YEAR 2 SEMESTER 2

  1. With regards the energy metabolism, what is the first law of thermodynamics?
    Energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be  only transformed from one form into another
  2. The chemical energy obtained from foods is used to perform what 3 things?
    • Chemical work (synthesis of new macromolecules).
    • Mechanical work (muscular contraction).
    • Electrical work (maintenance of ionic gradients across membranes).
  3. Explain the Second Law of Thermodynamics
    • When food is utilised in the body (for chemical,mechanical or electrical work),   this is always accompanied by the loss of some energy in the form of heat.
    • This heat energy that is no longer available for work is called ‘entropy’.
    • Up to 75% of the chemical energy in food is lost as heat!
  4. Which population groups have lower energy expenditure?
    • Elderly - decline in total energy expenditure
    • Women - have lower energy expenditure than women
    • Sedentary individuals / those not involved in physical work
  5. What are the theories of control around food intake?
    • Lipostatic theory - body fat is the key substance which regulates eating behaviour
    • Glucostatic theory - food consumption is triggered by decreased glucose availability to tissues.
    • Hepatostatic theory - metabolic activity of liver regulates eating behaviours
    • Aminostatic theory - fewer AA in blood stronger the hunger, serotonin signals satiety.
    • Thermostatic theory - heat generated by eating inhibits further food intake
  6. Name 2 chemicals which induce satiety or supress appetite
    • Serotonin
    • Leptin
    • Cholesystokinin
    • GLP-1
    • Bombesin
  7. Name 2 chemicals which stimulate food intake.
    • Neuropeptide Y - Potent stimulant of food intake
    • Ghrelin - related to growth hormone, may trigger a meal.
  8. Water soluble vitamins– are these generally best taken with or without food? Are there times of the day to avoid? Explain your answer in detail
    • Most B vitamins and vitamin C should be taken with food. 
    • B vitamins – contraindicated in the evening as they may exacerbate or trigger insomnia.– B6 is the exception.
  9. Amino acids – are these generally best taken with or without food? Explain your answer in detail
    • Ideally with Carbohydrate foods/drinks or on an empty stomach.
    • Protein therapeutics are generally excluded from transport from blood to brain, owing to the negligible permeability of these drugs to the brain capillary endothelial wall, which makes up the blood-brain barrier (BBB).
    • Protein shakes can be taken at any time of the day, depending on need.
  10. Fat soluble nutrients – are these generally best taken with or without food? Explain your answer in detail
    Vitamins A, D, E, K and CoQ10 are best taken with food that contains at least 3g of fat
  11. EFAs – are these generally best taken with or without food? Explain your answer in detail
    • Take with food.
    • Preferably not with high amounts of their opposing fat (if omega 3, not in a meal of high omega 6 for example).
  12. Minerals – are these generally best taken with or without food? Explain your answer in detail
    • Best taken with food as they require sufficient stomach acid for digestion
    • Both calcium and magnesium are best taken in the evening for restful sleep.
    • Zinc - on an empty stomach before bed. Some people will find this a bit difficult to stomach
  13. Can minerals be made by plants?
    No
  14. Deficiency of which 2 minerals is likely to increase the uptake of lead from the intestines?
    • Iron (1 mark)
    • Calcium (1 mark)
  15. Provide an example of an organic and an inorganic form of magnesium
    • inorganic = Magnesium sulphate
    • organic form = Magnesium citrate
  16. What are 2 possible advantages of having your vitamin C supplement in an alkaline mineral chemical form? What do we call these forms?
    • They are called buffered forms
    • They can reduce harshness on the stomach
    • The body can also utilise the mineral
  17. Pyridoxal 5 phosphate is the biologically active form of which vitamin?
    B6
  18. Founders of the Western Naturopathic movement founded their therapy on which type of diet?
    Vegetarian
  19. Explain why a vegetarian is likely to have a lower intake of environmental contaminants
    Contaminants tend to accumulate as we move up the food chain
  20. Describe 3 of the reasons vegetarians have a reduced risk of cardiovascular disease including the mechanism behind the reduction of risk.
