system will report all tag deployments to which unit?



    C)  the Police Technology Unit by email
  167. 215.2 DECISION TO PURSUE

    If circumstances permit, what are generally the two safest tactics for apprehending fleeing subjects?



    D)  surveillance and containment
  168. 215.2 DECISION TO PURSUE

    In deciding whether to initiate or continue a foot pursuit, an officer should continuously consider reasonable alternatives to pursuit based upon the circumstances and resources available.  All of the following are considered reasonable alternatives in policy, EXCEPT:





    E) Surveillance of suspect's place of employment, school or residence
  169. 215.4.1 INITIATING OFFICER RESPONSIBILITIES 
    Unless relieved by another officer or a supervisor, who shall be responsible for coordinating the progress of the foot pursuit?
    the initiating officer
  170. 215.4.1 INITIATING OFFICER RESPONSIBILITIES
    (a) What, from the involved officers, is essential so that adequate resources can be coordinated and deployed to bring a foot pursuit to a safe conclusion.
    Early communication of available information
  171. 215.4.1 INITIATING OFFICER RESPONSIBILITIES

    What information should officers initiating a foot pursuit broadcast as soon as it becomes practicable and available?
    • 1. Unit identifier.
    • 2. Location and direction of travel.
    • 3. Reason for the foot pursuit.
    • 4. Number of subjects and description.
    • 5. If subject is known or believed to be armed.
  172. 215.4.1 INITIATING OFFICER RESPONSIBILITIES

    (d) When a foot pursuit terminates, what information shall the officer notify Communications of?
    • 1) his location
    • 2) the status of the pursuit termination (e.g., subject in custody, lost sight of subject)
  173. 215.4.3 CONTROL SUPERVISOR RESPONSIBILITY
    What is the corporal's role as control supervisor in relation to a foot pursuit? All of the following is truest the corporal's role, EXCEPT:


    C) Corporals may act as control supervisor for another corporal in their area who initiates a foot pursuit
  174. 215.5.2 (b) CONTROL SUPERVISOR RESPONSIBILITIES

    A control supervisor of a foot pursuit will provide a debriefing to the primary officer's shift within how many days?
    a) 3 days
    b) 5 days
    c) 10 days
    d) 15 days
    c) 10 days
Author
apple2016
ID
332897
Card Set
Policy 100 - 200 2017 Exam
Description
policy
Updated