    • Lower total cholesterol – when oxidised LDL is dangerous to blood vessels
    • Lower rates of hypertension – hypertension is implicated in stroke and heart attack
    • Lower rates of obesity – obesity increases CVD risk
    • Lower iron stores – excess iron can act as a pro-oxidant and damage vessels
    • Higher levels of antioxidants – reduces oxidative damage and protect vessels
    • Vegetarians have reduced levels of clotting factors eg. fibrinogen – blood clots cause heart attack and stroke.
  21. Describe how the Specific Carbohydrate Diet (SCD) and the Gut and Psychology Syndrome (GAPS) diet are intended to work to support good health?
    • By improving the condition of the gut/digestive tract
    • Supporting a symbiotic relationship with the gut flora
    • To maximise absorption 
    • To minimise unfavourable products of maldigestion / leaky gut
  22. Which vitamin is often given at birth? Discuss why this is done?
    • Vitamin K
    • To reduce the risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
    • Breast milk vitamin K content varies
    • Infants lack the intestinal bacteria to synthesise vit K
  23. Low iron status in children is quite common. Discuss 2 clinical issues encountered which can result in too little iron being consumed by the child?
    • Excessive dairy intake.
    • Prolonged breast feeding.
    • Vegetarian or vegan diet.
    • Fussy eating.
    • High phytate content of diet.
  24. Soy isoflavones in particular are believed to have the following actions which help combat the development of cancer?
    • have some estrogen activity
    • may alter the biological activity of endogenous oestrogens and testosterones
    • can bind to oestrogen receptors, mimicking effects of oestrogen in some tissues and antagonizing (blocking) the effects of oestrogen in others.
    • Anti-oestrogenic help reduce the risk of hormone  associated cancers (breast, uterine and prostate)
    • inhibit enzymes crucial for stimulating cell proliferation(anti-tumour property).
    • slow rising serum PSA concentrations associated with prostate tumour growth
  25. How are proanthocyanidins in cranberry thought to work in reducing the incidence of urinary tract infections?
    • By coating/wrapping around the bacteria to prevent bacterial adhesion to bladder and bacterial colonization 
    • E. coli responsible for most UTIs.
  26. When choosing foods to support health, are we likely to want to inhibit or increase phase I detoxification in relation to phase 2?
    Inhibit
  27. List 2 hormone-like substances that play a large role in our immune and inflammatory reactions associated with food allergies and intolerances.
    • Histamines
    • Cytokines
    • Prostaglandins
  28. What is a symptom or condition related to the renal tract which is linked to food intolerance?
    • Bed-wetting
    • Nephrotic syndrome
    • Chronic bladder infections.
  29. Which system is most known to be effected by lead toxicity? What is one of the known effects?
    • Central nervous system.
    • Lowering IQ
    • impaired memory
  30. What is the name of the bacteria which can grow unchecked and cause colitis when there is frequent antibiotic use?
    Clostridium difficile
  31. If you had a client with periodontal disease which orthomolecular nutrient would you be inclined to have them try and why?
    • CoQ10
    • Diseased gum tissues have significantly lower levels in comparison with healthy gum tissue
    • Studies have shown substantial improvement in periodontal disease for coQ10 combined with normal care routines
  32. What is clubbing of the nails indicative of and how is it identified?
    • Identified by Schamroth's window!
    • Pulmonary disease (lungs) 
    • CVD (RF)
    • Hyperthyroidism
  33. How is growth rate of the nail used as a health evaluation tool in naturopathic nutrition?
    • Slower growth can indicate thyroid or other metabolic disorders
    • Can indicate a 6-month picture of history and lifestyle
    • Time of events can be estimated from location of marks/ridges/white spots (Beau’s lines/Mee’s lines)
  34. Regarding nails, what is Koilonychia and what is it indicative of?
    • Spoon nails
    • Iron deficiency
    • Diabetes mellitus
    • Raynaud’s disease
  35. How are Beau's lines and Mee's lines different and what are they indicative of?
    • Beau's = furrowed horizontal line indicative of illness/trauma, severe infection, myocardial infarction, shock, low zinc, acute injury, chemo/immunosuppressive therapy
    • Mee's = horizontal white lines, acute illness, heavy metal toxicity
  36. What is Median Nail Dystrophy indicative of?
    • Malnutrition
    • repetitive trauma
    • Fire tree central line – arterial disease
  37. What is nail beading (beads drip down like wax) indicative of?
    • ENDOCRINE -
    • Diabetes mellitus
    • Thyroid
    • Addison’s
  38. What can pink or red nails indicate?
    • Polycythaemia (too many RBC)
    • carbon monoxide poisoning
    • malnutrition
  39. What can the moons or Lunula indicate?
    • Absent from thumbs – anaemia / malnutrition
    • Pyramindal lunula – trauma
    • Pale blue – diabetes
    • Red – cardiovascular or possible malignancy (RF)
  40. What is a geographical tongue? What nutrient does it indicate a need for?
    • Cracks all over
    • B2 deficiency, and B complex
  41. Is a normal blood pressure reading in a child likely to be higher or lower than in an adult?
    Lower
  42. Very pale or clay coloured stools are indicative of what issue?
    Insufficient production of bile
  43. How many calories in 1g of the following:
    Alcohol
    Carbohydrate
    Fat
    Protein
    • Alcohol- 7kcal
    • Carbohydrate – 4kcal
    • Fat – 9kcal
    • Protein –4kcal
  44. What are two of the three factors to be taken into account in regards to energy requirements during disease/trauma?
    • Energy expenditure/metabolism can be altered by disease or injury.
    • Physical activity in disease is impaired/reduced.
    • Burns patients and cancer patients have a higher requirement.
    • Underfeeding or overfeeding critically ill patients can result in metabolic complications.
  45. Bombesin is a hormone found in the brain and gastrointestinal tract, what is its effect on food intake?
    Inhibits food intake
  46. Through what mechanism do low energy density foods usually stimulate feelings of satiety?
    Increased fibre/bulk.
  47. Are most strains of Escherichia coli (E. coli) harmful or harmless?
    Harmless
  48. Describe why semi-volatility is a key feature of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)?
    This property confers a degree of mobility through the atmosphere that is sufficient to allow relatively great amounts to enter the atmosphere and be transported over long distances
  49. Describe the solubility of alpha lipoic acid?
    ALA is both water and fat soluble
  50. What are two of the three mechanisms of action by which chondroitin sulphate may protect cartilage?
    • Decreasing  inflammatory action.
    • Increasing the synthesis of hyaluronic acid
  51. Does Methyl Sulfonylmethane (MSM) appear to increase, decrease or have no effect on homocysteine levels?
    Decrease
  52. Chemically and physiologically Dimethyl Glycine (DMG) is very similar to which group of nutrients?
    Chemically and physiologically, it resembles the water-soluble vitamins
  53. DMG is used anecdotally in support of which condition?
    Autism
  54. Kaempferol is a strong antioxidant that works in synergy with which other phytonutrient?
    Works in synergy with quercetin
  55. Explain how antibiotic therapy could decrease the biological activity of soy properties in human nutrition?
    Colonic bacteria play an important role in the metabolism of soy isoflavones
  56. What are two of the three therapeutic actions of Shiitake mushrooms as evidenced by animal studies?
    • Anti-tumour/anti-cancer
    • Cholesterol-lowering
    • Virus-inhibiting effects
  57. What are two nutrients in pomegranate known to influence its health benefits?
    • Vitamin C
    • Potassium
  58. What properties in grapefruit is thought to be useful for asthma sufferers? (1 mark)
    Antioxidant properties
  59. When taken in the diet alongside grapefruit juice, which particular alcoholic drink appears to have an additive inhibitory effect on phase I enzymes?
    Red wine
  60. What is the property in apples, thought to be responsible for their potential benefit in preventing lung cancer?
    Quercetin
  61. How many apples are recommended per week with view to enhance lung function?
    5 or more
  62. What are two of the historic medicinal uses of cilantro/coriander?
    • Heavy metal detoxification,
    • Anti parasitic,
    • May lower blood glucose levels
  63. Discuss how the mother’s weight and birthing method influences the bacteria within her breastmilk. (3 marks)
    • Milk from overweight mothers had considerably less diversity of species than normal weight mothers
    • Elective caesarean mothers also showed less diversity in their breast milk microflora than in non-elective caesareans
    • Suggesting a possible hormonal or stress induced influence
  64. What is the iron-binding protein in breastmilk?
    Lactoferrin
  65. During adolescence the recommended intake of most micronutrients increases. On average what are two of the four nutrients most likely to be neglected Western diet?
    • Calcium
    • Vitamin E
    • Vitamin A
    • Zinc
  66. Early puberty (before age 12) is strongly linked to increased breast cancer risk. Discuss the dietary factors linked to early maturation and puberty.
    • Girls who consume more animal products and fewer fruit / vegetables between ages 1 and 8 were prone to early maturation and puberty
    • Diet rich in animal protein before age of 5
  67. When comparing statistics for risk of death from heart disease, is eating meat only once or less per week, the same as having a vegetarian diet?
    No(1 mark) In the largest study ever done comparing the heart disease rates in similar, health-conscious non-vegetarians, death rates for vegetarians were also lower than for near-vegetarians who ate meat less than once per week!
  68. Discuss the influence of iron on the risk of heart disease?
    • Too much iron can act as a pro-oxidant
    • Increasing oxidation of LDL cholesterol and damaging body tissues
  69. What is the difference between Specific Carbohydrate Diet (SCD) and the Gut and Psychology (GAPs) in regards to dairy intake?
    SCD allows lactose-free dairy products whereas GAPS does not
  70. Anthocyanins provide antioxidant protection and also give what colour to food and drink?
    Purple
  71. How should supplemental amino acids be taken?
    • Ideally with carbohydrate foods/drinks
    • Or on an empty stomach
  72. Which two of the following feeds into the Citric Acid Cycle?
    Lactates
    Citrates
    Malates
    Glycinates
    Ascorbates
    • Citrates 
    • Malates
  73. What are the two minerals most commonly bound to picolinic acid (picolinates)?
    • Zinc
    • Chromium
  74. List four dietary factors or other nutrients which magnesium absorption is inhibited by?
    • Fibre
    • Alcohol
    • calcium
    • Phosphorus.
  75. Explain where plants and animals get their energy from:
    • Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form into another.
    • Plants depend on energy captured from the sun
    • Animals get theirs from chemical energy stored in plants (and other  animals).
  76. List the 3 main sources of energy expenditure in the body:
    • RMR - energy required to maintain basic physiological functions to sustain life in the awake state largest use of energy (2/3 of total energy expenditure
    • DIT - Diet-induced thermogenesis (happens up to 5h after the meal ingestion)- is usually 10% of the energy content of the meal.
    • PHYSICAL ACTIVITY The increase in metabolic rate caused by using skeletal muscles for any type of physical activity - The most variable part of energy expenditure
  77. Other than RMR, DIT and Physical activity, what are the other sources of energy expenditure:
    • The energy cost of growth: significant only in
    • the first months of life.
    • Adaptive thermogenesis: heat production during exposure to reduced temperatures (mostly in infants).
    • Drug-induced thermogenesis: – Nicotine: Heavy smokers may have 10% higher energy expenditure than nonsmokers of similar body size. – Caffeine (coffee, tea, chocolate) capsaicin (hot chillies)
    • Psychological thermogenesis: anxiety, anticipation and stress stimulate adrenaline production leading to increased heat production.
  78. List 5 factors affecting energy expenditure:
    • Weight
    • Age
    • Gender
    • Activity
    • Disease
  79. What it de novo lipogenesis (DNL)?
    • Conversion of carbohydrates into body fat 
    • Although this is energetically not efficient 
    • Hence, carbs are the first micronutrient used for energy, followed by fat and protein.
    • But excess carbs will still lead to excess body weight as body stores of fat will not be used as fuel in the presence of excess carbs.
  80. Detail one type of carbohydrate which is easily turned into fat tissue by de novo lipogenesis:
    Fructose sugars in drinks are easily turned into fat tissue via DNL
  81. RMR is equivalent to how many kcal/min
    RMR = 1kcal / min
  82. How do β-glucans work?
    Act on several immune receptors, triggering a group of immune cells including macrophages, neutrophils, monocytes, natural killer cells and dendritic cells
  83. What are two of the three therapeutic actions of Cordyceps mushrooms?
    • Stimulate immune function
    • Cytotoxic to cancer cells.
    • Inhibit platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.
  84. What are three therapeutic actions of Reishi mushrooms?
    • Stimulate immune function
    • Cytotoxic to cancer cells.
    • Stimulate detoxification enzymes
  85. Name 2 ways in which Coriolus mushrooms may be considered a complementary cancer therapy:
    • Slowing the spread of cancer cells
    • Improving survival rates 
    • Immune boosting properties for chemotherapy patients.
    • Lessening some side effects of chemotherapy and radiotherapy
  86. Which mushroom contains Lentinan and what is it?
    • Lentinan is found in Shiitake and is a licensed pharmaceutical in Japan
    • (mainly used for stomach cancer)
    • Is the 3rd most widely prescribed anti-cancer drug in the world today.
  87. Name 3 therapeutic properties of Grifiola mushrooms indicated by animal studies:
    • May lower blood pressure.
    • Improves the lipid profile in hyperlipidemia.
    • Has a hypoglycemic effect
  88. What are phytonutrients?
    • Chemicals the plant makes in reaction to its environment.
    • They are adaptive responses to
    • maintain an evolutionary advantage.
  89. Why do plants produce phytochemicals?
    • They may be medicines for the plant itself.
    • Protection from animal predation.
    • Organic plants often have higher phytochemical levels, due to the fact they must protect themselves in their environment as they don’t get ‘molly-coddled’ with pesticides, fertilisers and perfect conditions.
    • The interaction the plant has with the environment around it
  90. How do phytochemicals work in the human body/what effect do they have?
    • They may function as antioxidants.
    • They may regulate the cell cycle.
    • They may increase detoxification of carcinogenic compounds.
    • They may reduce DNA damage.
    • They may mimic or interact with hormones.
  91. What are flavonoids?
    • Water soluble molecules containing 15 carbon atoms.
    • Are responsible for the colouring of fruits, vegetables and herbs
    • Are found in most plant material.
  92. What are the 6 major subgroups of flavonoids?
    • Flavanols
    • flavanones
    • flavonols
    • flavones
    • anthocyanins
    • isoflavonoids.
  93. what are the most important dietary sources of flavonoids?
    • Fruits, tea and soybean.
    • Green and black tea contains about 25% flavonoids. 
    • Other important sources of flavonoids are apple (quercetin), citrus fruits (rutin and hesperidin).
  94. Flavonoids main actions are:
    • Antioxidant
    • Anti-allergic
    • Anti-cancer
    • Anti-inflammatory
    • Anti-viral
  95. Name the individual flavonoids:
    • Kaempferol (apples, citrus fruit, grapes)
    • Catechins (cocoa, tea, grapes)
    • Quercetin (apples, green tea, berries)
    • Naringin (GRAPEFRUIT)
    • Isoflavones (Genistein, Daidzein) (SOYBEANS)
  96. In addition to its antioxidant and anti-cancer properties, explain one other action of Kaempferol and some foods rich in it:
    • Anti-oxidant
    • Chemopreventative
    • Prevents atherosclerosis / arteriosclerosis
    • Apples, citrus fruit, grapes
  97. In addition to its antioxidant and anti-cancer properties, explain one other action of Catechins and some foods rich in it:
    • Anti-oxidant
    • Chemopreventative
    • Decreases insulin resistance / mimics insulin
    • Anti-inflammatory

    Cocoa, tea, grapes
  98. In addition to its antioxidant and anti-cancer properties, explain one other unique feature of Quercetin and some foods rich in it:
    • most abundant of flavonoids
    • building block for other flavonoids
    • Antioxidant
    • protective against CVD
    • chemopreventative
    • Apples, green tea, berries
  99. In addition to its antioxidant and anti-cancer properties, explain one other unique feature of Naringin and some foods rich in it:
    • Antioxidant
    • Anti-cancer
    • Cholesterol lowering
    • Reduces renal disease linked to diabetes
    • reduces diabetic neuropathy.
    • Can interfere with certain drug metabolism by increasing serum level of: sedatives, anti-depressants, cholesterol lowering drugs, warfarin, oestrogen, anti-psychotics
    • Grapefruit
  100. In addition to its antioxidant and anti-cancer properties, explain one other unique feature of isoflavones and some foods rich in it:
    • Antioxidant
    • Anti-cancer
    • Phytoestrogens (Genstein & Daidzen)
    • can mimic and block estrogen
    • reduce hormone related cancers
    • menopause
    • osteoporosis.
  101. Which vitamins and minerals are in Wheatgrass?
    • (ACE, Felix Can Manage)
    • Vits - ACE
    • Mins - Fe, Ca, Mg
  102. Wheatgrass contains which phytonutrients?
    • (AAC)
    • Agropyrene
    • Apigenin
    • Chlorophyll
  103. Name the main thing which Wheatgrass has proven efficacy on:
    Ulcerative colitis (due to anti-inflammatory effects of apigenin).
  104. Which vitamins and minerals are contained in Barley grass?
    Producers claim most Vits and Minerals although no reliable scientific info.
  105. Which phytonutrient is Barley grass abundant in?
    Chlorophyll (27mg in one 12g serving)
  106. Due to it's high chlorophyll content, human studies show the efficacy of Barley grass on what?
    Binding carcinogens (especially alflatoxin) to prevent their absorption from the GI and reduce the amount that reaches susceptible tissues.
  107. Adverse reaction of barley grass?
    May interact with warfarin due to high vit K content.
  108. Which of the superfoods is high in protein with 19 AAs?
    Chlorella
  109. Other than the anti-cancer effects of Chlorella, what other benefits does it provide (thanks to the chlorophyll content)?
    • Heavy metal toxicity (chelates it), particularly mercury and lead elimination.
    • Viruses which sap energy (Epstein-Barr, candida overgrowth, AIDS)
  110. Spirulina is a good source of B vits, discuss it's role as a source of B12 for vegans:
    Do not recommend as a source of B12 for vegans as the analogues of B12 are nutritionally insignificant for humans.
  111. List the red flags related to PAIN:
    • any pain which is persistent, particularly if severe or in the head, abdomen or central chest
    • pain in the eye or temples, with local tenderness, in the elderly, rheumatic patient
    • pain on passing urine in a man
    • cystitis recurring more than three times in a woman
    • absence of pain in ulcers, fissures etc.
    • sciatic pain if associated with objective neurological deficit
  112. List the red flags related to BLEEDING:
    • blood in sputum, vomit, urine or stools
    • vomit containing “coffee grounds”
    • black, tarry stools
    • non-menstrual vaginal bleeding (inter menstrual, postmenopausal, or at any time in pregnancy)
    • vaginal bleeding with pain in pregnancy or after missing one period
  113. List the red flags related to PSYCOLOGICAL SYMPTOMS:
    • deep depression with suicidal ideas
    • hearing voices
    • delusional beliefs
    • incongruous behaviour
  114. List the red flags related to PERSISTENT SYMPTOMS:
    • vomiting and/or diarrhoea
    • vomiting and/or diarrhoea in infant
    • thirst
    • increase in passing urine
    • cough
    • unexplained loss of weight (1lb per week or
    • more)
  115. List the red flags related to SUDDEN SYMPTOMS:
    • breathlessness
    • swelling of face, lips, tongue or throat
    • blueness of the lips
    • loss of consciousness
    • loss of vision
    • convulsions
    • unexplained behavioural change
  116. Difficulty in what 2 things are a red flag?
    • Breathing
    • Swallowing
  117. Changes in what 2 things are a red flag?
    • in bowel habit
    • a skin lesion (size, shape, colour, bleeding, itching, pain)
  118. What are other red flag symptoms:
    • pallor
    • unexplained swelling or lumps
    • neck stiffness in a patient with fever
    • unexplained fever, particularly if persistent or recurrent
    • brown patches (Addison’s disease
  119. Describe what an antecedent is and give two examples:
    • An antecedent is the predisposing risk factors to illness such as:
    • The pregnancy (of the clients mother)
    • The clients birth
    • Age
    • Gender
  120. Describe what an trigger is and give two examples:
    • A trigger is an activator or critical event that may initiate disease, such as:
    • Emotional trauma
    • stressful life events
    • physical trauma
    • diet
  121. Describe what an mediator is and give two examples:
    • Mediators do not cause the disease but contribute to the manifestation of it, such as:
    • Diet
    • Medications
    • Home life
    • Hormones
    • occupation
    • lack of resources
Author
A5
ID
332535
Card Set
YEAR 2 SEMESTER 2
Description
YEAR 2 SEMESTER 2
Updated